Full Judgment Text
Neutral Citation Number: 2022/DHC/005642
* IN THE HIGH COURT OF DELHI AT NEW DELHI
% Order reserved on: December 13, 2022
Order pronounced on: December 19, 2022
39
+ O.M.P.(I) (COMM.) 359/2022 & I.A. 20831/2022 (Production
of Document)
M/S FERMINA DEVELOPERS PRIVATE LIMITED
..... Petitioner
versus
INDIABULLS HOUSING FINANCE LIMITED
..... Respondent
40
+ O.M.P.(I) (COMM.) 362/2022
M/S VATIKA ONE INDIA NEXT PRIVATE LIMITED
..... Petitioner
versus
INDIABULLS COMMERCIAL CREDIT LIMITED
..... Respondent
41
+ O.M.P.(I) (COMM.) 363/2022
M/S VATIKA ONE INDIA NEXT PRIVATE LIMITED
..... Petitioner
versus
INDIABULLS COMMERCIAL CREDIT LIMITED
..... Respondent
42
+ O.M.P.(I) (COMM.) 364/2022
M/S VATIKA INXT 2 PRIVATE LIMITED
..... Petitioner
versus
INDIABULLS HOUSING FINANCE LIMITED
..... Respondent
O.M.P.(I) (COMM.) 359/2022 and other connected matters Page 1 of 67
Signature Not Verified
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By:NEHA
Signing Date:19.12.2022
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Neutral Citation Number: 2022/DHC/005642
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+ O.M.P.(I) (COMM.) 365/2022 & I.A. 20876/2022 (Production
of Document)
M/S VATIKA INXT 2 PRIVATE LIMITED ..... Petitioner
versus
INDIABULLS HOUSING FINANCE LIMITED
..... Respondent
44
+ O.M.P.(I) (COMM.) 366/2022 & I.A. 20878/2022 (Production
of Document)
M/S MENDELL DEVELOPERS PRIVATE LIMITED
..... Petitioner
versus
INDIABULLS HOUSING FINANCE LIMITED
..... Respondent
45
+ O.M.P.(I) (COMM.) 367/2022
M/S VATIKA ONE INDIA NEXT PRIVATE LIMITED
..... Petitioner
versus
INDIABULLS HOUSING FINANCE LIMITED
..... Respondent
46
+ O.M.P.(I) (COMM.) 368/2022
M/S VATIKA ONE INDIA NEXT PRIVATE LIMITED
..... Petitioner
versus
INDIABULLS HOUSING FINANCE LIMITED
..... Respondent
47
+ O.M.P.(I) (COMM.) 369/2022 & I.A. 20882/2022 (Production
of Document)
M/S FERMINA DEVELOPERS PRIVATE LIMITED
..... Petitioner
versus
O.M.P.(I) (COMM.) 359/2022 and other connected matters Page 2 of 67
Signature Not Verified
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Neutral Citation Number: 2022/DHC/005642
INDIABULLS COMMERCIAL CREDIT LIMITED
..... Respondent
48
+ O.M.P.(I) (COMM.) 370/2022 & I.A. 20884/2022 (Production
of Document)
M/S SAHAR LAND AND HOUSING PRAVATE LIMITED
..... Petitioner
versus
INDIABULLS HOUSING FINANCE LIMITED
..... Respondent
49
+ O.M.P.(I) (COMM.) 371/2022 & I.A. 20886/2022 (Production
of Document)
M/S VATIKA LIMITED ..... Petitioner
versus
INDIABULLS HOUSING FINANCE LIMITED
..... Respondent
Through: Mr. Sandeep Sethi and Mr. Ashish Dholakia, Sr.
Advs. with Ms. Padmaja Kaul, Mr. Yugank Goel,
Ms. Tanya Manglik, Mr. Arpit Kumar, Mr.
Kushagra Shah and Mr. Vansh Bhutani, Advs. for
petitioners in all these matters.
Mr. Rajiv Nayar and Mr. Jayant Mehta, Sr. Advs.
with Mr. Rishi Agrawala, Mr. Ankit Banati and
Mr. Shravan Niranjan, Advs. for respondents in all
these matters.
CORAM:
HON'BLE MR. JUSTICE YASHWANT VARMA
O R D E R
1. These petitions under Section 9 of the Arbitration and
1
Conciliation Act, 1996 assail the validity of recall notices dated 10
1
The 1996 Act
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November 2022 issued by the respondent. The petitioners seek a
restraint against all coercive action that may be taken by the
respondent pursuant to the aforenoted recall notices including and
extending to the invocation of guarantees furnished by the petitioners
and taking any steps for disposal of valuable securities which were
furnished by the petitioners under the loan agreements.
2. Since the facts in all the petitions were common and the
challenge was raised against identical recall notices, the Court for the
purposes of brevity proposes to notice the facts as they exist on the
record of O.M.P.(I) (COMM.) 368/2022 and on which arguments
were addressed by learned senior counsels.
3. From the record it transpires that the said petitioner was
extended credit facilities in the shape of a term loan of Rs. 25 crores in
2019. The rights and obligations of parties in connection therewith
came to be embodied in a Loan Agreement dated 16 August 2019.
For the purposes of securing repayment of the aforesaid loan, the
petitioners also created securities which stood specified in Schedules I
and III of the aforesaid Loan Agreement.
4. The petitioners assert that while initially and for several years
they continued to service the loan regularly, on account of the Covid-
19 pandemic, their businesses came to be adversely impacted. In view
of the aforesaid, the petitioners appear to have applied for a One Time
2
Settlement with the respondent. The terms of the OTS which were
ultimately agreed upon came to be recorded in a letter of 01
2
OTS
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3
September 2021 and which provided for the petitioners liquidating
the entire loan by payment of an amount of Rs.10,69,04,446/- along
with interest @ 11.62% per annum payable on a monthly basis on or
before 31 January 2023. It would be pertinent to refer to the relevant
parts of the said communication and the same is extracted
hereinbelow: -
―We state that as on September 30, 2021, an amount of INR
188248848/- (Indian Rupees Eighteen Crores Eighty Two Lakhs
Forty Eight Thousand Eight Hundred Forty Eight only) (the
" Outstanding Amount ") is outstanding and payable to the
Lender. However, as per discussions with the Borrower, we
confirm that upon the receipt of INR 106904446/- (Indian
Rupees Ten Crores Sixty Nine Lakhs Four Thousand four
Hundred Forty Six only) (the "Said Amount") plus an interest of
11.62% per annum payable on a monthly basis ("p.a/p.m") on
INR 106904446/- or the amount that remains outstanding out of
the Said Amount with effect from October 1, 2021 till the date
of actual payment of the Said Amount, on or before January 31,
2023 (" Final Payment Date "), the above referred Loan shall
stand closed and the Lender will issue a no dues certificate to
the Borrower. It is however clarified that in the event that the
Borrower is able to make payment of only a part of the Said
Amount by the Final Payment Date (excluding the interest costs
as mentioned above) on or prior to January 31, 2023, then the
same proportion of the Outstanding Amount as on September
30, 2021 shall stand repaid and the portion of the Outstanding
Amount together with interest of 11.62% p.a/p.m and related
amounts thereon shall remain payable and outstanding. The
proportion of the Outstanding Amount payable (along with
interest of 11.62% p.a/p.m) post January 31, 2023 in case of a
part payment is illustrated numerically below:‖
5. The petitioners assert that pursuant to the issuance of the OTS
letter they continued to make “regular periodical payments to the
respondent as per the prevailing practice between the parties” . They
further assert that these payments were duly accepted by the
3
OTS letter
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respondent without any demur or protest. The petitioner also relies
upon a certificate dated 05 December 2022 issued by an independent
auditor and asserts that the details of payments which were made
would establish that they ultimately paid much more than what was
settled for under the OTS. Insofar as the petitioner in O.M.P.(I)
(COMM.) 368/2022 is concerned, it is asserted that a total sum of Rs.
11,31,10,661/- came to be deposited by 29 November 2022. It was
also submitted that the payment chart which stands appended along
with the petition would indicate that the interest component was also
cleared off within the period stipulated in the OTS letter. According
to the petitioners, they were thus taken completely by surprise when
the recall notice came to be issued on 10 November 2022. It is in the
aforesaid backdrop that these petitions thereafter came to be instituted
before this Court.
6. To complete the narration of facts, it may be additionally noted
that prior to the institution of the present petitions on or about 06
December 2022, the respondent had issued notices referable to Section
13(2) of the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets
4
and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 against all the
petitioners. Those notices are dated 30 November 2022. When the
instant batch was taken up for consideration, a preliminary objection
was taken by Mr. Nayar and Mr. Mehta, learned senior counsels
appearing for the respondent, to the maintainability of the instant
petitions with it being contended that since they had proceeded to
initiate proceedings under SARFAESI, the instant petitions would not
4
SARFAESI
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be maintainable since the dispute would not be arbitrable. The
aforesaid contention was based upon the following principles as
enunciated by the Supreme Court in Vidya Drolia vs. Durga Trading
5
Corpn. while dealing with the issue of non-arbitrability of disputes: -
“50. Sovereign functions of the State being inalienable and non-
delegable are non-arbitrable as the State alone has the exclusive
right and duty to perform such functions. [Ajar Raib, ―Defining
Contours of the Public Policy Exception — A New Test for
Arbitrability‖, Indian Journal for Arbitration Law, Vol. 7 (2018) p.
161.] For example, it is generally accepted that monopoly rights
can only be granted by the State. Correctness and validity of the
State or sovereign functions cannot be made a direct subject-matter
of a private adjudicatory process. Sovereign functions for the
purpose of Arbitration Act would extend to exercise of executive
power in different fields including commerce and economic,
legislation in all forms, taxation, eminent domain and police
powers which includes maintenance of law and order, internal
security, grant of pardon, etc. as distinguished from commercial
activities, economic adventures and welfare activities. [ Common
Cause v. Union of India , (1999) 6 SCC 667 : 1999 SCC (Cri) 119
and Agricultural Produce Market Committee v. Ashok Harikuni ,
(2000) 8 SCC 61.] Similarly, decisions and adjudicatory functions
of the State that have public interest element like the legitimacy of
marriage, citizenship, winding up of companies, grant of patents,
etc. are non-arbitrable, unless the statute in relation to a regulatory
or adjudicatory mechanism either expressly or by clear implication
permits arbitration. In these matters the State enjoys monopoly in
dispute resolution.
51. Fourth principle of non-arbitrability is alluded to in the order of
reference [ Vidya Drolia v. Durga Trading Corpn. , (2019) 20 SCC
406] , which makes specific reference to Vimal Kishor Shah [ Vimal
Kishor Shah v. Jayesh Dinesh Shah , (2016) 8 SCC 788 : (2016) 4
SCC (Civ) 303], which decision quotes
from Dhulabhai [ Dhulabhai v. State of M.P. , (1968) 3 SCR 662 :
AIR 1969 SC 78], a case which dealt with exclusion of jurisdiction
of civil courts under Section 9 of the Civil Procedure Code. The
second condition in Dhulabhai [ Dhulabhai v. State of M.P. , (1968)
3 SCR 662 : AIR 1969 SC 78] reads as under : (AIR p. 89, para 32)
5
(2021) 2 SCC 1
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| ―32. … (2) Where there is an express bar of the jurisdiction | |
|---|---|
| of the court, an examination of the scheme of the particular Act | |
| to find the adequacy or the sufficiency of the remedies provided | |
| may be relevant but is not decisive to sustain the jurisdiction of | |
| the civil court. | |
| Where there is no express exclusion the examination of the | |
| remedies and the scheme of the particular Act to find out the | |
| intendment becomes necessary and the result of the inquiry may | |
| be decisive. In the latter case it is necessary to see if the statute | |
| creates a special right or a liability and provides for the | |
| determination of the right or liability and further lays down that | |
| all questions about the said right and liability shall be | |
| determined by the tribunals so constituted, and whether | |
| remedies normally associated with actions in civil courts are | |
| prescribed by the said statute or not.‖ | |
| 52. The order of reference [Vidya Drolia v. Durga Trading Corpn., | |
| (2019) 20 SCC 406] notes that Dhulabhai [Dhulabhai v. State of | |
| M.P., (1968) 3 SCR 662 : AIR 1969 SC 78] refers to three | |
| categories mentioned in Wolverhampton New Waterworks | |
| Co. v. Hawkesford [Wolverhampton New Waterworks | |
| Co. v. Hawkesford, (1859) 6 CB (NS) 336 : 141 ER 486] to the | |
| following effect : (Hawkesford case [Wolverhampton New | |
| Waterworks Co. v. Hawkesford, (1859) 6 CB (NS) 336 : 141 ER | |
| 486] , ER p. 495) | |
| ―There are three classes of cases in which a liability may be | |
| established founded upon a statute. One is, where there was a | |
| liability existing at common law, and that liability is affirmed by | |
| a statute which gives a special and peculiar form of remedy | |
| different from the remedy which existed at common law; there, | |
| unless the statute contains words which expressly or by | |
| necessary implication exclude the common law remedy, and the | |
| party suing has his election to pursue either that or the statutory | |
| remedy. The second class of cases is, where the statute gives the | |
| right to sue merely, but provides no particular form of remedy: | |
| there, the party can only proceed by action at common law. But | |
| there is a third class viz. where a liability not existing at | |
| common law is created by a statute which at the same time gives | |
| a special and particular remedy for enforcing it.‖ | |
| 53. Dhulabhai case [Dhulabhai v. State of M.P., (1968) 3 SCR 662 | |
| : AIR 1969 SC 78] is not directly applicable as it relates to | |
| exclusion of jurisdiction of civil courts, albeit we respectfully agree | |
| with the order of reference [Vidya Drolia v. Durga Trading Corpn., | |
| (2019) 20 SCC 406] that Condition 2 is apposite while examining | |
| the question of non-arbitrability. Implied legislative intention to |
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| exclude arbitration can be seen if it appears that the statute creates a | |
|---|---|
| special right or a liability and provides for determination of the | |
| right and liability to be dealt with by the specified courts or the | |
| tribunals specially constituted in that behalf and further lays down | |
| that all questions about the said right and liability shall be | |
| determined by the court or tribunals so empowered and vested with | |
| exclusive jurisdiction. Therefore, mere creation of a specific forum | |
| as a substitute for civil court or specifying the civil court, may not | |
| be enough to accept the inference of implicit non-arbitrability. | |
| Conferment of jurisdiction on a specific court or creation of a | |
| public forum though eminently significant, may not be the decisive | |
| test to answer and decide whether arbitrability is impliedly barred. | |
| 54. Implicit non-arbitrability is established when by mandatory law | |
| the parties are quintessentially barred from contracting out and | |
| waiving the adjudication by the designated court or the specified | |
| public forum. There is no choice. The person who insists on the | |
| remedy must seek his remedy before the forum stated in the statute | |
| and before no other forum. In Transcore v. Union of | |
| India [Transcore v. Union of India, (2008) 1 SCC 125 : (2008) 1 | |
| SCC (Civ) 116] , this Court had examined the doctrine of election | |
| in the context whether an order under proviso to Section 19(1) of | |
| the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, | |
| 1993 (―the DRT Act‖) is a condition precedent to taking recourse | |
| to the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and | |
| Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (―the NPA Act‖). For | |
| analysing the scope and remedies under the two Acts, it was held | |
| that the NPA Act is an additional remedy which is not inconsistent | |
| with the DRT Act, and reference was made to the doctrine of | |
| election in the following terms: (Transcore | |
| case [Transcore v. Union of India, (2008) 1 SCC 125 : (2008) 1 | |
| SCC (Civ) 116] , SCC p. 162, para 64) | |
| ―64. In the light of the above discussion, we now examine the | |
| doctrine of election. There are three elements of election, namely, | |
| existence of two or more remedies; inconsistencies between such | |
| remedies and a choice of one of them. If any one of the three | |
| elements is not there, the doctrine will not apply. According | |
| to American Jurisprudence, 2d, Vol. 25, p. 652, if in truth there is | |
| only one remedy, then the doctrine of election does not apply. In | |
| the present case, as stated above, the NPA Act is an additional | |
| remedy to the DRT Act. Together they constitute one remedy and, | |
| therefore, the doctrine of election does not apply. Even according | |
| to Snell's Principles of Equity (31st Edn., p. 119), the doctrine of | |
| election of remedies is applicable only when there are two or | |
| more co-existent remedies available to the litigants at the time of | |
| election which are repugnant and inconsistent. In any event, there |
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is no repugnancy nor inconsistency between the two remedies,
therefore, the doctrine of election has no application.‖
55. Doctrine of election to select arbitration as a dispute resolution
mechanism by mutual agreement is available only if the law
accepts existence of arbitration as an alternative remedy and
freedom to choose is available. There should not be any
inconsistency or repugnancy between the provisions of the
mandatory law and arbitration as an alternative. Conversely, and in
a given case when there is repugnancy and inconsistency, the right
of choice and election to arbitrate is denied. This requires
examining the ―text of the statute, the legislative history, and
―inherent conflict‖ between arbitration and the statute's underlying
purpose‖ [Jennifer L. Peresie, ―Reducing the Presumption of
Arbitrability‖ 22 Yale Law & Policy Review, Vol. 22, Issue 2
(Spring 2004), pp. 453-462.] with reference to the nature and type
of special rights conferred and power and authority given to the
courts or public forum to effectuate and enforce these rights and the
orders passed. When arbitration cannot enforce and apply such
rights or the award cannot be implemented and enforced in the
manner as provided and mandated by law, the right of election to
choose arbitration in preference to the courts or public forum is
either completely denied or could be curtailed. In essence, it is
necessary to examine if the statute creates a special right or liability
and provides for the determination of each right or liability by the
specified court or the public forum so constituted, and whether the
remedies beyond the ordinary domain of the civil courts are
prescribed. When the answer is affirmative, arbitration in the
absence of special reason is contraindicated. The dispute is non-
arbitrable.
56. In M.D. Frozen Foods Exports (P) Ltd. v. Hero Fincorp
Ltd. [ M.D. Frozen Foods Exports (P) Ltd. v. Hero Fincorp Ltd. ,
(2017) 16 SCC 741 : (2018) 2 SCC (Civ) 805] and following this
judgment in Indiabulls Housing Finance Ltd. v. Deccan Chronicle
Holdings Ltd. [ Indiabulls Housing Finance Ltd. v. Deccan
Chronicle Holdings Ltd. , (2018) 14 SCC 783 : (2018) 4 SCC (Civ)
703], it has been held that even prior arbitration proceedings are not
a bar to proceedings under the NPA Act. The NPA Act sets out an
expeditious, procedural methodology enabling the financial
institutions to take possession and sell secured properties for non-
payment of the dues. Such powers, it is obvious, cannot be
exercised through the arbitral proceedings.
57. In Transcore [ Transcore v. Union of India , (2008) 1 SCC 125:
(2008) 1 SCC (Civ) 116], on the powers of the Debt Recovery
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| Tribunal (―DRT‖) under the DRT Act, it was observed : (SCC p. | |
|---|---|
| 141, para 18) | |
| ―18. On analysing the above provisions of the DRT Act, we | |
| find that the said Act is a complete code by itself as far as | |
| recovery of debt is concerned. It provides for various modes of | |
| recovery. It incorporates even the provisions of the Second and | |
| Third Schedules to the Income Tax Act, 1961. Therefore, the | |
| debt due under the recovery certificate can be recovered in | |
| various ways. The remedies mentioned therein are | |
| complementary to each other. The DRT Act provides for | |
| adjudication. It provides for adjudication of disputes as far as the | |
| debt due is concerned. It covers secured as well as unsecured | |
| debts. However, it does not rule out the applicability of the | |
| provisions of the TP Act, in particular, Sections 69 and 69-A of | |
| that Act. Further, in cases where the debt is secured by a pledge | |
| of shares or immovable properties, with the passage of time and | |
| delay in the DRT proceedings, the value of the pledged assets or | |
| mortgaged properties invariably falls. On account of inflation, | |
| the value of the assets in the hands of the bank/FI invariably | |
| depletes which, in turn, leads to asset-liability mismatch. These | |
| contingencies are not taken care of by the DRT Act and, | |
| therefore, Parliament had to enact the NPA Act, 2002.‖ | |
| 58. Consistent with the above, observations | |
| in Transcore [Transcore v. Union of India, (2008) 1 SCC 125: | |
| (2008) 1 SCC (Civ) 116] on the power of the DRT conferred by the | |
| DRT Act and the principle enunciated in the present judgment, we | |
| must overrule the judgment of the Full Bench of the Delhi High | |
| Court in HDFC Bank Ltd. v. Satpal Singh Bakshi [HDFC Bank | |
| Ltd. v. Satpal Singh Bakshi, 2012 SCC OnLine Del 4815 : (2013) | |
| 134 DRJ 566], which holds that matters covered under the DRT | |
| Act are arbitrable. It is necessary to overrule this decision and | |
| clarify the legal position as the decision in HDFC Bank | |
| Ltd. [HDFC Bank Ltd. v. Satpal Singh Bakshi, 2012 SCC OnLine | |
| Del 4815 : (2013) 134 DRJ 566] has been referred to in M.D. | |
| Frozen Foods Exports (P) Ltd. [M.D. Frozen Foods Exports (P) | |
| Ltd. v. Hero Fincorp Ltd., (2017) 16 SCC 741 : (2018) 2 SCC | |
| (Civ) 805], but not examined in light of the legal principles relating | |
| to non-arbitrability. The decision in HDFC Bank Ltd. [HDFC Bank | |
| Ltd. v. Satpal Singh Bakshi, 2012 SCC OnLine Del 4815 : (2013) | |
| 134 DRJ 566] holds that only actions in rem are non-arbitrable, | |
| which as elucidated above is the correct legal position. However, | |
| non-arbitrability may arise in case of the implicit prohibition in the | |
| statute, conferring and creating special rights to be adjudicated by | |
| the courts/public fora, which right including enforcement of | |
| order/provisions cannot be enforced and applied in case of |
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arbitration. To hold that the claims of banks and financial
institutions covered under the DRT Act are arbitrable would
deprive and deny these institutions of the specific rights including
the modes of recovery specified in the DRT Act. Therefore, the
claims covered by the DRT Act are non-arbitrable as there is a
prohibition against waiver of jurisdiction of the DRT by necessary
implication. The legislation has overwritten the contractual right to
arbitration.‖
7. Learned senior counsels appearing for the respondent contended
that the SARFAESI constructs a comprehensive and self-contained
code for determination of all questions and disputes which may arise
from an action that may be taken by a financial institution for
enforcement of a security interest. It was submitted that Sections 13,
17 and 18 of the SARFAESI create and put in place an adjudicatory
mechanism by a statutory tribunal and thus the present petitions under
Section 9 of the 1996 Act would not be maintainable.
8. Insofar as the facts relating to the issuance of the recall notice is
concerned, both Mr. Nayar as well as Mr. Mehta, submitted that the
terms of the OTS clearly mandated the petitioners depositing the sums
indicated in the individual OTS letters along with interest on a
monthly basis. It was pointed out that the petitioners failed to abide
by that fundamental stipulation as contained in the OTS letter. It was
submitted that as the certificate issued by the independent auditor in
favour of the petitioner in O.M.P.(I) (COMM.) 368/2022 would itself
bear out, the petitioner there failed to abide by the aforesaid condition
which was fundamental to and constituted the bedrock of the OTS.
According to learned senior counsels, since there was an admitted
default, the respondent was constrained to issue recall notices.
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9. Appearing for the petitioners both Mr. Sethi as well as Mr.
Dholakia, learned senior counsels contended that the recall notices are
wholly illegal and arbitrary since the facts as brought on the record by
the petitioners would establish, the sum which was settled for under
the OTS had been cleared and paid in full prior to the issuance of the
notices in question. Learned senior counsels submitted that the action
initiated by the respondent would clearly fall within the ambit of
actions which were termed by the Supreme Court in Mardia
6
Chemicals Ltd. vs. Union of India as being fraudulent, absurd and
untenable and in which case jurisdiction of the civil court could
always be invoked and thus consequently it would be incorrect for the
respondent to assert that the dispute would fall in the category of a
non-arbitrable dispute.
10. In order to appreciate the issues which arise, it would be
apposite to briefly notice the provisions of the Recovery of Debts and
7
Bankruptcy Act, 1993 and SARFAESI in order to ascertain the
extent to which they bar the jurisdiction of a civil court. The RDB Act
confers jurisdiction and authority on tribunals constituted thereunder
in terms of Section 17 of the RDB Act, which reads thus: -
| “17. Jurisdiction, powers and authority of Tribunals. | |
|---|---|
| (1) A Tribunal shall exercise, on and from the appointed day, the | |
| jurisdiction, powers and authority to entertain and applications | |
| from the banks and financial institutions for recovery of debts | |
| due to such banks and financial institutions. | |
| (1A) Without prejudice to sub-section (1),- | |
| (a) the Tribunal shall exercise, on and from the date to be | |
| appointed by the Central Government, the jurisdiction, |
6
(2004) 4 SCC 311
7
The RDB Act
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| powers and authority to entertain and decide applications | |
|---|---|
| under Part III of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. | |
| (b) the Tribunal shall have circuit sittings in all district | |
| headquarters. | |
| (2) An Appellate Tribunal shall exercise, on and from the | |
| appointed day, the jurisdiction, powers and authority to entertain | |
| appeals against any order made, or deemed to have been made, | |
| by a Tribunal under this Act. | |
| (2A) Without prejudice to sub-section (2), the Appellate | |
| Tribunal shall exercise, on and from the date to be appointed by | |
| the Central Government, the jurisdiction, powers and authority | |
| to entertain appeals against the order made by the Adjudicating | |
| Authority under Part III of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, | |
| 2016.‖ | |
Section 18 of the RDB Act and ousts the jurisdiction of all courts
reads thus: -
“18. Bar of Jurisdiction. – On and from the appointed day, no
court or other authority shall have, or be entitled to exercise, any
jurisdiction, powers or authority (except the Supreme Court, and
a High Court exercising jurisdiction under articles 226 and 227
of the Constitution) in relation to the matters specified in section
17:
Provided that any proceedings in relation to the recovery of
debts due to any multi-State co-operative bank pending before
the date of commencement of the Enforcement of Security
Interest and Recovery of Debts Laws (Amendment) Act, 2012
under the Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002 (39 of
2002) shall be continued and nothing contained in this section
shall, after such commencement, apply to such proceedings.‖
12. As would be evident from a reading of the aforesaid provisions,
the jurisdiction of courts and authorities stands barred in relation to
matters specified in Section 17 of the RDB Act. The jurisdiction of
the tribunal as conferred by Section 17 of the RDB Act relates to
applications that may be made by a bank or financial institutions to
recover a secured debt from any person. While when the RDB Act
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was initially promulgated, a defendant in an application made under
Section 17 had no right to claim a set off or set up a counter claim,
that lacuna stands addressed in light of the amendments which were
introduced by virtue of the Enforcement of Security Interest and
Recovery of Debts Laws and Miscellaneous Provisions
8
(Amendment) Act, 2016 . The RDB Act is conferred an overriding
effect by virtue of Section 34 thereof. The said provision reads as
under: -
| “34. Act to have over-riding effect. – | ||
|---|---|---|
| (1) Save as provided under sub- section (2), the provisions of this | ||
| Act shall have effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent | ||
| therewith contained in any other law for the time being in force or | ||
| in any instrument having effect by virtue of any law other than | ||
| this Act. | ||
| (2) The provisions of this Act or the rules made thereunder shall | ||
| be in addition to, and not in derogation of, the Industrial Finance | ||
| Corporation Act, 1948 (15 of 1948), the State Financial | ||
| Corporations Act, 1951 (63 of 1951), the Unit Trust of India Act, | ||
| 1963 (52 of 1963), the Industrial Reconstruction Bank of India | ||
| Act, 1984 (62 of 1984), the Sick Industrial Companies (Special | ||
| Provisions) Act, 1985 (1 of 1986) and the Small Industries | ||
| Development Bank of India Act, 1989 (39 of 1989).‖ |
interpreted to extend to matters which may fall for the determination
of the tribunal under Sections 17 and 19 of the RDB Act. This aspect
has been duly highlighted by the Supreme Court in its recent decision
rendered in Bank of Rajasthan Ltd. vs. VCK Shares & Stock
9
Broking Services Ltd. , where it was held: -
“43. We must note at the threshold itself that there are no
restrictions on the power of a Civil Court under Section 9 of the
Code unless expressly or impliedly excluded. This was also
8
Act 44 of 2016
9
2022 SCC OnLine SC 1557
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reiterated by a Constitution Bench of this Court
in Dhulabhai v. State of Madhya Pradesh . Thus, it is in the
conspectus of the aforesaid proposition that we will have to
analyse the rival contentions of the parties set out above. Our
line of thinking is also influenced by a Three-Judges Bench of this
Court in Dwarka Prasad Agarwal (D) By LRs v. Ramesh Chander
Agarwal where it was opined that Section 9 of the Code confers
jurisdiction upon Civil Courts to determine all disputes of civil
nature unless the same is barred under statute either expressly or
by necessary implication and such a bar is not to be readily
inferred. The provision seeking to bar jurisdiction of a Civil Court
requires strict interpretation and the Court would normally lean in
favour of construction which would uphold the jurisdiction of the
Civil Court.
44. Now, if we turn to the objective of the RDB Act read with the
scheme and provisions thereof; it is abundantly clear that a
summary remedy is provided in respect of claims of banks and
financial institutions so that recovery of the same may not be
impeded by the elaborate procedure of the Code. The defendant
has a right to defend the claim and file a counterclaim in
view of sub-Sections (6) and (8) of Section 19 of the RDB Act. In
case of pending proceedings to be transferred to the DRT, Section
31 of the RDB Act took care of the issue of mere transfer of the
Bank's claim, albeit without transfer of the counterclaim. Thus, if
the debtor desires to institute a counterclaim, that can be filed
before the DRT and will be tried along with the case. However, it
is subject to a caveat that the bank may move for
segregation of that counterclaim to be relegated to a proceeding
before a Civil Court under Section 19(11) of the RDB Act, though
such determination is to take place along with the
determination of the claim for recovery of debt.
45. We are thus of the view that there is no provision in the RDB
Act by which the remedy of a civil suit by a defendant in a claim
by the bank is ousted, but it is the matter of choice of that
defendant. Such a defendant may file a counterclaim, or may be
desirous of availing of the more strenuous procedure established
under the Code, and that is a choice which he takes with the
consequences thereof.
46. We may notice that the RDB Act was amended from time to
time, including by amendments made under Act 1 of 2000, Act
30 of 2004, Act 1 of 2013 and Act 44 of 2016. The anomaly, inter
alia , initially sought to be cured was on account of the non-
availability of provisions on counterclaim and set-off. It is to get
over such a scenario that amendment through Act 1 of 2000 was
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made by the Legislature itself to cure the problem. The
Legislature did not, at any stage, make any further amendment for
excluding the jurisdiction of the Civil Court in respect of a
claim of a defendant in such a proceeding being filed along with
the suit. The Legislature in its wisdom has also not considered it
appropriate to bring any amendment to enhance the powers of the
DRT in this respect.‖
14. In Para 56 of the report, the Supreme Court recorded its
conclusions as under: -
“56. In view of the discussion aforesaid, the questions framed
above are to be answered as under:
(c) Is the jurisdiction of a Civil Court to try a suit filed by a
borrower against a Bank or Financial Institution ousted by
virtue of the scheme of the RDB Act in relation to the
proceedings for recovery of debt by a Bank or Financial
Institution?
The aforesaid question ought to be answered first and is answered
in the negative.
(a) Whether an independent suit filed by a borrower against
a Bank or Financial Institution, which has applied for
recovery of its loan against the plaintiff under the RDB Act, is
liable to be transferred and tried along with the application under
the RDB Act by the DRT?
In the absence of any such power existing in the Civil Court, an
independent suit filed by the borrower against the bank or
financial institution cannot be transferred to be tried along with
application under the RDB Act, as it is a matter of option of the
defendant in the claim under the RDB Act. However, the
proceedings under the RDB Act will not be impeded in any
manner by filing of a separate suit before the Civil Court.
(b) If the answer is in the affirmative, can such transfer be ordered
by a court only with the consent of the plaintiff?
Since there is no such power with the Civil Court, there is no
question of transfer of the suit whether by consent or otherwise.‖
15. SARFAESI, on the other hand, relates to the enforcement of
security interests that may be created and exist in favour of a secured
creditor. Section 13 of the SARFAESI sets forth the procedure for
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enforcement of such a security interest. The said provision is
extracted hereinbelow: -
“13. Enforcement of security interest .—
(1) Notwithstanding anything contained in Section 69 or Section
69-A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (4 of 1882), any
security interest created in favour of any secured creditor may be
enforced, without the intervention of the court or tribunal, by such
creditor in accordance with the provisions of this Act.
(2) Where any borrower, who is under a liability to a secured
creditor under a security agreement, makes any default in
repayment of secured debt or any instalment thereof, and his
account in respect of such debt is classified by the secured
creditor as non-performing asset, then, the secured creditor may
require the borrower by notice in writing to discharge in full his
liabilities to the secured creditor within sixty days from the date
of notice failing which the secured creditor shall be entitled to
exercise all or any of the rights under sub-section (4):
Provided that—
( i ) the requirement of classification of secured debt as non-
performing asset under this sub-section shall not apply to a
borrower who has raised funds through issue of debt securities;
and
( ii ) in the event of default, the debenture trustee shall be
entitled to enforce security interest in the same manner as
provided under this section with such modifications as may be
necessary and in accordance with the terms and conditions of
security documents executed in favour of the debenture trustee;
(3) The notice referred to in sub-section (2) shall give details of
the amount payable by the borrower and the secured assets
intended to be enforced by the secured creditor in the event of
non-payment of secured debts by the borrower.
(3-A) If, on receipt of the notice under sub-section (2), the
borrower makes any representation or raises any objection, the
secured creditor shall consider such representation or objection
and if the secured creditor comes to the conclusion that such
representation or objection is not acceptable or tenable, he shall
communicate within fifteen days of receipt of such representation
or objection the reasons for non-acceptance of the representation
or objection to the borrower:
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PROVIDED that the reasons so communicated or the likely action
of the secured creditor at the stage of communication of reasons
shall not confer any right upon the borrower to prefer an
application to the Debts Recovery Tribunal under section 17 or
the Court of District Judge under section 17-A.
(4) In case the borrower fails to discharge his liability in full
within the period specified in sub-section (2), the secured creditor
may take recourse to one or more of the following measures to
recover his secured debt, namely:—
( a ) take possession of the secured assets of the borrower
including the right to transfer by way of lease, assignment or
sale for realising the secured asset;
( b ) take over the management of the business of the borrower
including the right to transfer by way of lease, assignment or
sale for realising the secured asset:
PROVIDED that the right to transfer by way of lease,
assignment or sale shall be exercised only where the
substantial part of the business of the borrower is held as
security for the debt:
PROVIDED FURTHER that where the management of whole
of the business or part of the business is severable, the secured
creditor shall take over the management of such business of the
borrower which is relatable to the security or the debt;
( c ) appoint any person (hereafter referred to as the manager),
to manage the secured assets the possession of which has been
taken over by the secured creditor;
( d ) require at any time by notice in writing, any person who
has acquired any of the secured assets from the borrower and
from whom any money is due or may become due to the
borrower, to pay the secured creditor, so much of the money as
is sufficient to pay the secured debt.
(5) Any payment made by any person referred to in clause ( d ) of
sub-section (4) to the secured creditor shall give such person a
valid discharge as if he has made payment to the borrower.
(5-A) Where the sale of an immovable property, for which a
reserve price has been specified, has been postponed for want of a
bid of an amount not less than such reserve price, it shall be
lawful for any officer of the secured creditor, if so authorised by
the secured creditor in this behalf, to bid for the immovable
property on behalf of the secured creditor at any subsequent sale.
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(5B) Where the secured creditor, referred to in sub-section (5-A),
is declared to be the purchaser of the immovable property at any
subsequent sale, the amount of the purchase price shall be
adjusted towards the amount of the claim of the secured creditor
for which the auction of enforcement of security interest is taken
by the secured creditor, under sub-section (4) of Section 13.
(5C) The provisions of Section 9 of the Banking Regulation Act,
1949 (10 of 1949) shall, as far as may be, apply to the immovable
property acquired by secured creditor under sub-section (5A).
(6) Any transfer of secured asset after taking possession thereof or
take over of management under sub-section (4), by the secured
creditor or by the manager on behalf of the secured creditor shall
vest in the transferee all rights in, or in relation to, the secured
asset transferred as if the transfer had been made by the owner of
such secured asset.
(7) Where any action has been taken against a borrower under the
provisions of sub-section (4), all costs, charges and expenses
which, in the opinion of the secured creditor, have been properly
incurred by him or any expenses incidental thereto, shall be
recoverable from the borrower and the money which is received
by the secured creditor shall, in the absence of any contract to the
contrary, be held by him in trust, to be applied, firstly, in payment
of such costs, charges and expenses and secondly, in discharge of
the dues of the secured creditor and the residue of the money so
received shall be paid to the person entitled thereto in accordance
with his rights and interests.
(8) Where the amount of dues of the secured creditor together
with all costs, charges and expenses incurred by him is tendered
to the secured creditor at any time before the date of publication
of notice for public auction or inviting quotations or tender from
public or private treaty for transfer by way of lease, assignment or
sale of the secured assets,—
( i ) the secured assets shall not be transferred by way of lease,
assignment or sale by the secured creditor; and
( ii ) in case, any step has been taken by the secured creditor for
transfer by way of lease or assignment or sale of the assets
before tendering of such amount under this sub-section, no
further step shall be taken by such secured creditor for transfer
by way of lease or assignment or sale of such secured assets.
(9) Subject to the provisions of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy
Code, 2016, in the case of financing of a financial asset by more
than one secured creditors or joint financing of a financial asset
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by secured creditors, no secured creditor shall be entitled to
exercise any or all of the rights conferred on him under or
pursuant to sub-section (4) unless exercise of such right is agreed
upon by the secured creditors representing not less than sixty
percent in value of the amount outstanding as on a record date and
such action shall be binding on all the secured creditors:
PROVIDED that in the case of a company in liquidation, the
amount realised from the sale of secured assets shall be
distributed in accordance with the provisions of Section 529-A of
the Companies Act, 1956 (1 of 1956):
PROVIDED FURTHER that in the case of a company being
wound up on or after the commencement of this Act, the secured
creditor of such company, who opts to realise his security instead
of relinquishing his security and proving his debt under proviso to
sub-section (1) of section 529 of the Companies Act, 1956 (1 of
1956), may retain the sale proceeds of his secured assets after
depositing the workmen's dues with the liquidator in accordance
with the provisions of Section 529A of that Act:
PROVIDED ALSO that liquidator referred to in the second
proviso shall intimate the secured creditor the workmen's dues in
accordance with the provisions of Section 529-A of the
Companies Act, 1956 (1 of 1956) and in case such workmen's
dues cannot be ascertained, the liquidator shall intimate the
estimated amount or workmen's dues under that section to the
secured creditor and in such case the secured creditor may retain
the sale proceeds of the secured assets after depositing the amount
of such estimated dues with the liquidator:
PROVIDED also that in case the secured creditor deposits the
estimated amount of workmen's dues, such creditor shall be liable
to pay the balance of the workmen's dues or entitled to receive the
excess amount, if any, deposited by the secured creditor with the
liquidator:
PROVIDED ALSO that the secured creditor shall furnish an
undertaking to the liquidator to pay the balance of the workmen's
dues, if any.
Explanation .—For the purposes of this sub-section,—
( a ) ―record date‖ means the date agreed upon by the secured
creditors representing not less than sixty percent in value of the
amount outstanding on such date;
( b ) ―amount outstanding‖ shall include principal, interest and
any other dues payable by the borrower to the secured creditor
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in respect of secured asset as per the books of account of the
secured creditor.
(10) Where dues of the secured creditor are not fully satisfied
with the sale proceeds of the secured assets, the secured creditor
may file an application in the form and manner as may be
prescribed to the Debts Recovery Tribunal having jurisdiction or a
competent court, as the case may be, for recovery of the balance
amount from the borrower.
(11) Without prejudice to the rights conferred on the secured
creditor under or by this section, the secured creditor shall be
entitled to proceed against the guarantors or sell the pledged
assets without first taking any of the measures specified in clauses
( a ) to ( d ) of sub-section (4) in relation to the secured assets under
this Act.
(12) The rights of a secured creditor under this Act may be
exercised by one or more of his officers authorised in this behalf
in such manner as may be prescribed.
(13) No borrower shall, after receipt of notice referred to in sub-
section (2), transfer by way of sale, lease or otherwise (other than
in the ordinary course of his business) any of his secured assets
referred to in the notice, without prior written consent of the
secured creditor.‖
16. Section 17 of the SARFAESI provides and confers a right on
any person including a borrower to assail any measure that may be
taken by a secured creditor under Section 13. That provision reads
thus: -
“17. Application against measures to recover secured
debts.-
(1) Any person (including borrower), aggrieved by any of the
measures referred to in sub-section (4) of section 13 taken by the
secured creditor or his authorised officer under this Chapter,
may make an application along with such fee, as may be
prescribed to the Debts Recovery Tribunal having jurisdiction in
the matter within forty-five days from the date on which such
measure had been taken:
PROVIDED that different fees may be prescribed for making
the application by the borrower and the person other than the
borrower.
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| Explanation: For the removal of doubts, it is hereby declared | ||
|---|---|---|
| that the communication of the reasons to the borrower by the | ||
| secured creditor for not having accepted his representation or | ||
| objection or the likely action of the secured creditor at the stage | ||
| of communication of reasons to the borrower shall not entitle the | ||
| person (including borrower) to make an application to the Debts | ||
| Recovery Tribunal under sub-section (1) of section 17. | ||
| (1A) An application under sub-section (1) shall be filed before | ||
| the Debts Recovery Tribunal within the local limits of whose | ||
| jurisdiction- | ||
| (a) the cause of action, wholly or in part, arises; | ||
| (b) where the secured asset is located; or | ||
| (c) the branch or any other office of a bank or financial | ||
| institution is maintaining an account in which debt claimed is | ||
| outstanding for the time being. | ||
| (2) The Debts Recovery Tribunal shall consider whether any of | ||
| the measures referred to in sub-section (4) of section 13 taken by | ||
| the secured creditor for enforcement of security are in | ||
| accordance with the provisions of this Act and the rules made | ||
| thereunder. | ||
| (3) If, the Debts Recovery Tribunal, after examining the facts | ||
| and circumstances of the case and evidence produced by the | ||
| parties, comes to the conclusion that any of the measures | ||
| referred to in sub-section (4) of section 13, taken by the secured | ||
| creditor are not in accordance with the provisions of this Act and | ||
| the rules made thereunder, and require restoration of the | ||
| management or restoration of possession, of the secured assets | ||
| to the borrower or other aggrieved person, it may, by order,- | ||
| (a) declare the recourse to any one or more measures referred | ||
| to in sub-section (4) of section 13 taken by the secured creditor | ||
| as invalid; and | ||
| (b) restore the possession of secured assets or management of | ||
| secured assets to the borrower or such other aggrieved person, | ||
| who has made an application under sub-section (1), as the case | ||
| may be; and | ||
| (c) pass such other direction as it may consider appropriate and | ||
| necessary in relation to any of the recourse taken by the | ||
| secured creditor under sub-section (4) of section 13. | ||
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(4) If, the Debts Recovery Tribunal declares the recourse taken
by a secured creditor under sub-section (4) of section 13, is in
accordance with the provisions of this Act and the rules made
thereunder, then, notwithstanding anything contained in any
other law for the time being in force, the secured creditor shall
be entitled to take recourse to one or more of the measures
specified under sub-section (4) of section 13 to recover his
secured debt.
(4A) Where -
(i) any person, in an application under sub-section (1),
claims any tenancy or leasehold rights upon the secured
asset, the Debt Recovery Tribunal, after examining the facts
of the case and evidence produced by the parties in relation
to such claims shall, for the purposes of enforcement of
security interest, have the jurisdiction to examine whether
lease or tenancy,-
(a) has expired or stood determined; or
(b) is contrary to section 65A of the Transfer of Property
Act, 1882 (4 of 1882); or
(c) is contrary to terms of mortgage; or
(d) is created after the issuance of notice of default and
demand by the Bank under sub-section (2) of section 13
of the Act; and
(ii) the Debt Recovery Tribunal is satisfied that tenancy
right or leasehold rights claimed in secured asset falls under
the sub-clause (a) or sub-clause (b) or sub-clause (c) or sub-
clause (d) of clause (i), then notwithstanding anything to the
contrary contained in any other law for the time being in
force, the Debt Recovery Tribunal may pass such order as it
deems fit in accordance with the provisions of this Act.
(5) Any application made under sub-section (1) shall be dealt
with by the Debts Recovery Tribunal as expeditiously as
possible and disposed of within sixty days from the date of such
application:
Provided that the Debts Recovery Tribunal may, from time to
time, extend the said period for reasons to be recorded in
writing, so, however, that the total period of pendency of the
application with the Debts Recovery Tribunal, shall not exceed
four months from the date of making of such application made
under sub-section (1).
(6) If the application is not disposed of by the Debts Recovery
Tribunal within the period of four months as specified in sub-
section (5), any party to the application may make an
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application, in such form as may be prescribed, to the Appellate
Tribunal for directing the Debts Recovery Tribunal for
expeditious disposal of the application pending before the Debts
Recovery Tribunal and the Appellate Tribunal may, on such
application, make an order for expeditious disposal of the
pending application by the Debts Recovery Tribunal.
(7) Save as otherwise provided in this Act, the Debts Recovery
Tribunal shall, as far as may be, dispose of the application in
accordance with the provisions of the Recovery of Debts Due to
Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993 (51 of 1993) and the
rules made thereunder.‖
17. As would be evident from a reading of the aforesaid provisions,
such an application stands placed for adjudication before the
10
concerned Debts Recovery Tribunal . Section 18 of SARFAESI
11
makes provisions for an appeal before the Appellate Tribunal to be
preferred by any person aggrieved by an order made by the DRT
under Section 17 of the SARFAESI.
18. The validity of the various provisions of SARFAESI fell for
consideration before the Supreme Court in Mardia Chemicals .
Dealing with the nature of the exercise liable to be undertaken under
Section 13, the Supreme Court in paragraph 45 held thus: -
“45. In the background we have indicated above, we may
consider as to what forums or remedies are available to the
borrower to ventilate his grievance. The purpose of serving a
notice upon the borrower under sub-section (2) of Section 13 of
the Act is, that a reply may be submitted by the borrower
explaining the reasons as to why measures may or may not be
taken under sub-section (4) of Section 13 in case of non-
compliance with notice within 60 days. The creditor must apply
its mind to the objections raised in reply to such notice and an
internal mechanism must be particularly evolved to consider such
objections raised in the reply to the notice. There may be some
meaningful consideration of the objections raised rather than to
10
DRT
11
DRAT
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ritually reject them and proceed to take drastic measures under
sub-section (4) of Section 13 of the Act. Once such a duty is
envisaged on the part of the creditor it would only be conducive
to the principles of fairness on the part of the banks and financial
institutions in dealing with their borrowers to apprise them of the
reason for not accepting the objections or points raised in reply to
the notice served upon them before proceeding to take measures
under sub-section (4) of Section 13. Such reasons, overruling the
objections of the borrower, must also be communicated to the
borrower by the secured creditor. It will only be in fulfilment of a
requirement of reasonableness and fairness in the dealings of
institutional financing which is so important from the point of
view of the economy of the country and would serve the purpose
in the growth of a healthy economy. It would certainly provide
guidance to the secured debtors in general in conducting the
affairs in a manner that they may not be found defaulting and
being made liable for the unsavoury steps contained under sub-
section (4) of Section 13. At the same time, more importantly, we
must make it clear unequivocally that communication of the
reasons for not accepting the objections taken by the secured
borrower may not be taken to give occasion to resort to such
proceedings which are not permissible under the provisions of the
Act. But communication of reasons not to accept the objections of
the borrower, would certainly be for the purpose of his knowledge
which would be a step forward towards his right to know as to
why his objections have not been accepted by the secured creditor
who intends to resort to harsh steps of taking over the
management/business of viz. secured assets without intervention
of the court. Such a person in respect of whom steps under
Section 13(4) of the Act are likely to be taken cannot be denied
the right to know the reason of non-acceptance and of his
objections. It is true, as per the provisions under the Act, he may
not be entitled to challenge the reasons communicated or the
likely action of the secured creditor at that point of time unless his
right to approach the Debts Recovery Tribunal as provided under
Section 17 of the Act matures on any measure having been taken
under sub-section (4) of Section 13 of the Act.‖
19. Proceeding then to deal with the nature of issues which may fall
for determination either before the DRT or before the DRAT, their
Lordships observed: -
“50. It has also been submitted that an appeal is entertainable
before the Debts Recovery Tribunal only after such measures as
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provided in sub-section (4) of Section 13 are taken and Section 34
bars to entertain any proceeding in respect of a matter which the
Debts Recovery Tribunal or the Appellate Tribunal is empowered
to determine. Thus before any action or measure is taken under
sub-section (4) of Section 13, it is submitted by Mr. Salve, one of
the counsel for the respondents that there would be no bar to
approach the civil court. Therefore, it cannot be said that no
remedy is available to the borrowers. We, however, find that this
contention as advanced by Shri Salve is not correct. A full reading
of Section 34 shows that the jurisdiction of the civil court is
barred in respect of matters which a Debts Recovery Tribunal or
an Appellate Tribunal is empowered to determine in respect of
any action taken ―or to be taken in pursuance of any power
conferred under this Act‖. That is to say, the prohibition covers
even matters which can be taken cognizance of by the Debts
Recovery Tribunal though no measure in that direction has so far
been taken under sub-section (4) of Section 13. It is further to be
noted that the bar of jurisdiction is in respect of a proceeding
which matter may be taken to the Tribunal. Therefore, any matter
in respect of which an action may be taken even later on, the civil
court shall have no jurisdiction to entertain any proceeding
thereof. The bar of civil court thus applies to all such matters
which may be taken cognizance of by the Debts Recovery
Tribunal, apart from those matters in which measures have
already been taken under sub-section (4) of Section 13.‖
51. However, to a very limited extent jurisdiction of the civil
court can also be invoked, where for example, the action of the
secured creditor is alleged to be fraudulent or his claim may be so
absurd and untenable which may not require any probe
whatsoever or to say precisely to the extent the scope is
permissible to bring an action in the civil court in the cases of
English mortgages. We find such a scope having been recognized
in the two decisions of the Madras High Court which have been
relied upon heavily by the learned Attorney General as well
appearing for the Union of India, namely, V.
Narasimhachariar [AIR 1955 Mad 135], AIR at pp. 141 and 144,
a judgment of the learned Single Judge where it is observed as
follows in para 22: (AIR p. 143)
― 22 . The remedies of a mortgagor against the mortgagee who
is acting in violation of the rights, duties and obligations are
twofold in character. The mortgagor can come to the court
before sale with an injunction for staying the sale if there are
materials to show that the power of sale is being exercised in a
fraudulent or improper manner contrary to the terms of the
mortgage. But the pleadings in an action for restraining a sale
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by mortgagee must clearly disclose a fraud or irregularity on
the basis of which relief is sought: Adams v. Scott [(1859) 7
WR 213, 249]. I need not point out that this restraint on the
exercise of the power of sale will be exercised by courts only
under the limited circumstances mentioned above because
otherwise to grant such an injunction would be to cancel one of
the clauses of the deed to which both the parties had agreed
and annul one of the chief securities on which persons
advancing moneys on mortgages rely. (See Ghose,
Rashbehary: Law of Mortgages , Vol. II, 4th Edn., p. 784.)‖
20. The Supreme Court thereafter proceeded to negative the
contention that existing rights of parties under a private contract
cannot be interfered with and observed thus: -
“66. On behalf of the petitioners one of the contentions which
has been forcefully raised is that existing rights of private parties
under a contract cannot be interfered with, more particularly
putting one party in an advantageous position over the other. For
example, in the present case, in a matter of private contract
between the borrower and the financing bank or institution
through impugned legislation rights of the borrowers have been
curtailed and enforcement of secured assets has been provided for
without intervention of the court and above all depriving them of
the remedy available under the law by approaching the civil court.
Such a law, it is submitted, is not envisaged in any civilized
society governed by rule of law. As discussed earlier as well, it
may be observed that though the transaction may have the
character of a private contract yet the question of great
importance behind such transactions as a whole having far-
reaching effect on the economy of the country cannot be ignored,
purely restricting it to individual transactions, more particularly
when financing is through banks and financial institutions
utilizing the money of the people in general, namely, the
depositors in the banks and public money at the disposal of the
financial institutions. Therefore, wherever public interest to such
a large extent is involved and it may become necessary to achieve
an object which serves the public purposes, individual rights may
have to give way. Public interest has always been considered to
be above the private interest. Interest of an individual may, to
some extent, be affected but it cannot have the potential of taking
over the public interest having an impact on the socio-economic
drive of the country. The two aspects are intertwined which are
difficult to be separated. There have been many instances where
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existing rights of the individuals have been affected by legislative
measures taken in public interest. Certain decisions which have
been relied on behalf of the respondents, on the point are V.
Ramaswami Aiyengar v. T.N.V. Kailasa Thevar [1951 SCC 199 :
AIR 1951 SC 189 : 1951 SCR 292] . In that case by enacting the
Madras Agriculturalists' Relief Act, relief was given to the
debtors who were agriculturists as a class, by scaling down their
debts. The validity of the Act was upheld though it affected the
individual interest of creditors. In Dahya Lala v. Rasul Mohd.
Abdul Rahim [AIR 1964 SC 1320 : (1963) 3 SCR 1] , the tenants
under the provisions of the Bombay Tenancy Act, 1939 were
given protection against eviction and they were granted the status
of protected tenant, who had cultivated the land personally six
years prior to the prescribed date. It was found that the legislation
was with the object of improving the economic condition of the
peasants and for ensuring full and efficient use of land for
agricultural purpose. By a statutory provision special benefit was
conferred upon the tenants in Madras city where they had put up a
building for residential or non-residential purposes and were
saved from eviction, it did though affect the existing rights of the
landlords. [See also Swami Motor Transports (P) Ltd. v. Sri
Sankaraswamigal Mutt [AIR 1963 SC 864 : 1963 Supp (1) SCR
282] and Raval& Co. v. K.G. Ramachandran [(1974) 1 SCC
424].] Similarly, it is also to be found that in Kanshi
Ram v. Lachhman [(2001) 5 SCC 546] the law granting relief to
the debtors protecting their property was upheld. (Also
see Pathumma v. State of Kerala [(1978) 2 SCC 1] , Fatehchand
Himmatlal v. State of Maharashtra [(1977) 2 SCC 670]
and Ramdhandas v. State of Punjab [AIR 1961 SC 1559 : (1962)
1 SCR 852] .)‖
21. Proceeding further, the Supreme Court pertinently observed:-
“68. The main thrust of the petitioners as indicated in the earlier
part of this judgment to challenge the validity of the impugned
enactment is that no adjudicatory mechanism is available to the
borrower to ventilate his grievance through an independent
adjudicatory authority. Access to justice, it is submitted, is the
hallmark of our system. Section 34 of the Act bars the jurisdiction
of the civil courts to entertain a suit in matters of recovery of
loans. The remedy of appeal available under the Act as contained
in Section 17 can be availed only after measures have already
been taken by the secured creditor under sub-section (4) of
Section 13 of the Act which includes sale of the secured assets,
taking over its management and all transferable rights thereto.
Virtually it is no remedy at all also in view of the onerous
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condition of deposit of 75% of the claim of the secured creditor.
Before filing an appeal under Section 17 of the Act, decision is to
be taken in respect of all matters by the bank or financial
institution itself which can hardly be said to be an independent
agency; rather they are a party to the transaction having unilateral
power to initiate action under sub-section (4) of Section 13 of the
Act. So far as remedy under Article 226 of the Constitution of
India is concerned, the submission is that it may not always be
available since the dispute may be only between two private
parties, the banking companies, cooperative banks or financial
institutions, foreign banks, some of them may not be authorities
within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution of India
against whom a writ petition could be maintainable. Thus the
position that emerges is that a borrower is virtually left with no
remedy. Where access to the court is prohibited and no proper
adjudicatory mechanism is provided such a law is
unconstitutional and cannot survive. In support of the aforesaid
contentions besides others, reliance has particularly been placed
upon the case L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India [(1997) 3
SCC 261 : 1997 SCC (L&S) 577] and Surya Dev Rai v. Ram
Chander Rai [(2003) 6 SCC 675] . A reference has also been
made to the decision of KihotoHollohan [1992 Supp (2) SCC
651] . In the case of L. Chandra Kumar [(1997) 3 SCC 261 : 1997
SCC (L&S) 577] it is held, some adjudicatory process through an
independent agency is essential for determining the rights of the
parties, more particularly when the consequences which flow
from the offending Act defeat the civil rights of a party.
69. On behalf of the respondents time and again stress has been
given on the contention that in a contractual matter between the
two private parties they are supposed to act in terms of the
contract and no question of compliance with the principles of
natural justice arises nor the question of judicial review of such
actions needs to be provided for. However, at the very outset, it
may be pointed that the contract between the parties as in the
present cases, is no more as private as sought to be asserted on
behalf of the respondents. If that was so, in that event parties
would be at liberty to seek redressal of their grievances on
account of breach of contract or otherwise taking recourse to the
normal process of law as available, by approaching the ordinary
civil courts. But we find that a contract which has been entered
into between the two private parties, in some respects has been
superseded by the statutory provisions or it may be said that such
contracts are now governed by the statutory provisions relating to
recovery of debts and bar of jurisdiction of the civil court to
entertain any dispute in respect of such matters. Hence, it cannot
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be pleaded that the petitioners cannot complain of the conduct of
the banking companies and financial institutions for whatever
goes on between the two is absolutely a matter of contract
between private parties, therefore, no adjudication may be
necessary.‖
22. Ultimately, the following conclusions came to be recorded: -
“80. Under the Act in consideration, we find that before taking
action a notice of 60 days is required to be given and after the
measures under Section 13(4) of the Act have been taken, a
mechanism has been provided under Section 17 of the Act to
approach the Debts Recovery Tribunal. The abovenoted
provisions are for the purpose of giving some reasonable
protection to the borrower. Viewing the matter in the above
perspective, we find what emerges from different provisions of
the Act, is as follows:
1. Under sub-section (2) of Section 13 it is incumbent upon
the secured creditor to serve 60 days' notice before proceeding
to take any of the measures as provided under sub-section (4)
of Section 13 of the Act. After service of notice, if the
borrower raises any objection or places facts for consideration
of the secured creditor, such reply to the notice must be
considered with due application of mind and the reasons for
not accepting the objections, howsoever brief they may be,
must be communicated to the borrower. In connection with this
conclusion we have already held a discussion in the earlier part
of the judgment. The reasons so communicated shall only be
for the purposes of the information/knowledge of the borrower
without giving rise to any right to approach the Debts
Recovery Tribunal under Section 17 of the Act, at that stage.
2 . As already discussed earlier, on measures having been taken
under sub-section (4) of Section 13 and before the date of
sale/auction of the property it would be open for the borrower
to file an appeal (petition) under Section 17 of the Act before
the Debts Recovery Tribunal.
3 . That the Tribunal in exercise of its ancillary powers shall
have jurisdiction to pass any stay/interim order subject to the
condition as it may deem fit and proper to impose.
4 . In view of the discussion already held in this behalf, we find
that the requirement of deposit of 75% of the amount claimed
before entertaining an appeal (petition) under Section 17 of the
Act is an oppressive, onerous and arbitrary condition against
all the canons of reasonableness. Such a condition is invalid
and it is liable to be struck down.
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5. As discussed earlier in this judgment, we find that it will be
open to maintain a civil suit in civil court, within the narrow
cope and on the limited grounds on which they are permissible,
in the matters relating to an English mortgage enforceable
without intervention of the court.‖
23. As would be evident and manifest from the aforesaid principles
that were laid down by the Supreme Court on an interpretation of the
various provisions made in the SARFAESI, it was held that the rights
of a debtor to assail actions that may be taken by a secured creditor
stood duly protected under the provisions of the said enactment. In
order to balance the rights of parties, the Supreme Court also read into
the provisions of Section 13 of the SARFAESI, the obligation of the
secured creditor to deal with the objections that may be raised and for
the communication of reasons if they were to be ultimately rejected.
Similar safeguards insofar as a debtor was concerned, were recognised
to exist in light of the provisions contained in Sections 17 and 18 of
the SARFAESI. The Section 17 remedy was recognised as a remedy
of first resort and thus the requirement of pre-deposit was struck
down.
24. The subtle distinction in the language of the non-obstante
clauses engrafted in the RDB Act and the SARFAESI clearly
manifests in light of the fact that while the exclusion of a civil court
under the RDB Act is restricted to subjects which would fall within
the ambit of Sections 17 and 19 of the RDB Act, the non-obstante
clause under the SARFAESI extends in respect of any matter which
the DRT or the DRAT is empowered by or under the aforesaid
enactment to determine. However, not much may perhaps turn on the
above since both statutes confer a right on a debtor to assail the action
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of a bank or financial institution which seeks to effect recoveries or
enforce a security interest as the case may be.
25. Vidya Drolia in unmistakable terms holds that non-arbitrability
would be implicit if it be found that a law creates a specified forum or
a designated court for adjudication of disputes. In the said decision, it
was pertinently observed that the issue of non-arbitrability would have
to be decided and answered upon due examination of a special statute
which may create not just a special right or a liability but also provide
for the determination of such a right or liability by that specified court
and public forum alone.
26. In order to appreciate the issue of non-arbitrability as has been
raised, it would be pertinent to step back and notice some of the
significant decisions which have come to be rendered dealing with the
interplay between the 1996 Act and the provisions of the RDB Act
and the SARFAESI. The first decision which merits notice would be
the decision of the Supreme Court in Indian Bank vs. ABS Marine
12
Products (P) Ltd., . While dealing with the issue of the ouster of the
jurisdiction of the civil court in relation to matters which may fall
within the ambit of Sections 17 and 18 of the RDB Act, the Supreme
Court held:-
“15. It is evident from Sections 17 and 18 of the Debts Recovery
Act that civil court's jurisdiction is barred only in regard to
applications by a bank or a financial institution for recovery of its
debts. The jurisdiction of civil courts is not barred in regard to any
suit filed by a borrower or any other person against a bank for any
relief. It is not disputed that the Calcutta High Court had
jurisdiction to entertain and dispose of CS No. 7 of 1995 filed by
the borrower when it was filed and continues to have jurisdiction
to entertain and dispose of the said suit. There is no provision in
12
(2006) 5 SCC 72
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the Act for transfer of suits and proceedings, except Section 31
which relates to suit/proceeding by a bank or financial institution
for recovery of a debt. It is evident from Section 31 that only
those cases and proceedings (for recovery of debts due to banks
and financial institutions) which were pending before any court
immediately before the date of establishment of a tribunal under
the Debts Recovery Act stood transferred, to the Tribunal. In this
case, there is no dispute that the Debts Recovery Tribunal,
Calcutta, was established long prior to the Company filing CS No.
7 of 1995 against the Bank. The said suit having been filed long
after the date when the Tribunal was established and not being a
suit or proceeding instituted by a bank or financial institution for
recovery of a debt, did not attract Section 31.
16. As far as sub-sections (6) to (11) of Section 19 are concerned,
they are merely enabling provisions. The Debts Recovery Act, as
it originally stood, did not contain any provision enabling a
defendant in an application filed by the bank/financial institution
to claim any set-off or make any counterclaim against the
bank/financial institution. On that among other grounds, the Act
was held to be unconstitutional (see Delhi High Court Bar
Assn. v. Union of India [AIR 1995 Del 323]). During the
pendency of appeal against the said decision, before this Court,
the Act was amended by Act 1 of 2000 to remove the lacuna by
providing for set-off and counterclaims by defendants in the
applications filed by banks/financial institutions before the
Tribunal. The provisions of the Act as amended were upheld by
this Court in Union of India v. Delhi High Court Bar
Assn. [(2002) 4 SCC 275] The effect of sub-sections (6) to (11) of
Section 19 of the amended Act is that any defendant in a suit or
proceeding initiated by a bank or financial institution can: ( a )
claim set-off against the demand of a bank/financial institution,
any ascertained sum of money legally recoverable by him from
such bank/financial institution; and ( b ) set-up by way of
counterclaim against the claim of a bank/financial institution, any
right or claim in respect of a cause of action accruing to such
defendant against the bank/financial institution, either before or
after filing of the application, but before the defendant has
delivered his defence or before the time for delivering the defence
has expired, whether such a counterclaim is in the nature of a
claim for damages or not. What is significant is that Sections 17
and 18 have not been amended. Jurisdiction has not been
conferred on the Tribunal, even after amendment, to try
independent suits or proceedings initiated by borrowers or others
against banks/financial institutions, nor the jurisdiction of civil
courts barred in regard to such suits or proceedings. The only
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change that has been made is to enable the defendants to claim
set-off or make a counterclaim as provided in sub-sections (6) to
(8) of Section 19 in applications already filed by the banks or
financial institutions for recovery of the amounts due to them. In
other words, what is provided and permitted is a cross-action by a
defendant in a pending application by the bank/financial
institution, the intention being to have the claim of the
bank/financial institution made in its application and the
counterclaim or claim for set-off of the defendant, as a single
unified proceeding, to be disposed of by a common order.
17. Making a counterclaim in the bank's application before the
Tribunal is not the only remedy, but an option available to the
defendant borrower. He can also file a separate suit or proceeding
before a civil court or other appropriate forum in respect of his
claim against the bank and pursue the same. Even the bank, in
whose application the counterclaim is made, has the option to
apply to the Tribunal to exclude the counterclaim of the defendant
while considering its application. When such application is made
by the bank, the Tribunal may either refuse to exclude the
counterclaim and proceed to consider the bank's application and
the counterclaim together; or exclude the counterclaim as prayed,
and proceed only with the bank's application, in which event the
counterclaim becomes an independent claim against a
bank/financial institution. The defendant will then have to
approach the civil court in respect of such excluded counterclaim
as the Tribunal does not have jurisdiction to try any independent
claim against a bank/financial institution. A defendant in an
application, having an independent claim against the bank, cannot
be compelled to make his claim against the bank only by way of a
counterclaim. Nor can his claim by way of independent suit in a
court having jurisdiction, be transferred to a tribunal against his
wishes.‖
27. In M.D. Frozen Foods Exports (P) Ltd. vs. Hero Fincorp
13
Ltd., the principal question which arose for consideration was
whether the arbitration proceedings as had been initiated by the
creditor could have been pursued parallelly and along with
proceedings initiated under the SARFAESI. Answering the aforesaid
13
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question, the Supreme Court while noticing its earlier decision in
14
Transcore vs. Union of India held thus: -
“Question (i)
26. A claim by a bank or a financial institution, before the
specified laws came into force, would ordinarily have been filed
in the civil court having the pecuniary jurisdiction. The setting up
of the Debt Recovery Tribunal under the RDDB Act resulted in
this specialised Tribunal entertaining such claims by the banks
and financial institutions. In fact, suits from the civil jurisdiction
were transferred to the Debt Recovery Tribunal. The Tribunal
was, thus, an alternative to civil court recovery proceedings.
27. On the S ARFAESI Act being brought into force seeking to
recover debts against security interest, a question was raised
whether parallel proceedings could go on under the RDDB Act
and the S ARFAESI Act. This issue was clearly answered in favour
of such simultaneous proceedings in Transcore v. Union of
India [ Transcore v. Union of India , (2008) 1 SCC 125 : (2008) 1
SCC (Civ) 116]. A later judgment in Mathew Varghese v. M.
Amritha Kumar [ Mathew Varghese v. M. Amritha Kumar , (2014)
5 SCC 610 : (2014) 3 SCC (Civ) 254] also discussed this issue in
the following terms: ( Mathew Varghese case [ Mathew
Varghese v. M. Amritha Kumar , (2014) 5 SCC 610 : (2014) 3
SCC (Civ) 254] , SCC pp. 640-41, paras 45-46)
― 45 . A close reading of Section 37 shows that the
provisions of the S ARFAESI Act or the Rules framed thereunder
will be in addition to the provisions of the RDDB Act. Section
35 of the S ARFAESI Act states that the provisions of
the S ARFAESI Act will have overriding effect notwithstanding
anything inconsistent contained in any other law for the time
being in force. Therefore, reading Sections 35 and 37 together,
it will have to be held that in the event of any of the provisions
of the RDDB Act not being inconsistent with the provisions of
the S ARFAESI Act, the application of both the Acts, namely,
the S ARFAESI Act and the RDDB Act, would be
complementary to each other. In this context reliance can be
placed upon the decision in Transcore v. Union of
India [ Transcore v. Union of India , (2008) 1 SCC 125 : (2008)
1 SCC (Civ) 116] . In para 64 it is stated as under after
ARFAESI
referring to Section 37 of the S Act: (SCC p. 162)
‗ 64 . … According to American Jurisprudence , 2d, Vol.
25, p. 652, if in truth there is only one remedy, then the
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doctrine of election does not apply. In the present case, as
stated above, the NPA Act is an additional remedy to the
DRT Act. Together they constitute one remedy and, therefore,
the doctrine of election does not apply . Even according
to Snell's Principles of Equity (31st Edn., p. 119), the
doctrine of election of remedies is applicable only when there
are two or more co-existent remedies available to the litigants
at the time of election which are repugnant and
inconsistent. In any event, there is no repugnancy nor
inconsistency between the two remedies , therefore, the
doctrine of election has no application.‘
46 . A reading of Section 37 discloses that the application
of the S ARFAESI Act will be in addition to and not in
derogation of the provisions of the RDDB Act. In other words,
it will not in any way nullify or annul or impair the effect of
the provisions of the RDDB Act. We are also fortified by our
above statement of law as the heading of the said section also
makes the position clear that application of other laws is not
barred. The effect of Section 37 would, therefore, be that in
addition to the provisions contained under the S ARFAESI Act,
in respect of proceedings initiated under the said Act, it will be
in order for a party to fall back upon the provisions of the other
Acts mentioned in Section 37, namely, the Companies Act,
1956; the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956; the
Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992; the
Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions
Act, 1993, or any other law for the time being in force.‖
(emphasis in original)
29. The aforesaid two Acts are, thus, complementary to each
other and it is not a case of election of remedy.
30. The only twist in the present case is that, instead of the
recovery process under the RDDB Act, we are concerned with an
arbitration proceeding. It is trite to say that arbitration is an
alternative to the civil proceedings. In fact, when a question was
raised as to whether the matters which came within the scope and
jurisdiction of the Debt Recovery Tribunal under the RDDB Act,
could still be referred to arbitration when both parties have
incorporated such a clause, the answer was given in the
affirmative. [ HDFC Bank Ltd. v. Satpal Singh Bakshi , 2012 SCC
OnLine Del 4815 : (2013) 134 DRJ 566] That being the position,
the appellants can hardly be permitted to contend that the
initiation of arbitration proceedings would, in any manner,
prejudice their rights to seek relief under the S ARFAESI Act.‖
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28. These decisions again fell for consideration before the
Supreme Court in Bank of Rajasthan. In the said decision, the
question which arose was whether a suit which had been instituted
by the borrower and seeking a declaration in respect of the sale of
pledged shares would be maintainable notwithstanding the
provisions of the RDB Act. As would be evident from the parts of
the decision extracted above, the principles laid down in Indian
Bank and Transcore were reiterated and reaffirmed. While doing
so the Supreme Court held as follows: -
“43. We must note at the threshold itself that there are no
restrictions on the power of a Civil Court under Section 9 of the
Code unless expressly or impliedly excluded. This was also
reiterated by a Constitution Bench of this Court
in Dhulabhai v. State of Madhya Pradesh . Thus, it is in the
conspectus of the aforesaid proposition that we will have to
analyse the rival contentions of the parties set out above. Our
line of thinking is also influenced by a Three-Judges Bench of this
Court in Dwarka Prasad Agarwal (D) By LRs v. Ramesh Chander
Agarwal where it was opined that Section 9 of the Code confers
jurisdiction upon Civil Courts to determine all disputes of civil
nature unless the same is barred under statute either expressly or
by necessary implication and such a bar is not to be readily
inferred. The provision seeking to bar jurisdiction of a Civil Court
requires strict interpretation and the Court would normally lean in
favour of construction which would uphold the jurisdiction of the
Civil Court.
44. Now, if we turn to the objective of the RDB Act read with the
scheme and provisions thereof; it is abundantly clear that a
summary remedy is provided in respect of claims of banks and
financial institutions so that recovery of the same may not be
impeded by the elaborate procedure of the Code. The defendant
has a right to defend the claim and file a counterclaim in
view of sub-Sections (6) and (8) of Section 19 of the RDB Act. In
case of pending proceedings to be transferred to the DRT, Section
31 of the RDB Act took care of the issue of mere transfer of the
Bank's claim, albeit without transfer of the counterclaim. Thus, if
the debtor desires to institute a counterclaim, that can be filed
before the DRT and will be tried along with the case. However, it
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is subject to a caveat that the bank may move for
segregation of that counterclaim to be relegated to a proceeding
before a Civil Court under Section 19(11) of the RDB Act, though
such determination is to take place along with the
determination of the claim for recovery of debt.
45. We are thus of the view that there is no provision in the RDB
Act by which the remedy of a civil suit by a defendant in a claim
by the bank is ousted, but it is the matter of choice of that
defendant. Such a defendant may file a counterclaim, or may be
desirous of availing of the more strenuous procedure established
under the Code, and that is a choice which he takes with the
consequences thereof.
46. We may notice that the RDB Act was amended from time to
time, including by amendments made under Act 1 of 2000, Act
30 of 2004, Act 1 of 2013 and Act 44 of 2016. The anomaly, inter
alia , initially sought to be cured was on account of the non-
availability of provisions on counterclaim and set-off. It is to get
over such a scenario that amendment through Act 1 of 2000 was
made by the Legislature itself to cure the problem. The
Legislature did not, at any stage, make any further amendment for
excluding the jurisdiction of the Civil Court in respect of a
claim of a defendant in such a proceeding being filed along with
the suit. The Legislature in its wisdom has also not considered it
appropriate to bring any amendment to enhance the powers of the
DRT in this respect.‖
29. As would be evident from the principles laid down in the
aforenoted decisions, the question of jurisdiction conferred on the civil
court and its ouster was essentially examined on the anvil of whether
the dispute which formed the subject matter of the civil suit could
have been raised for consideration of the specialised tribunals
constituted under the RDB Act or the SARFAESI. The Supreme
Court noted that a borrower may have various claims against a bank or
a financial institution. Those claims, as were noted by the Supreme
Court, could not be understood to be restricted to a counter claim or a
set off. It was thus observed that it could not be said that all claims
relating to civil rights would stand excluded from the consideration of
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a civil court and a party compelled to proceed only under the RDB
Act or the SARFAESI. These principles appear to have been
enunciated bearing in mind the nature of the dispute that could
possibly be adjudicated and considered by authorities constituted
under the aforenoted two enactments.
30. In Vidya Drolia , the Supreme Court noted that while the ouster
of jurisdiction of the civil court cannot be readily inferred, it must also
be borne in mind that the mere creation of a special forum under a
particular statute would not be sufficient to accept a challenge based
on implicit non-arbitrability. As was expounded in Vidya Drolia,
implicit non-arbitrability would be established only in a situation
where the law mandatorily bars parties from contracting out or
waiving the adjudication of disputes by the designated court or
specified forum. It was pertinently observed that non-arbitrability
may also arise in case of an implicit prohibition imposed by the statute
and which may warrant the adjudication of rights only by the
specialised tribunal or authority created under the statute.
31. Vidya Drolia also assumes significance insofar as the questions
raised in the present batch is concerned in light of the said decision
having specifically overruled the judgment rendered by the Full Bench
15
of this Court in HDFC Bank Ltd. vs. Satpal Singh Bakshi , and
which had proceeded to hold that matters covered under the RDB Act
would also be arbitrable.
32. The Court notes that after the matter had been closed for
judgment, a compilation of decisions was handed over on behalf of the
15
2012 SCC OnLine Del 4815
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petitioners and it was prayed by learned counsels appearing on their
behalf for the decisions included therein being taken into
consideration. From the decisions which have been placed along with
the said compilation, the Court notes that only the decision rendered
by the Bombay High Court in Bank of Baroda vs. Gopal Shriram
16
Panda and Diamond Entertainment Technologies Pvt. Ltd. vs.
17
Religare Finvest Limited , a judgment rendered by a learned Judge
of this Court, would additionally merit notice and consideration. The
Court has in any case noticed the judgments rendered by the Supreme
Court in the matter of Mardia Chemicals and M.D. Frozen Foods in
the preceding parts of this decision.
33. The decision of the Bombay High Court in Bank of Baroda
dealt with an identical issue of whether the jurisdiction of the civil
courts stands ousted in light of the provisions made in Sections 17 and
34 of SARFAESI. The issue itself had arisen in the context of a
perceived conflict between the judgments rendered by two Division
Benches of that Court in State Bank of India vs. Jigishaben B.
18 19
Sanghavi and State Bank of India vs. Sagar . In Sagar the
Division Bench had proceeded to record the following conclusions: -
| “33. In view of above, the sum and substance of the decision is | |
|---|---|
| that:- | |
| (i) The jurisdiction of the Civil Court to entertain, try and | |
| decide any suit or proceeding in respect of the property, | |
| which is the subject matter of security interest created in | |
| favour of a secured creditor, is barred only to the extent of the | |
| matters, which the Debts Recovery Tribunal or the Appellate |
16
2021 SCC OnLine Bom 466
17
2022 SCC OnLine Del 3357
18
2010 SCC OnLine Bom 1868
19
2011 SCC OnLine Bom 184
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Tribunal is empowered by or under the Act to determine.
(Para 18)
(ii) The jurisdiction of the Civil Court in respect of the
matters, which do not fall within the jurisdiction of the Debts
Recovery Tribunal or its Appellate Tribunal under sections
17 and 18 of the said Act, is not ousted or barred under the
provision of section 34 of the said Act and the Civil Court
continues to exercise such jurisdiction. (Para 18)
(iii) In order to decide the question as to whether the
jurisdiction of the Civil Court under section 9 of the Civil
Procedure Code is ousted or not, the real test would be to find
out whether the Debts Recovery Tribunal under section 17, is
empowered to hold an enquiry on a particular question and to
grant relief in respect thereof. The extent of jurisdiction of the
Debts Recovery Tribunal under section 17 shall decide the
extent of exclusion of jurisdiction of Civil Court to decide the
dispute in respect of the suit property. (Para 18)
(iv) The jurisdiction of the Civil Court to entertain, try and
decide a civil suit challenging the action of the defendant No.
3-Bank to take possession of the suit property and to sell the
same to recover its debts by enforcing security interest in the
suit property in accordance with the provisions of section 13
of the said Act, is completely barred by section 34 of the said
Act. (Paras 19, 20 and 23)
(v) The jurisdiction of the Civil Court to entertain, try and
decide the suit for partition and separate possession of the
property in respect of which security interest is created in
favour of secured creditor, is not barred under section 34 of
the Act. (Para 21)
(vi) The jurisdiction of Civil Court to entertain, try and
decide the Civil Suit claiming relief of declaration that the
action of the secured creditor to take possession of the
property and to sell the same, is fraudulent and void, as has
been held by the Apex Court in Mardia Chemical's case, is
not barred by section 34 of the said Act. (Para 23)
(vii) The jurisdiction of the Civil Court to entertain, try and
decide Civil Suit simpliciter for permanent injunction to
permanently restrain the defendant No. 3-Bank from taking
possession of the suit property and selling the same or to
create any third-party interest without any substantive relief
of declaration that the creation of security interest in favour
of a secured creditor was fraudulent and void ab initio, is
completely barred under the second part of section 34 and
hence consequentially, the jurisdiction of Civil Court to pass
an order of temporary injunction in such suit, restraining the
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defendant No. 3-Bank from alienating the suit property or
creating any third-party interest therein, is also barred. (Para
25)
(viii) Once it is held that the jurisdiction of Civil Court is not
ousted under section 34, to grant substantive relief of
declaration that creation of security interest in favour of a
secured creditor, was fraudulent and void, its jurisdiction to
grant consequential relief of permanent injunction and the
relief of temporary injunction in such suit, is not ousted.
(Para 26)
(ix) Once it is held that the jurisdiction of the Civil Court to
entertain, try and decide the civil suit for partition and
separate possession of the suit property is not barred by
section 34 of the said Act, then it follows that the jurisdiction
of the Civil Court to grant permanent and temporary
injunction restraining the defendants from dealing with the
suit property or creating third party interest therein is also not
ousted by section 34 of the said Act.
(x) It is open for the plaintiffs or any other person having any
right, title, share or interest in the suit property to lodge
their/his objection under section 17 of the said Act before the
Debts Recovery Tribunal, which is competent to deal with it
in accordance with law and to pass such orders as are
necessary to protect the interest of the plaintiffs/such person
vis-a-vis the suit property and also to balance the equities.
(Para 30)
(xi) The question as to what shall be the effect of a decree
passed in the suit for partition and separate possession of the
suit property or for declaration that the action of secured
creditor is fraudulent and void ab initio by the Civil Court, on
the enforcement of security interest by the defendant No. 3-
Bank, i.e. the secured creditor, can be determined only after
culmination of both the proceedings and not before. (Para
30)‖
34. In Bank of Baroda , the Bombay High Court firstly took note of
the pertinent observations as were made by the Supreme Court in A.
20
Ayyasamy vs. A. Paramasivam which had dealt with the issue of
civil and commercial disputes being tried by way of arbitration.
20
(2016) 10 SCC 386
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Dealing with the aforesaid decision, the Bombay High Court observed
as follows: -
― 12.9. In A. Ayyasamy v. A. Paramasivam (2016) 10 SCC 386,
the Hon'ble Apex Court, while considering the provisions of
Sections 5, 8 and 35 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act,
1996 and the limitations therein has recognised and reiterated
that certain disputes were not amenable to arbitration, in the
following words:—
“35. Ordinarily every civil or commercial dispute
whether based on contract or otherwise which is capable of
being decided by a civil court is in principle capable of being
adjudicated upon and resolved by arbitration “subject to the
dispute being governed by the arbitration agreement” unless
the jurisdiction of the Arbitral Tribunal is excluded either
expressly or by necessary implication. In Booz Allen and
Hamilton Inc. v. SBI Home Finance Ltd., this Court held that
(at SCC p. 546, para 35) adjudication of certain categories of
proceedings is reserved by the legislature exclusively for
public fora as a matter of public policy. Certain other
categories of cases, though not exclusively reserved for
adjudication by courts and tribunals may by necessary
implication stand excluded from the purview of private fora.
This Court set down certain examples of nonarbitrable
disputes such as : (SCC pp. 546-47, para 36)
(i) disputes relating to rights and liabilities which give rise
to or arise out of criminal offences;
(ii) matrimonial disputes relating to divorce, judicial
separation, restitution of conjugal rights and child
custody;
(iii) matters of guardianship;
(iv) insolvency and winding up;
(v) testamentary matters, such as the grant of probate,
letters of administration and succession certificates; and
(vi) eviction or tenancy matters governed by special
statutes where a tenant enjoys special protection against
eviction and specific courts are conferred with the
exclusive jurisdiction to deal with the dispute.
This Court held that this class of actions operates in rem,
which is a right exercisable against the world at large as
contrasted with a right in personam which is an interest
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protected against specified individuals. All disputes relating
to rights in personam are considered to be amenable to
arbitration while rights in rem are required to be adjudicated
by courts and public tribunals. The enforcement of a
mortgage has been held to be a right in rem for which
proceedings in arbitration would not be maintainable.
In Vimal Kishor Shah v. Jayesh Dinesh Shah, this Court
added a seventh category of cases to the six non-arbitrable
categories set out in Booz Allen, namely, disputes relating to
trusts, trustees and beneficiaries arising out of a trust deed
and the Trust Act.”
(emphasis supplied)
This would indicate that even where a special Forum/Tribunal
(in this case the Arbitral Tribunal), has been created, to entertain
and decide disputes, upon which jurisdiction is conferred though
by agreement, still there are certain matters, which cannot be
decided by such Forums/Tribunal as the power or authority to
decide, is not all encompassing, rather has been construed to be
limited to the purpose of creating the Forum/Tribunal. Not all
cases where fraud is alleged, would make the jurisdiction of the
Civil Court available. The allegations of fraud should fall within
the parameters as laid down in Mardia Chemicals (supra) and A.
Ayyasamy (supra), only then the Civil Court will get jurisdiction
to decide a suit based upon fraud.‖
35. Dealing with the scope and ambit of Section 17 of the RDB
Act, their Lordships held thus: -
| ―14.5. The expression ―from the Banks and Financial | |
|---|---|
| Institutions for recovery of debts due to such Banks and | |
| Financial Institutions‖, further indicates that it is only the Banks | |
| and Financial Institutions who have a right to approach the DRT | |
| under Section 17 of the DRT Act, and that too, for the purpose | |
| of recovery of debts due to such Banks and Financial | |
| Institutions. ―Recovery of debts due‖ would mean the | |
| enforcement of the security interest as defined in Section 2 (zf) | |
| of the SARFAESI Act. Thus, none other than the Banks and | |
| Financial Institutions have any right to approach the DRT by | |
| invoking its jurisdiction under Section 17 of the DRT Act, 1993, | |
| as Section 17 (1) restricts such approach only to the Banks and | |
| Financial Institutions and that too for recovery of debts due.‖ |
36. Proceeding further to deal with the scope and ambit of Section
18 of the RDB Act, it was observed: -
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| ―14.11. The language of Section 18 is clear and specific. What | ||||||
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| is prevented to be entertained by the Courts, are claims and | ||||||
| proceedings ―in relation to the matters specified in Section 17‖, | ||||||
| which would indicate matters under Section 13 of the | ||||||
| SARFAESI Act. The expression ―in relation to‖ has been held | ||||||
| to be of wider significance [Godavaris Misra v. Nandakisore | ||||||
| Das, Speaker, Orissa Legislative Assembly, | AIR 1953 Ori 111 | ]; | ||||
| the widest amplitude [Thysssin Stahlunion GMBTT v. Steel | ||||||
| Authority of India | (1999) 9 SCC 334 | ]; used in the expansive | ||||
| sense [Doypack Systems Pvt. Ltd. v. Union of India, | (1988) 2 | |||||
| SCC 299 | ] and may at times also include all things incidental and | |||||
| ancillary thereto. However, in the instant matter the expression | ||||||
| ―in relation to‖ has been suffixed with ―the matters specified in | ||||||
| Section 17‖ making the expression as ―in relation to the matters | ||||||
| specified in Section 17‖. The suffix ―the matters specified in | ||||||
| Section 17‖ in fact in our considered opinion, restricts and | ||||||
| controls the expression ―in relation to‖, and lays down the | ||||||
| parameters within which the provision has to operate, namely to | ||||||
| those as specified in sec.17 of the DRT Act, 1993.‖ |
37. Taking note of the nature of disputes which could possibly fall
outside the ambit of the RDB Act and thus be able to be tried by
ordinary civil courts, it was observed: -
14.22 . In Bank of Maharashtra v. Pandurang Keshav
Gorwardkar , (2013) 7 SCC 754, while considering the question
whether Section 19 (19) of the DRT Act, 1993, clothes DRT
with jurisdiction to determine the workmen's claim against the
debtor - company, the same was answered in the negative, in the
following words:—
“63.1. In the first place, the 1993 Act has provided for
special machinery for speedy recovery of dues of banks and
financial institutions in specific matters. It is with this
objective that it provides for establishment of DRT with the
jurisdiction, power and authority for adjudication of claims
of the banks and financial institutions. The 1993 Act also
provides for the modes of recovery of the amount so
adjudicated by the DRTs. The 1993 Act has not brought
within its sweep, the adjudication of claims of persons other
than banks and financial institutions. The DRT has not been
given powers to adjudicate the dues of workmen of the debtor
company. Section 17 or Section 19 of the 1993 Act cannot be
read in a manner that allows such exercise to be undertaken
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by the DRT. DRT does not possess necessary statutory
powers to address all disputes that may arise in adjudicating
workmen's claims in winding-up proceedings. The
adjudication of workmen's claims against the debtor
company is a substantive matter and DRT has neither
competence nor machinery for that. Certain incidental and
ancillary powers given to DRT do not encompass power to
adjudicate upon or decide dues of the workmen of the debtor
company.
63.2 . Secondly Section 19 (19) of the 1993 Act is a
provision of distribution mechanism and not an independent
adjudicatory provision. This provision follows adjudication
of claims made by a bank or financial institution. It comes
into play where a certificate of recovery is issued against a
company registered under the Companies Act which is in
winding up. Where the debtor company is not in liquidation,
Section 19 (19) does not come into operation at all.
Following Tiwari Committee Report and the Narasimham
Committee Report, the present Section 19 (19) was
incorporated in the 1993 Act for protection of paripassu
charge of secured creditors, including workmen's dues at the
time of distribution of the sale proceeds of such
company. The participation of workmen along with secured
creditors under Section 19 (19) is. to a limited extent, in the
distribution of the sale proceeds by DRT and not for
determination of their claims against the debtor company by
DRT. Once the company is in winding up, the only competent
authority to determine the workmen's dues and quantify
workmen's portion is the liquidator. The liquidator has the
responsibility and competence to determine the workmen's
dues where the debtor company is in liquidation.
63.3. Thirdly the expression. “the Tribunal may order the
sale proceeds of such company to be distributed among its
secured creditors in accordance with the provisions of
Section 529-A of the Companies Act” occurring in Section 19
(19) does not empower DRT to itself examine, determine and
decide upon workmen's claim under Section 529-A. The
above expression means that where the debtor company is in
winding up, the sale proceeds of such company realised
under the 1993 Act are to be distributed among its secured
creditors by following Section 529-A of the Companies Act.
Mention of Section 529-A in Section 19 (19) is neither a
legislation by reference nor a legislation by incorporation.
What it requires is that DRT must follow the mandate of
Section 529-A by making distribution in equal proportion to
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the secured creditors and workmen of the debtor company in
winding up.”
14.23 . This is further indicated by the language of Section 17 of
the SARFAESI Act, which restricts and limits the power of the
DRT to examine the actions as taken by the secured creditor,
only to be in accordance with the SARFAESI Act and the Rules
as made thereunder and not otherwise. If the intention of the
legislature was to confer absolute and unfettered jurisdiction
upon the DRT, vis-a-vis the ‗security interest‘, it would have
laid down that all questions about any right or liability, of any
nature whatsoever, which may arise in respect of the ‗security
interest‘, even if raised by a stranger to the ‗security interest‘,
which may be in respect of any civil rights as may be claimed
therein, as available to any person, whether under a Statute or
under the Civil Law, shall be determined by the Tribunal or
authority constituted by it and provided the machinery to
address, decide and enforce such right and not limited to
examining such claim, to the limited extent as indicated above,
of the action of the secured creditor, being in accordance with
the provisions of the Act and Rules made thereunder.
[ Ramalinga Samigal Madam (supra) explaining the second
principle in Dhulabhai (supra)].‖
38. Their Lordships also noticed the important and significant
principles which were laid down in Allahabad Bank vs. Canara
21
Bank by the Supreme Court and which had held that the provisions
of Sections 17 and 18 of the RDB Act create and confer exclusive
jurisdiction insofar as the question of adjudication of liability of the
borrower is concerned. This is evident from paragraph 21 of the
report which is extracted hereinbelow: -
“21. In Allahabad Bank v. Canara Bank , (2000) 4 SCC 406, a
specific question was framed as to whether the DRT had
exclusive jurisdiction, in view of Sections 17 and 18 of the DRT
Act, 1993, which was answered as under:—
“(i) Adjudication by Tribunal : does the Tribunal have
exclusive jurisdiction
21
(2000) 4 SCC 406
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20. We shall refer to Sections 17 and 18 in Chapter III of
the RDB Act which deal with adjudication of the debt:
“17. Jurisdiction, powers and authority of Tribunals.-(1)
A Tribunal shall exercise, on and from the appointed day, the
jurisdiction, powers and authority to entertain and decide
applications from the banks and financial institutions for
recovery of debts due to such banks and financial institutions.
(2) An Appellate Tribunal shall exercise, on and from the
appointed day, the jurisdiction, powers and authority to
entertain appeals against any order made, or deemed to have
been made, by a Tribunal under this Act.
18. Bar of jurisdiction.-On and from the appointed day,
no court or other authority shall have, or be entitled to
exercise, any jurisdiction, powers or authority (except the
Supreme Court, and a High Court exercising jurisdiction
under Article 226 and 227 of the Constitution) in relation to
the matters specified in Section 17.” It is clear from Section
17 of the Act that the Tribunal is to decide the applications of
the banks and financial institutions for recovery of debts due
to them. We have already referred to the definition of “debt”
in Section 2(g) as amended by Ordinance 1 of 2000. It
includes “claims” by banks and financial institutions and
includes the liability incurred and also liability under a
decree or otherwise. In this context Section 31 of the Act is
also relevant. That section deals with transfer of pending
suits or proceedings to the Tribunal. In our view, the word
“proceedings” in Section 31 includes “execution
proceedings” pending before a civil court before the
commencement of the Act. The suits and proceedings so
pending on the date of the Act stand transferred to the
Tribunal and have to be disposed of “in the same manner” as
applications under Section 19.
21. In our opinion, the jurisdiction of the Tribunal in
regard to adjudication is exclusive. The RDB Act requires the
Tribunal alone to decide applications for recovery of debts
due to banks or financial institutions. Once the Tribunal
passes an order that the debt is due, the Tribunal has to issue
a certificate under Section 19(22) [formerly under Section
19(7)] to the Recovery Officer for recovery of the debt
specified in the certificate. The question arises as to the
meaning of the word “recovery” in Section 17 of the Act. It
appears to us that basically the Tribunal is to adjudicate the
liability of the defendant and then it has to issue a certificate
under Section 19(22). Under Section 18, the jurisdiction of
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any other court or authority which would otherwise have had
jurisdiction but for the provisions of the Act is ousted and the
power to adjudicate upon the liability is exclusively vested in
the Tribunal. (This exclusion does not however apply to the
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court or of a High Court
exercising power under Articles 226 or 227 of the
Constitution.) This is the effect of Sections 17 and 18 of the
Act.
22. We hold that the provisions of Sections 17 and 18 of
the RDB Act are exclusive so far as the question of
adjudication of the liability of the defendant to the appellant
Bank is concerned.”
25. Thus, the adjudication of liability and the recovery of
the amount by execution of the certificate are respectively
within the exclusive jurisdiction of the Tribunal and the
Recovery Officer and no other court or authority much less
the civil court or the Company Court can go into the said
questions relating to the liability and the recovery except as
provided in the Act.”
The exclusive jurisdiction of the DRT, as conferred upon it
by Sections 17 and 18 of the DRT Act, has been recognised, so
far as the question of adjudication of the liability of the
borrower/guarantor to the Bank/Financial Institution is
concerned. Allahabad Bank (supra) does not go to any extent
beyond the above, which clearly indicates that within the
parameters as confined by the language of Sections 17 and 18
the DRT has exclusive jurisdiction to adjudicate upon the
recovery of the debt. The issue of civil rights available for
enforcement under the Common Law forum of the Civil Courts,
did not fall for consideration.‖
39. Their Lordships also had the occasion to notice the decision of
22
the Supreme Court in United Bank of India vs. Satyavati Tondon
which had taken cognizance of the expression “any person” being
entitled to assail the action that may be taken by a secured creditor
under Section 17 of the SARFAESI and held as follows: -
22
(2010) 8 SCC 110
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“21.2. Satyawati Tondon (supra), was a case in which the fact
of availing of a loan and the respondent no. 1 standing as a
guarantor for its repayment and further creating a security
interest by deposit of title deeds of her property was not
disputed. In fact, at one point of time, when there was default in
repayment of the loan, the respondent no. 1 who was a guarantor
had deposited a sum of Rs. 50,000/- and had also given an
undertaking to pay the balance amount in installments which
was not done, resultant to which notice under Section 13 (2) of
the SARFAESI Act was issued and thereafter an application
under Section 14 came to be allowed by the District Magistrate
and action under Section 13 (4) was also taken at which stage,
the respondent no. 1/Satyawati Tondon filed writ petition
claiming that the notice as issued by the Bank for recovery
were ex facie illegal and liable to be quashed. The petition was
defended by the Bank contending that the action was consistent
with the provisions of the SARFAESI Act. The issue of
availability of alternate plea under Section 17 of the SARFAESI
Act was also raised. The High Court holding that before
proceeding against the guarantor, the Bank should have
proceeded against the borrower and exhausted all remedies only
after which it could have proceeded against the
guarantor/respondent no. 1 quashed the action on part of the
Bank, which came to be challenged before the Apex Court,
whose relevant observations in respect to the expression ―any
person‖ are reproduced as under:—
“42. There is another reason why the impugned order
should be set aside. If Respondent 1 had any tangible
grievance against the notice issued under Section 13(4) or
action taken under Section 14. then she could have availed
remedy by filing an application under Section 17(1). The
expression “any person” used in Section 17(1) is of wide
import. It takes within its fold, not only the borrower but also
the guarantor or any other person who may be affected by the
action taken under Section 13(4) or Section 14. Both, the
Tribunal and the Appellate Tribunal are empowered to pass
interim orders under Sections 17 and 18 and are required to
decide the matters within a fixed time schedule. It is thus
evident that the remedies available to an aggrieved person
under the SARFAESI Act are both expeditious and effective.”
The above would indicate, that ―any person‖, under Section
17(1) of the SARFAESI Act, has the remedy to approach the
DRT under Section 17 of the DRT Act against any measure
taken by the secured creditor under Section 13 of the
SARFAESI Act and to that extent the jurisdiction of the Civil
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Court is barred. There cannot be any dispute with this position.
What has to be considered is whether the DRT under Section 17
of the DRT Act, 1993, in case any objection is raised under
Section 17 (1) of the SARFAESI Act, by ―any person‖
excluding a borrower and guarantor, claiming any independent
right in the security interest, would have the power to determine
the rights of such person and grant an executable relief to such
person. The answer is obvious that the DRT does not have any
such power or authority. No doubt, that in case such a right is
claimed by ―any person‖, excluding the borrower and guarantor,
by way of an objection under Section 17(1) of the SARFAESI
Act, the DRT under its jurisdiction would be bound to examine
such a claim. However, the examination of such a claim by the
DRT, in view of the language of Section 17 (2) and (3) of the
SARFAESI Act, would be restricted to consideration and
examination of such objection, within the limitation as imposed
upon it, i.e. to see whether the action under Section 13 by the
secured creditor was in accordance with the provisions of
Section 13 of the SARFAESI Act and the Rules as made
thereunder. In Satyawati Tondon (supra) the scope and ambit of
the examination by the DRT in case an objection or claim is
made by ―any person‖ under Section 17(1) of SARFAESI Act,
in light of the language of Section 17 (2) and (3) of SARFAESI
Act, has not been considered and examined. Section 17 (2) of
the SARFAESI Act, as reproduced earlier, by using the
language ―The Debts Recovery Tribunal shall consider whether
any of the measures referred to in Sub Section (4) of Section 13
taken by the secured creditor for enforcement of the security are
in accordance with the provisions of this Act and the rules made
thereunder‖, has limited the consideration and examination by
the DRT, as indicated above.‖
40. Their Lordships ultimately proceeded to record their
conclusions in paragraph 27 of the report which is extracted
hereinbelow:-
“27. In view of what we have discussed above, our considered
opinion to the question as referred to is as under: —
Question :
“Whether the jurisdiction of a Civil Court to decide all the
matters of civil nature, excluding those to be tried by the Debts
Recovery Tribunal under Section 17 of the Securitisation Act, in
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relation to enforcement of security interest of a secured creditor,
is barred by Section 34 of the Securitisation Act?
Answer:
The answer, looking to the nature of the question, in our
view, is in parts:—
(A) Jurisdiction of the Debts Recovery Tribunal to decide
all matters relating to Sections 13 and 17 of the SARFAESI
Act, is exclusive.
(B) In all cases, where the title to the property, in respect of
which a „security interest‟, has been created in favour of the
Bank or Financial Institution, stands in the name of the
borrower and/or guarantor, and the borrower has availed
the financial assistance, it would be only the DRT which
would have exclusive jurisdiction to try such matters, to the
total exclusion of the Civil Court. Any pleas as raised by the
borrowers or guarantors, vis-a-vis the security interest, will
have to be determined by the DRT.
(C) The jurisdiction of the Civil Court to decide all the
matters of civil nature, excluding those to be tried by the
Debts Recovery Tribunal under Sections 13 and 17 of the
SARFAESI Act, in relation to enforcement of security
interest of a secured creditor, is not barred by Section 34 of
the SARFAESI Act.
(D) Where civil rights of persons other than the borrower(s)
or guarantor (s) are involved, the Civil Court would have
jurisdiction, that too, when it is prima facie apparent from
the face of record that the relief claimed, is incapable of
being decided by the DRT, under Section 17 of the DRT Act,
1993 read with Sections 13 and 17 of the SARFAESI Act.
(E) Even in cases where the enforcement of a security
interest involves issues as indicated in Mardia
Chemicals (supra) of fraud as established within the
parameters laid down in A. Ayyasamy (supra); a claim of
discharge by a guarantor under Sections 133 and 135 of the
Contract Act [Mardia Chemicals (supra) ] ; a claim of
discharge by a guarantor under Sections 139, 142 and 143
of the Contract Act; Marshaling under Section 56 of the
Transfer of property Act [J.P. Builders (supra)]; the Civil
Court shall have jurisdiction.
(F) Examples as indicated in para 22.3, are illustrative of
the Civil Court's jurisdiction.
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(G) The principles laid down in para 33 (i) to (ix) of Sagar
Pramod Deshmukh (supra) are in accordance with what we
have discussed and held above.”
41. From the aforesaid conclusions, it is manifest that the High
Court ultimately came to conclude and hold that insofar as matters
which would squarely fall within the ambit of Sections 13 and 17 of
the SARFAESI, the jurisdiction under the aforesaid enactment as
conferred upon the DRT would be exclusive and absolute. It was held
that pleas that may be raised by borrowers or guarantors in respect of
a security interest would have to be determined by the aforesaid
Tribunal alone. Turning then to the scope of jurisdiction of the civil
court, it was pertinently observed that it would have the right to try
only such matters of a civil nature which could be said to fall outside
the ambit of Sections 13 and 17 of SARFAESI. Their Lordships
recognised the jurisdiction of the civil court to try such claims
provided it was apparent on the face of the record that the relief
claimed is incapable of being decided by the DRT under Section 17 of
the SARFAESI.
42. A learned Judge of our Court in Diamond Entertainment was
called upon to consider whether in light of the action initiated under
the SARFAESI, arbitration would be barred. Dealing with the
aforesaid question, the learned Judge held as follows: -
“24. The second objection taken is that the respondent has
already invoked proceedings under the SARFAESI Act and the
disputes being raised now are not arbitrable. The core question
which thus arises is whether the adjudication of the disputes
raised between the parties is barred before the Civil or an
alternate forum once the proceedings under the SARFAESI Act
has been commenced.
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25. The SARFAESI Act was brought into force to address the
concerns of recovery of large debts in NPAs. The very rationale
was to provide an expeditious procedure where there was a
security interest. The Full Bench of Orissa High Court
in Sarthak Builders Pvt. Ltd. v. Orissa Rural Dev. Corpn.
Ltd. , 2014 SCC OnLine Ori 75 made a reference to the Division
Bench Judgment of Uttarakhand High Court in Unique Engg.
Works v. Union of India , 2003 SCC OnLine Utt 107 to observe
that the SARFAESI Act was enacted by the Parliament to
remedy a situation and provide a measure against secured
interest. The key feature of SARFAESI Act is really to provide a
procedural remedy against security interest already created.
Therefore, an existing borrower, who had been granted financial
assistance, was covered under Section 2(1)(f) of the SARFAESI
Act as the borrower. Not only this, the definition clauses dealing
with debt securities, financial assistance, financial assets, etc.,
clearly convey the legislative intent that the SARFAESI Act
applied to all existing agreements irrespective of the fact
whether the lender was as notified ―financial institution‖ on the
date of the execution of the Agreement with the borrower or not.
29. This aspect was fully explained by the Supreme Court
in Transcore v. Union of India , (2008) 1 SCC 125 wherein it
was observed that the doctrine of election applies only if there is
one remedy. However, the NPA Act is an additional remedy to
the DRT Act, together they constitute one remedy and therefore,
the doctrine of election does not apply. There is no repugnancy
or inconsistency between the two remedies and therefore the
doctrine of election does not apply.
30. In M.D. Frozen Foods Exports Pvt. Ltd. v. Hero Fincrop
Ltd. , 2017 SCC OnLine Del 9190, a reference was made to the
aforesaid judgments to conclude that the application under the
SARFAESI Act is an addition to and not derogation to the
provisions of RDDB Act. In other words, it will not in any way
nullify or annul or impair the effect of the provisions of the
RDDB Act.
31. It is thus evident from the observations made in the aforesaid
judgments that the SARFAESI Act and RDDB Act are
complementary to each other and merely because proceedings in
the SARFAESI Act have been initiated would not be a ground to
oust the jurisdiction of the RDDB Act.
32. The other aspect which calls for some consideration is
whether the jurisdiction of RDDB (which is alternate to the
Civil Court) gets barred and whether the arbitration proceedings
can be initiated. The Full Bench of Delhi High Court in HDFC
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Bank Ltd. v. Satpal Singh Bakshi , 2012 SCC OnLine Del
4815 was confronted with this very issue and it was observed
that the jurisdiction of Civil Court is barred from matters
covered by the RDDB Act in the sense that instead of the
recovery being sought through the Civil Court, it has to be filed
before the Debt Recovery Tribunal, implying thereby that the
remedy of recovery still exists. It was further explained that
once the remedy of recovery remains the parties still have the
freedom to choose the forum alternate to and the regular Court
or DRT as the case may be for adjudicating their inter se
disputes. All disputes relating to the ―Right in Personam‖ are
arbitrable and therefore, the choice is given to the parties to
choose the alternative forum. A claim of money by a Bank or
financial institution cannot be treated as a right in rem and thus,
taking it out of the realm of arbitrability.‖
43. It must, with due respect be observed, that the ultimate
conclusions which came to be recorded by the learned Judge were
based on the decision rendered by the Full Bench of the Court in
HDFC Bank. Unfortunately, counsels who appeared before the Court
appear to have failed to have brought to the Hon‘ble Judge‘s attention
that the decision of the Full Bench already stood overruled in Vidya
Drolia.
44. Having noticed the precedents rendered on the subject of non-
arbitrability and the extent of exclusion of the jurisdiction of the civil
courts by virtue of the RDB Act and SARFAESI, the stage stands set
for examining the objection which stands raised in this batch of
petitions. As was noted in the preliminary parts of this decision, the
objection taken by the respondent was that since notices had come to
be issued under Section 13(2) of the SARFAESI, the challenge raised
by the petitioners would fall in the category of non-arbitrable issues
and thus incapable of either being considered in arbitration or open to
be agitated under Section 9 of the 1996 Act. The submission
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essentially was that it would not only be impermissible for the
petitioners to raise the disputes which are addressed consequent to the
issuance of the recall notice in arbitration, it would also not be open
for them to invoke the remedies provided under the 1996 Act. The
submission was that any challenge that the petitioners may choose to
raise would have to be in accordance with the procedure prescribed
under the SARFAESI.
45. The question of non-arbitrability which has come to be raised in
the context of the respondent having invoked the powers conferred by
Section 13 of the SARFAESI, would principally have to be tested
bearing in mind the nature of the challenge, the objection that is urged
and evaluating whether it would be one which would be capable of
reference to arbitration. The Court would also consequently have to
consider whether the nature of the challenge is one which is ordained
by law to be agitated before a specially designated forum under
statute. This would entail a discernment of the essence of the
challenge and the dispute which is raised, the nature of the claim and
whether the law contemplates and mandates the said objection being
considered only by a special forum to the exclusion of the civil courts.
46. The Court while determining the question of non-arbitrability
must firstly bear in mind that Section 9 of the Code of Civil
23
Procedure, 1908 confers an all-pervading jurisdiction upon our civil
courts to decide all ―civil disputes‖ as generically understood in our
jurisprudence. That fundamental precept must constitute the preface
for the discussion that follows. It is equally well settled that the bar of
23
CPC
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the jurisdiction of the civil court must not be readily inferred or
accepted. The Court also weighs in consideration that insofar as the
present batch is concerned, it is faced with two statutes, namely the
RDB Act and the SARFAESI, both of which incorporate specific
ouster provisions. However, that in itself cannot be viewed as being
either decisive or determinative of the question since the Courts would
have to further determine the extent to which those provisions can be
said to have ousted the jurisdiction which could otherwise be
exercised by the civil courts. This would necessarily entail the Court
examining and identifying the nature of the disputes and claims which
could possibly be adjudicated by the special forum created under a
legislation and whether that adjudicatory mechanism is founded on the
intent to be to the exclusion of ordinary civil remedies.
47. Having laid out the broad precepts in the backdrop of which the
question that stands raised in this batch would have to be answered,
the Court proceeds further. It may, at the outset, be noted that RDB
Act in terms of Section 19 principally created a special forum
enabling banks and financial institutions to approach the DRTs for
adjudication of their claims against borrowers. It was this significant
facet of that enactment which appears to have weighed with the
Supreme Court in Indian Bank to hold that the right of the borrower
to approach the civil court for any other relief could not be said to be
barred. The Supreme Court found that since the suit in that case had
been instituted even prior to the enactment of the RDB Act and was
not a suit or proceeding brought by a bank for recovery of debt, the
civil court did and continued to have the jurisdiction to try the same.
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Starting from Indian Bank and right upto Bank of Rajasthan , the
Supreme Court has consistently reiterated and reaffirmed the aforesaid
position. This is evident from the Supreme Court in Bank of
Rajasthan again emphasising that the DRT constituted under the
RDB Act has not been conferred the authority to try “independent
suits or proceedings initiated by the borrower….” . The Supreme
Court further noted that the borrower may have a right to sue and seek
reliefs which may not be confined to a set off or a counter claim. In
such a situation, their Lordships held that it would be wholly incorrect
to declare that the authority of the civil courts to decide such suits
stood either expressly or impliedly ousted.
48. Turning then to the provisions engrafted in the SARFAESI,
undisputedly the process of enforcement commences from the
initiation of action by a secured creditor under Section 13 of the
SARFAESI for enforcement of a security interest. It is in connection
with the proposed action of a secured creditor that a borrower stands
conferred the right to raise objections and question or assail the steps
proposed to be taken. SARFAESI, and as its provisions were
judicially interpreted in Mardia Chemicals , then enables any person
aggrieved by a measure taken by a secured creditor, the right of an
appeal under Section 17 of the SARFAESI. The right of a person to
appeal under Section 17 would inevitably have an indelible connect to
the action that the secured creditor may have initiated or proposes to
take under Section 13 of the SARFAESI. This could range from a
borrower assailing the classification of an account as a non-
performing asset, the assumption of a default having occurred to even
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parties unconnected or disassociated with the lending agreement
assailing the action that may be taken against a secured asset. The
scope of Section 34 of the SARFAESI was lucidly explained in
Mardia Chemicals to be restricted to those which could be taken or
examined by the DRT under Section 17 thereof. The jurisdiction of
the DRT under Section 17 of the SARFAESI and the consequential
ouster of the jurisdiction of the civil courts was understood to extend
to the determination of any action taken or proposed to be taken
pursuant to a power conferred under the said enactment. It was while
recognising that basic legislative shift in conferring primacy to the
DRT over that of the all-pervasive authority of a civil court that the
Supreme Court had observed that to a “very limited extent” the
jurisdiction of the civil court may be recognised to still exist such as
where the action of the secured creditor is assailed as being fraudulent
or where the action is asserted to be based on a claim which is asserted
to be evidently “absurd” or “untenable” .
49. The Court further finds that even in Vidya Drolia , the Supreme
Court while recognising the window within which the jurisdiction of a
civil court may be countenanced to exist, had while enunciating the
principles of “implicit non-arbitrability” categorically held that the
same would apply when by a mandatory law, parties stand restrained
and barred from contracting out or waiving the adjudication by a
designated court or a forum specially created by statute. It was also
aptly stated that while arbitrability is a matter of national policy, a
statute could on grounds of supervening public policy expressly or by
implication, both restrict or prohibit arbitration being resorted to.
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Vidya Drolia goes on to expound the proposition that where a statue
creates a right or liability and creates a special forum for the
determination of the above, the jurisdiction of the civil court which
otherwise exists would be proscribed. In such a situation, it was held
that the dispute would not be arbitrable.
50. This Court thus comes to conclude that the issue of arbitrability
would essentially have to be answered bearing in mind the nature and
substance of the dispute which stands raised and whether it can be said
that all questions connected therewith are ordained by law to be
adjudicated upon by a special court or forum. While fraud has been
duly recognised as being one of the grounds which would always be
open to be asserted before a civil court and thus consequentially be an
arbitrable issue, additionally it may be open to a party to seek
arbitration in respect of a claim or issue which cannot possibly be
agitated before the specialised forum or which that body is not under
the statute entitled or enabled to rule upon. It would essentially come
down to the Court discerning the true essence of the dispute which
stands raised in the facts of each particular case.
51. In any case and in light of the enunciation of the law in terms of
the decisions which have been noticed above, the Court finds itself
unable to hold that the provisions of the RDB Act or the SARFAESI
can be read or understood as introducing an omnibus bar to arbitration
and the trial of disputes in accordance with the procedure prescribed
under the 1996 Act. The Court would in each case have to consider
the nature of the dispute which stands raised and examine whether it is
one which those two statutes mandate being tried only by the DRTs in
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accordance with their respective provisions.
52. Having culled out the foundational principles which would
govern, the Court then reverts to the facts of the present batch. As was
noticed in the introductory parts of this judgment, the respondent had
prior to the present petitions being taken up, invoked its powers
conferred by Section 13 of the SARFAESI. The challenge which the
petitioners mount is based on their assertion that they cannot possibly
be held to be in default or having failed to abide by the terms of the
OTS. The petitioners contend that they have not only paid the amount
that was settled upon along with interest, the liability stands liquidated
before the period prescribed under the OTS proposal. The respondent
on the other hand asserts that the terms of the OTS required the
petitioners to adhere to a monthly schedule of payment of the
principal amount along with interest. According to the respondent, the
OTS was conditional upon the petitioners strictly abiding by its terms
and conditions. According to them, since they failed to adhere to the
schedule as settled and agreed upon, the OTS disintegrates
automatically leaving it open to the respondent to proceed further in
accordance with law.
53. Having noticed the rival contentions, the Court notes that the
dispute in essence is one which relates to whether a default has
occurred and thus empowering the respondent to proceed further
under Section 13 of the SARFAESI. The dispute would thus appear to
pivot upon the question whether the terms of the OTS were
scrupulously adhered to and whether a failure to abide by its terms has
resulted in an event of default. The invocation of Section 13(2) of the
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SARFAESI is dependent upon a borrower having defaulted in
repayment of a secured debt or an instalment thereof. The petitioners
question the very fact of a default having occurred and thus assail the
initiation of action by the respondent. This would essentially merit an
evaluation of the terms of the OTS, the payments made by the
petitioners, accounting for the principal and interest payable
thereunder and ultimately considering whether a default had occurred
on the date when the notice under Section 13 of SARFAESI came to
be issued.
54. As this Court examines the nature of the dispute which the
petitioners raise, it finds that it would clearly fall within the scope and
ambit of a Section 13 adjudication. All issues relating to default,
accounting for the payments made and the amount which was
envisaged to be paid under the OTS would clearly fall within the
purview of Section 13 of SARFAESI. The petitioners stand conferred
the right to assail the assertion of default and prefer objections to the
notice that has come to be issued at the behest of the respondent. The
respondent is obliged in law to consider those objections and
communicate reasons if they be found to be untenable. The petitioners
would thereafter have the right to assail any such order that the
respondent may choose to pass by way of an appeal under Section 17
of the SARFAESI.
55. The dispute which stands raised in the present case thus stands
confined to the question of an asserted default and the liability of the
petitioners to pay further sums to the respondent. These and other
allied issues would clearly fall within the scope of proceedings
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contemplated by and under Section 13 of the SARFAESI. In the facts
of the present case, the Court finds that the dispute that stands raised is
essentially a question in relation to the determination of a debt. It is
clearly linked to the question of adjudication of liability and thus
liable to be exclusively tried by the DRT. This aspect was also duly
highlighted by the Supreme Court in Allahabad Bank . The question
of whether ―any default in repayment of secured debt or any
instalment thereof‖ is one which would squarely fall within the ambit
of Section 13.
56. The Court further notes that such disputes are mandated by law
to be adjudicated and ruled upon solely by the tribunal under Sections
17 and 18 of the SARFAESI. A challenge like the present is thus
clearly one which relates to an action initiated under the aforenoted
statute and thus mandated by law to be considered and adjudicated
upon in accordance with the machinery provided in the statute itself.
57. On an overall conspectus of the aforesaid discussion, this Court
comes to conclude that once an action under Section 13 of the
SARFAESI had been initiated by a secured creditor, the rights and
obligations of parties would have to necessarily be examined and
decided in accordance with the procedure contemplated under
Sections 13, 17 and 18 of the SARFAESI. Upon the issuance of such
a notice, the dispute that may be raised by a debtor would fall outside
the purview of a private adjudication which arbitration essentially
represents. The limited window within which the issue of non-
arbitrability would not come in the way would be where a party
alleges and is able to establish that the action of the secured creditor is
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either fraudulent or that the claim is wholly absurd and untenable.
This limited window stands duly recognised and conferred a judicial
imprimatur by Mardia Chemicals itself and as would be evident from
paragraph 51 of the report which has been extracted hereinbefore. For
the purposes of evaluating the above, the question which would have
to be posed would be whether the action sought to be initiated by the
debtor is one which pertains to the enforcement measure adopted by
the creditor under SARFAESI or is one which seeks to raise an
independent claim and pertains to the enforcement of a right that may
otherwise be claimed in civil law. It is only if it were to fall within the
latter categories that the issue would become arbitrable.
58. That leaves the Court to consider whether the petitioners have
been able to establish that their case on facts would fall within the
ambit of the exceptions which were recognised in Mardia Chemicals .
Undisputedly, this is not a case where fraud is either alleged or
asserted. The challenge essentially was that the petitioners have been
held to be in default even after they had paid the entire sums due
under the OTS and after the respondent had itself accepted those
payments without demur or protest. It was asserted that all the
petitioners had ultimately paid the entire sum settled upon under the
OTS and thus the stand taken by the respondent is clearly absurd and
untenable.
59. The Court notes that in order to characterise a default claimed
by a creditor to fall within the exceptions carved out in Mardia
Chemicals , the Court would have to be convinced on an ex facie
examination of the facts of the case that the liability asserted to exist is
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preposterous, patently erroneous and perhaps even bordering on the
ludicrous. In order to arrive at such a conclusion, the Court would
have to be convinced that the liability which is sought to be enforced
cannot possibly be recognised in law to exist. That decision would
necessarily have to be one which can be arrived at without the Court
delving into or undertaking an accounting exercise or a detailed
examination of the respective accounts that may be maintained by
parties in their ordinary course of business. In fact, it is the trial of
those issues which are contemplated to be undertaken by the tribunal
under Sections 13 and 17 of SARFAESI.
60. While the petitioners had asserted that they had ultimately
liquidated all liabilities in terms of the OTS, this fact was seriously
disputed by the respondent. It was contended for and on behalf of the
respondent that since the petitioners had failed to adhere to the
repayment schedule as fixed under the OTS, the settlement did not
survive and it was thus open for them to have recalled the loan
facility. Whether the petitioners have ultimately paid the entire sum
which was due under the OTS and its terms adhered to are questions
which the DRT is statutorily empowered and enabled to decide. In
fact, it is these very disputes which could be said to squarely fall
within the scope of Sections 13 and 17 of SARFAESI. Viewed in light
of the above, the Court comes to the conclusion that the issues raised
clearly fall in the genre of non-arbitrability and would have to be
raised and challenged in accordance with the procedure specified
under SARFAESI. The Court thus comes to conclude that the
petitioners have failed to establish that the dispute raised would fall
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Signing Date:19.12.2022
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Neutral Citation Number: 2022/DHC/005642
within the exceptions which were carved out and judicially enunciated
in the various precedents referred to above.
61. Accordingly, and for all the aforesaid reasons, the present
petitions shall stand dismissed.
YASHWANT VARMA, J.
DECEMBER 19, 2022
SU
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Signature Not Verified
Digitally Signed
By:NEHA
Signing Date:19.12.2022
16:52:50