Full Judgment Text
REPORTABLE
2024 INSC 41
IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION
CRIMINAL APPEAL NO._______________OF 2024
(Arising out of Petition for Special Leave to Appeal (Criminal)
No.12289 of 2023)
NARA CHANDRABABU NAIDU …APPELLANT(S)
VERSUS
THE STATE OF ANDHRA PRADESH
& ANR. …RESPONDENT(S)
J U D G M E N T
ANIRUDDHA BOSE, J.
Leave granted.
2. The appellant is aggrieved by initiation of a criminal
proceeding against him and his detention in connection with the
same by the respondent State through its CID. Allegations have
Signature Not Verified
Digitally signed by
VARSHA MENDIRATTA
Date: 2024.03.05
17:49:52 IST
Reason:
been made against him for commission of offences under
1
Sections 166, 167, 418, 420, 465, 468, 471, 409, 209 and 109
read with Sections 120B, 34 and 37 of the Indian Penal Code,
1860 and Section 12 and 13(2) read with Sections 13(1)(c) and (d)
of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. The said offences are
alleged to have been committed between the years 2015 and
2019, during which period he was the Chief Minister of the State
of Andhra Pradesh. Initially, a First Information Report dated
09.12.2021 was lodged with CID Police Station, Andhra Pradesh,
Mangalagiri implicating twentysix persons as accused. On that
basis, CR No. 29/2021 was registered. The appellant was not
included in the array of accused persons in that F.I.R. The
offences primarily relate to siphoning of public funds and I shall
refer broadly to the allegations forming the basis of the F.I.R. in
the succeeding paragraphs of this judgment. The list of accused
persons was subsequently expanded and the appellant was also
arraigned as an accused by an “Accused Adding Memo” dated
08.09.2021 lodged before the Special Judge, SPE & ACB cases
(hereinafter referred to as “the Special Judge”). The appellant was
implicated as accused no.37, whereas another individual,
th
Kinjarapu Atchannaidu was made the 38 accused. The latter is
a former minister of Andhra Pradesh and appears to be a
2
member of the legislative assembly of that State at present. The
appellant was arrested on 09.09.2023 and was produced before
the Special Judge on 10.09.2023. He was remanded to judicial
custody by the Special Judge. The appellant applied before the
High Court on 12.09.2023 for quashing the F.I.R. in Crime No.
29 of 2021 implicating him, invoking the jurisdiction of the Court
under Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (1973
Code). The legality of the remand order dated 10.09.2023 was
also challenged in the same petition before the High Court. The
appellant’s plea was rejected and his petition was dismissed on
22.09.2023 by a learned Single Judge. The present appeal is
against this judgment of dismissal of the said petition.
3. The primarily allegation against the appellant is facilitating
diversion of public money in the approximate range of
Rs.370/ crores, which was to be used for setting up of six
clusters of skill development centres in Andhra Pradesh. For this
purpose, Andhra Pradesh State Skill Development Corporation
(hereinafter referred to as “APSSDC”) was established through a
memorandum numbered as G.O.Ms. No.47 dated 10.09.2014
(referred to as 13.12.2014 in the order of the Special Judge dated
3
10.09.2023) issued by the Higher Education (EC A2) Department.
APSSDC entered into an agreement with two corporate entities,
Siemens Industry Software India Pvt. Ltd. (“SIEMENS” in short)
and Design Tech India Pvt. Ltd. (we shall refer to it henceforth as
“Design Tech”) . The original object, in terms of a memorandum
numbered as G.O.Ms. No. 4 dated 30.06.2015 issued by the Skill
Development, Entrepreneurship & Innovation (Skills) Department
approving the said Agreement, was to set up six different clusters
comprising of one Centre of Excellence and five Technical Skill
Development Institutions and Skill Development Centres in
Andhra Pradesh. The total project cost was conceived to be
Rs.3281,05,13,448/ with each of the six clusters costing
Rs.546,84,18,908/. Government contribution was limited to 10
percent of the cost amounting to Rs.55,00,00,000/ , with
SIEMENS and Design Tech providing grantinaid of 90% i.e.,
Rs.491,84,18,908/ . It is the State’s case that requirement of
contribution of the two corporate entities was ignored and the
final memorandum of agreement only entailed outflow of
Rs.330/ crores from the State to Design Tech. A signed copy of
this memorandum, which does not carry any date, has been
4
made Annexure R15 to the counteraffidavit of the State (Volume
IV at page 206).
4. Submission on the part of the State is that in course of an
investigation by the Additional Director General, GST Intelligence
at Pune, while examining claims of availing CENVAT credit by
Design Tech and one Skillar Enterprises India Pvt. Ltd. (“Skillar”),
a financial scam was unearthed involving both SIEMENS and
Design Tech. This was in relation to funds pertaining to the
project of setting up skill development centres. The complaint of
the taxing body was that SIEMENS and Design Tech had
subcontracted substantial part of their work to Skillar despite
there being no provision of any subcontract in the Agreement.
Design Tech had claimed that Skillar provided training software
development including various submodules designed for high
end software for advance manufacturing of CAD/CAM. As per
Design Tech, royalty and subscription were paid to Skillar, as
they developed the software and Skillar had directly supplied the
same to the Skill Development Centres in Andhra Pradesh. As
recorded in the judgment under appeal, when the tax authorities
confronted Skillar, they took a stand that no technical work was
5
subcontracted and the training software development modules,
which were provided, were technical materials. According to
Skillar royalty and subscription were wrongly mentioned in the
invoices. It appears that an indepth scrutiny by the tax
authorities showed that the concerned software including various
submodules purported to have been supplied by Skillar to
Design Tech was purchased by Skillar from different companies.
It is also the State’s stand that these companies were
shell/defunct companies and they had issued invoices without
providing any services and that they were used as vehicles for
diverting funds. The APSSDC had conducted a forensic audit in
the year 2020 and the audit found flaws and irregularities in the
systems and in utilisation of funds between the financial years
20142015 and 20182019.
5. As per the investigating authorities a sum of
Rs.370/ crores from the government funds of the APSSDC has
been siphoned off. Case of the State against the appellant is that
he was the mastermind, who had unilaterally appointed G.
Subbarao and K Lakshminarayana (accused nos. 1 and 2) as MD
and CEO, and Director for the Skill Development Corporation
6
without getting approval from the Andhra Pradesh Cabinet. It
was the appellant who had approved the same and as per his
instruction, Memorandum of Association and Articles of
Association of APSSDC were also approved. As per estimation,
costs for six clusters, were projected as Rs.3319.68 crores but
the private participants did not infuse any fund as per their
original obligation. It is recorded in the impugned judgement that
the Andhra Pradesh Cabinet headed by the appellant at the
instance of the accused no.1 had approved sanction of a budget
of Rs.370/ crores towards 10% contribution of the government
in the project and G.O.Ms. No.4 dated 30.06.2015 was issued to
that effect. The main complaint against the appellant is that he
had fast tracked the project and approved the cost estimation
with criminal intent and by pursuing the government officials, he
had ensured release of Rs.370/ crores. The project was allotted
to Design Tech and SIEMENS on nomination basis, without
following any tender process. Misappropriation of government
funds through corrupt and illegal methods has been alleged and
abuse of official position has been attributed to the appellant.
Summary of the allegations against the appellant is revealed from
the Memorandum dated 08.09.2023, filed on behalf of the
7
prosecution, for adding the appellant as an accused. These
allegations, interalia, are to the following effect:
“….A37 by abusing his (A37) official position,
fraudulently committed criminal breach of trust with a
common intention, caused wrongful loss to the
Government exchequer by allowing accused and others
to divert APSSDC funds by using fake invoices as
genuine one for purpose of cheating through the shell,
defunct companies without providing
materials/services to the APSSDCSiemens project.”
On behalf of the appellant, the main argument, which was
6.
also made before the High Court, revolves around non
compliance of Section 17A of the Prevention of Corruption Act,
1988 in implicating the appellant under Sections 12, 13(2) read
with 13(1) (c) and (d) of the 1988 Act and proceeding against him
interalia, under the aforesaid provisions. The arguments on
behalf of the appellants have been mainly advanced by
Mr. Harish N. Salve and Mr. Siddharth Luthra, learned Senior
Advocates. Mr. Mukul Rohatgi with Mr. Ranjit Kumar, both
learned Senior Counsel have primarily argued on behalf of the
State. It is also the appellant’s case that once fault is found with
implicating the appellant under the aforesaid provisions of the
1988 Act, the entire proceeding qua the appellant before the
Special Judge would also collapse because in such a case the
8
Special Judge under the PC Act would have had acted beyond his
jurisdiction and the remand order would become nonest.
7. Section 17A was introduced to the 1988 Act with effect
from 26.07.2018. The said provision reads:
17A.
“ Enquiry or Inquiry or investigation of
offences relatable to recommendations made or
decision taken by public servant in discharge
.—No police officer
of official functions or duties
shall conduct any enquiry or inquiry or investigation
into any offence alleged to have been committed by
a public servant under this Act, where the alleged
offence is relatable to any recommendation made or
decision taken by such public servant in discharge
of his official functions or duties, without the
previous approval—
(a) in the case of a person who is or was
employed, at the time when the offence was
alleged to have been committed, in
connection with the affairs of the Union, of
that Government;
(b) in the case of a person who is or was
employed, at the time when the offence was
alleged to have been committed, in
connection with the affairs of a State, of that
Government;
(c) in the case of any other person, of the
authority competent to remove him from his
office, at the time when the offence was
alleged to have been committed:
Provided that no such approval shall be necessary
for cases involving arrest of a person on the spot on
the charge of accepting or attempting to accept any
undue advantage for himself or for any other
person:
Provided further that the concerned authority shall
convey its decision under this section within a
period of three months, which may, for reasons to be
9
recorded in writing by such authority, be extended
by a further period of one month.”
8. The High Court, interalia, held that the said provision
cannot be applied to any offence committed prior to 26.07.2018.
It has also been highlighted before us on behalf of the State that
offences under Section 13 (1) (c) & (d) were deleted from the said
statute by the Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Act, 26 of
2018. It was by the same Amendment Act, that Section 17A was
incorporated in the said statute. On this basis, it is urged, that
any protective measure, which is conceived in the Amendment
Act could not extend to offences committed when such protective
measure for obtaining prior approval was not a part of the
statutory scheme. The High Court primarily decided the case on
the premise that the aforesaid provision cannot be given
retrospective effect.
9. The other limb of argument of the State, which was also
sustained by the High Court is that a regular inquiry was already
ordered on 05.06.2018 regarding the allegations of corruption
against the officials of APSSDC. This was ordered by the Director
General of AntiCorruption Bureau, Andhra Pradesh. A redacted
version of this letter dated 05.06.2018 has been annexed in
10
Volume V of the compilation of documents submitted by the
State (at page 2 thereof). This compilation of documents (pages 2
to 7A of the said volume) suggests that AntiCorruption Bureau
had been asking for information in that regard. I quote below the
redacted version of the said letter:
“ Office of the Director General
AntiCorruption Bureau,
Andhra Pradesh,
Vijayawada
Rc No.10/RECIU/2018 Dated:562018
MEMORANDUM
Sub: Public ServantsIndustries DepartmentAllegations of
corruption against the officials of A.P. State Skill
Development Corporation, VijayawadaRegular Enquiry
orderedReg.
Ref: 1) Letter of Sri <OMITTED> Pune, dt. 1452018.
2) CBI Letter No.122 2017 (CE117/2017) CBI/Pune/3865,
dated 2102017
*
The letter of <OMITTED> Pune and letter of CBI, Pune are
enclosed herewith. You are instructed to conduct a Regular
Enquiry into the contents letter of petition and submit a RE
report within the stipulated time. You are also directed to
submit Plan of Action duly approved by the LAcumSpecial
PP, ACB, HO, Vijayawada.
Sd/
For Director General,
AntiCorruption Bureau,
A.P., Vijayawada
To:
Sri Narra Venkateswara Rao,
DSP, CIU, ACB, Vijayawada.”
11
10. The High Court has accepted the argument of the State that
a regular enquiry was ordered on 05.06.2018 regarding the
allegations of corruption against the officials of APSSDC by the
DG AntiCorruption Bureau AP before Section 17A of the 1988
Act came into operation i.e. on 25.07.2018. As a corollary, the
requirement of previous approval as contemplated in the
aforesaid provision would not be applicable in the case of the
appellant.
First, I shall examine the point as to whether enquiry had
11.
commenced by the letter of 05.06.2018. I have quoted the letter
of 05.06.2018 in the preceding paragraph. This letter refers to an
earlier letter dated 14.05.2018 addressed to the Andhra Pradesh
AntiCorruption Bureau by the Director General of GST
Intelligence, Pune submitting information regarding corruption
and siphoning of Government funds pertaining to APSSDC. The
letter dated 05.06.2018 essentially carries a request for enquiry.
There is no indication in the materials produced before us as to
whether any step was taken in pursuance of such request till the
year 2021. The first suggestion of any active enquiry can be seen
in a letter of 22.02.2021 originating from the Deputy
12
Superintendent of Police, AntiCorruption Bureau of that State,
which states that the bureau is investigating a regular enquiry
pertaining to allegations of corruption, misappropriation of funds
and procedural lapses in relation to collaboration of APSSDC/AP
Government with Design Tech. It appears that there was a
previous communication in this regard dated 09.02.2021. Even
though reference is made to the letter of 05.06.2018 in this
communication, there are no specific particulars of such enquiry
or the date on which such enquiry was started. There are
subsequent letters dated 22.02.2021, 30.03.2021, 23.06.2021
and 18.08.2021, all referring to the letter of 05.06.2018. But as
it has been already observed earlier, there are no specific
particulars regarding when and in what form the enquiry has
started. There obviously was a time gap between the date of issue
of the letter of 05.06.2018 and actual date on which the enquiry
was commenced. The State has justified this delay in its counter
affidavit. It has been stated that instead of acting on the letter of
the taxing authorities dated 14.05.2018, which in turn has been
referred to in the communication of 05.06.2018, the note file
pertaining to the project was removed by the appellant from the
secretariate in collaboration with other accused persons and this
13
was done to temper with evidence and to ensure that the offences
were not brought to light. This act of removal of file may
constitute a or an independent offence. But if otherwise no
enquiry was started because of such alleged wrong, this time gap
cannot be treated to have caused the date of issue of the letter of
05.06.2018 to be starting point of an enquiry, in the nature
contemplated in Section 17A of the 1988 Act.
12. Section 17A thereof postulates prior approval from the
appointing authority in relation to any enquiry, inquiry, or
investigation under the 1988 Act. While the expression “inquiry”
has been defined in the 1973 code, there is no specific definition
of the word “enquiry”. The Concise Oxford English Law
Dictionary, Revised Tenth Edition, defines the said expression as
“an act of asking for an information”. It entails commencement of
an active search to ascertain the truth or falsity of an alleged
wrongful act.
13. In ordinary perception, “enquiry” by a police officer would
imply positive exercise for searching certain details or particulars
pertaining to allegations of commission of an offence by an
accused persons or a set of accused persons. “Inquiry” is defined
14
in Section 2 (g) of the 1973 and implies inquiry conducted under
the Code by a Magistrate or Court. Similarly, “investigation” in
terms of Section 2 (h) of the same Code includes all the
proceedings conducted thereunder for collection of evidence by a
police officer or a person authorised by a Magistrate in that
behalf. The nature of actions undertaken by the State after
05.06.2018 constitutes neither inquiry nor investigation, as no
step under the 1973 Code was taken by the State prior to the
year 2021. If that is the meaning attributed to this expression,
the letter of 05.06.2018 or the earlier letter from taxing authority
dated 14.05.2018 cannot be construed to be the commencing
point of any enquiry. These were requests for starting an enquiry,
which obviously did not commence prior to the aforesaid dates in
the year 2021. Thus, on this point I cannot accept the finding of
the High Court that a regular enquiry was already initiated on
05.06.2018. The restriction in Section 17A of the 1988 Act is on
conducting an enquiry by a police officer without the prior
approval of the authority specified therein. A request to conduct
an enquiry by itself cannot be the starting point of the enquiry
under the said provision to bypass the restriction postulated
therein. Moreover, in the facts of this case, actual search for
15
information had commenced in the year 2021, as I have already
indicated, and lack of action on this count has been attributed by
the State to the appellant and the other accused persons
themselves. We are not going into the truth of such allegations.
But if such allegations are assumed to be correct, the same shall
only support the appellant’s case that no enquiry was initiated
before incorporation of Section 17A in the statute book. Further,
in the F.I.R. or the preliminary enquiry report dated 09.12.2021,
there was no reference to the communication of 05.06.2018. I,
accordingly, hold that before Section 17A of the 1988 Act had
become operational, no enquiry, inquiry or investigation had
commenced as against the appellant in relation to the subject
crime.
14. Mr. Salve has also relied on a Standard Operating Procedure
(hereinafter referred to as “SOP”) for processing cases under
Section 17A of the 1988 Act. This has been issued under Memo
no.428/07/2021AVD.IV(B) dated 03.09.2021 by the Department
of Personnel and Training of the Government of India. This
memo in detail records how the aforesaid provisions shall apply.
Clause 4.2 thereof stipulates:
16
“Enquiry for the purposes of these SOPs, means any
action taken, for verifying as to whether the information
pertains to commission of offence under the Act.”
15. As there is no authoritative guideline defining what
constitutes an enquiry, I find it safe to rely on the explanation
given in the aforesaid clause of the SOP. This explanation also
contemplates any action taken for verifying as to whether the
information pertains to commission of offences under the Act or
not. Again, the memo of 05.06.2018, if tested standalone, cannot
be construed to imply taking any action.
16. The High Court citing the judgments of this Court in the
cases of Shambhoo Nath Misra vs State of U.P. & Others
[(1997) 5 SCC 326] and
State of Uttar Pradesh vs Paras Nath
Singh [(2009) 6 SCC 372], has held that the protection of
sanction sought by the accused persons therein cannot be
applied because when a public servant is alleged to have
committed the offence of fabrication of records or
misappropriation of public funds, it cannot be said that he acted
in discharge of his official duty. Obviously, it cannot be said that
such misdemeanour on the part of a public servant can be
equated to his official duties. But these judgments were delivered
17
while interpreting the provisions of Section 197 of 1973 Code.
The requirement of previous sanction contemplated in Section
197 of the 1973 Code comes at the stage of taking cognizance of
an offence. Thus, a judicial authority, in such a context has the
advantage of coming to some form of opinion as to whether the
offending acts can be said to have been committed in discharge of
his official duty or not. In the case of Dr. S.M. Mansoori(Dead)
Through Legal Representatives vs Surekha Parmar and
[(2023) 6 SCC 156], the complaint related to offences
Others
punishable under Sections 498A and 506 read with Section 34
of IPC as well as Sections 3 and 4 of the Dowry Prohibition Act,
1961. The police personnel had entered the house of the
appellant therein without any previous sanction and the charges
framed against the accused were quashed by the High Court on
the ground that prior sanction under Section 197 of 1973 Code
was not taken. In that context, it was held by a Coordinate
Bench of this Court that looking at the nature of allegations in
the complaint, at that stage it was impossible to conclude that
the acts alleged to have been done by the accused were
committed by her while in discharge of official duty. The High
18
Court judgment was set aside and it was opined by the
Coordinate Bench in the facts of that case, that a final view on
that issue would be taken only after the evidence was recorded.
So far as the provision of Section 197 of the 1973 Code is
17.
concerned, the requirement for deciding the question on
obtaining sanction is at the stage of taking cognizance. Thus,
some element of application of mind is necessary while examining
that issue. In the case of
Matajog Dobey vs H. C. Bhari (AIR
1956 SC 44), there was use of force when a tax raiding party was
resisted from conducting a search. This gave rise to two
complaints, which were sent to two magistrates for judicial
enquiry. Summonses were issued against the income tax officials
and the accompanying policemen over use of force.
Matajog
Dobey (supra), the resistor, contended that use of such force was
not in discharge of official duty. Objection was raised against the
issuance of summons on the ground of lack of sanction as
contemplated in Section 197 of the Criminal Procedure Code,
which was prevalent at that point of time (1950). Negating such a
contention, a Constitution Bench of this Court observed:
19
“20. Is the need for sanction to be considered as soon as
the complaint is lodged and on the allegations therein
contained? At first sight, it seems as though there is some
support for this view in Hori Ram case and also in Sarjoo
Prasad v. KingEmperor. Sulaiman, J. says that as the
prohibition is against the institution itself, its applicability
must be judged in the first instance at the earliest stage of
institution. Varadachariar, J. also states that the question
must be determined with reference to the nature of the
allegations made against the public servant in the criminal
proceeding. But a careful perusal of the later parts of their
judgments shows that they did not intend to lay down any
such proposition. Sulaiman, J. refers (at P179) to the
prosecution case as disclosed by the complaint or the police
report and he winds up the discussion in these words:“Of
course, if the case as put forward fails or the defence
establishes that the act purported to be done is in execution
of duty, the proceedings will have to be dropped and the
complaint dismissed on that ground”. The other learned
Judge also states at p. 185, “At this stage we have only to
see whether the case alleged against the appellant or
sought to be proved against him relates to acts done or
purporting to be done by him in the execution of his duty”. It
must be so. The question may arise at any stage of the
proceedings. The complaint may not disclose that the act
constituting the offence was done or purported to be done in
the discharge of official duty; but facts subsequently coming
to light on a police or judicial inquiry or even in the course of
the prosecution evidence at the trial, may establish the
necessity for sanction. Whether sanction is necessary or not
may have to be determined from stage to stage. The
necessity may reveal itself in the course of the progress of
the case.
xxx xxx xxx
23. Where a power is conferred or a duty imposed by
statute or otherwise, and there is nothing said expressly
inhibiting the exercise of the power or the performance of
the duty by any limitations or restrictions, it is reasonable
to hold that it carries with it the power of doing all such acts
or employing such means as are reasonably necessary for
such execution. If in the exercise of the power or the
performance of the official duty, improper or unlawful
obstruction or resistance is encountered, there must be the
right to use reasonable means to remove the obstruction or
overcome the resistance. This accords with commonsense
20
and does not seem contrary to any principle of law. The
true position is neatly stated thus in Broom's Legal Maxims,
10th Edn. at p. 312:“ It is a rule that when the law
commands a thing to be done, it authorises the performance
of whatever may be necessary for executing its command.”
The scope of operation of Section 17A of the 1988 Act is,
however, different from that of Section 197 of the Code. The
requirement of taking sanction under Section 19 of the 1988 Act
also is at the same stage. Unlike Section 197 of 1973 Code (which
is near identically phrased as the same section in the earlier
version of the Code), Section17A of the 1988 Act imposes
restriction on police officer at the enquiry stage itself, from
proceeding against a public servant in relation to any offence
alleged to have been committed by him, relatable to any
recommendation made or decision taken by such public
servant ( , without previous approval of the
emphasis added)
authorities stipulated in the said Section. We do not think the
cases arising out of Section 197 of the 1973 Code would give
proper guidance for interpreting the provision of Section 17A of
the 1988 Act because, in the cases under Section 197, the
decision on requirement for sanction is to be taken at the stage of
taking cognizance. Thus, there is inbuilt scope of application of
21
judicial mind to assess, at least primafacie, if an alleged act falls
within discharge of official duty or not. Under the provisions of
Section 17A of the 1988 Act, there is no scope of judicial
application of mind in determining if the flaw in making
recommendation or taking decision is interwoven with discharge
of official duty or function or not. Moreover, the qualified
embargo therein is on a police officer. On the point as to
assessing whether the offending act is in discharge of official duty
or not, having regard to the nature of duties of a police officer, he
is less equipped to assess that factor, which involves some form
of judicial application of mind. No material has been placed
before us to demonstrate that the concerned police officer had
undertaken any exercise for prima facie forming his opinion as to
whether the offence alleged against the appellant was relatable to
any recommendation made or decision taken by the appellant in
discharge of his official duty. Unlike in the case of
Dr. S.M.
Mansoori (supra), in which the offences involved, by their very
nature, were prima facie not relatable to discharge of official duty
by the accused, here the appellant’s actions relate to making
recommendations or taking decisions and these decisions and
recommendations otherwise, prima face, relate to discharge of
22
official functions. In the case of State of Telangana vs
Managipet alias Mangipet Sarveshwar Reddy [(2019) 19 SCC
87] the accused questioned the authorisation of the investigating
officer in terms of Section 17 of the 1988 Act. This Court held :
The High Court has rightly held that no
“36.
ground is made out for quashing of the
proceedings for the reason that the investigating
agency intentionally waited till the retirement of
the accused officer. The question as to whether a
sanction is necessary to prosecute the accused
officer, a retired public servant, is a question
which can be examined during the course of the
trial as held by this Court in K. Kalimuthu [K.
Kalimuthu v. State, (2005) 4 SCC 512 : 2005 SCC
(Cri) 1291] . In fact, in a recent judgment in Vinod
Kumar Garg v. State (NCT of Delhi) [Vinod Kumar
Garg v. State (NCT of Delhi), (2020) 2 SCC 88 :
(2020) 1 SCC (Cri) 545 : (2020) 1 SCC (L&S) 146] ,
this Court has held that if an investigation was
not conducted by a police officer of the requisite
rank and status required under Section 17 of the
Act, such lapse would be an irregularity, however
unless such irregularity results in causing
prejudice, conviction will not be vitiated or be bad
in law. Therefore, the lack of sanction was rightly
found not to be a ground for quashing of the
proceedings.”
18. I shall test later in this judgment as to whether the remand
proceeding before the Special Judge was mere irregularity or
fatal, but before that I have to answer the question as to whether
the protection of Section 17A is applicable in the case of the
appellant.
23
19. Large part of Mr. Salve’s arguments was devoted to the
proposition that the content of Section 17A of the 1988 Act was
procedural in nature and relying on the judgments of this court
in the cases of (i) Anant Gopal Sheorey vs State of Bombay
[AIR 1958 SC 915]; (ii) Rattan Lal vs State of Punjab [AIR
1965 SC 444]; and (iii) [2023 INSC 817],
CBI vs R.R. Kishore
he has argued that the said provision is retroactive and not
retrospective. His submission is that the amended provision
applies at the starting point of enquiry, inquiry, or investigation,
even though the offence may relate back to a period when the
requirement of obtaining previous sanction was not necessary for
starting these processes. I have already referred to Section 19 of
the 1988 Act which requires the Court to satisfy itself whether
such sanction stated therein has been taken at the stage of
taking cognizance. So far as acts of a public servant in making
recommendation or taking decision in discharge of official duties
are concerned, an entry point check, prior in time has been
contemplated for the investigating agencies. Thus, the
requirement of taking prior approval would arise at that stage,
being the beginning or commencing of enquiry, inquiry, or
24
investigation. In my view a plain reading of the said Section
leads to such an interpretation. Section 17A does not distinguish
between alleged commission of offence prior to 26.07.2018 or
post thereof. This provision stipulates the time when any
enquiry, inquiry or investigation is commenced by a police officer.
Mr. Rohtagi drew my attention to the judgment of this Court in
the case of State of Rajasthan vs Tejmal Choudhary [2021
SCC Online SC 3477] to refute Mr. Salve’s submissions on this
point. In this judgment, a Coordinate Bench has held that the
Section 17A of the 1988 Act is substantive in nature and is
therefore applicable prospectively. The same view has been taken
by different High Courts but as I have an authority of this Court
on this point, I do not consider it necessary to refer to all these
High Court Judgements.
20. In the case of Tejmal Choudhary (supra) the FIR was
registered on 01012018 and the accused public servant sought
quashing of the FIR on the ground of introduction of Section 17A
in the 1988 Act. In para 10 of this judgment, the Coordinate
Bench observed that:
| “ | 10. | In | State of Telangana | v. | Managipet alias | ||||||||
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Mangipet Sarveshwar Reddy | reported | (2019) 19 SCC |
25
| 87 | , this Court rejected the arguments that amended | |||||
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| provisions of the | PC Act | would be applicable to an | ||||
| FIR, registered before the said amendment came into | ||||||
| force and found that the High Court had rightly held | ||||||
| that no grounds had made out for quashing the | ||||||
| proceedings.” |
In the present case, original FIR was registered on 09.12.2021
and the appellant was implicated in the aforesaid offences on
08.09.2023. There is no evidence of any substantive enquiry,
inquiry, or investigation made against him prior to coming into
operation of the Section 17A of the 1988 Act. Hence, the case at
hand is distinguishable from the ratio laid down in the judgment
of this Court of in the case of Tejmal Choudhary (supra).
The Amendment Act by which Section 17A of the 1988 Act
21.
was brought into the said statute also deleted the provisions of
subclauses (c) and (d) of Section 13 (1) thereof. At the time the
memorandum of adding the appellant as accused was issued, the
said Amendment Act had become operational, but at the time of
alleged commission of offence, aforesaid two subclauses were
part of the statute book. Thus, per se, the appellant could be
held liable for commission of offences stipulated in the said
provisions, though their subsequent deletion might have some
impact on the ultimate outcome of the case. We are not
26
concerned with that aspect of the controversy at this stage. It
has been asserted by Mr. Rohtagi, however, that since at the time
of commission of offence, the protective shield of Section 17A was
not in force, the appellant could not claim the benefits thereof. I,
however, do not accept this argument. It has been already
observed by me that the point of time Section 17A of 1988 Act
would become applicable is the starting point of enquiry, inquiry,
or investigation and not the time of commission of the alleged
offence. In the event any of the three acts on the part of the
prosecution is triggered off post 26.07.2018, the mandate of
Section 17A would be applicable. The wording of Section 17A
restricts the power of a police officer to conduct any of the three
acts into any offence by a public servant “under this act”. Thus,
if the process of enquiry commences at a time attracting specific
provisions of the 1988 Act which stand deleted by the
Amendment Act of 2018, the restrictive protection in form of
Section 17A ought to be granted. The phrase “under this act”, on
such construction ought to include offences which were in the
statue book at the time the subjectoffences are alleged to have
been committed. Mr. Rohatgi, however, wants me to construe this
expression, i.e. “under this Act” to mean the 1988 Act, as it
27
existed on and from the date the provisions of Section 17A was
introduced. As the said section did not exist at the time of alleged
commission of the offences, his submission is that the said
provision could not apply in the case of the appellant. The said
section, however, as I have already narrated, had become
operational when the enquiry started. Thus, proceeding on the
basis that the said provision is prospective in its operation, the
material point of time for determining its prospectivity would be
the starting point of enquiry or inquiry and investigation.
22. The question as to whether the phrase “under this Act” used
in Section 17A of the 1988 Act, would mean to be “the Act”, as it
existed at the time of alleged commission of offence or “the Act”
as it stood post amendment when the enquiry commenced would
also have to be answered by this Court. While dealing with the
issue of necessity for obtaining prior approval, I have already held
that the appellant could be implicated under Section 13 (1)(c) and
(d), as at the time of alleged commission of the offences, these
provisions were alive. Once certain offences are deleted from an
enactment, they do not vanish totally unless the lawmakers say
so. They move to the back pages and can be revived if they were
28
committed before being enacted out of the legislation. But I
cannot give a restrictive interpretation to the expression “under
this Act” to give an isolated retrospective operation to the said
phrase, detaching it from rest of the provisions of Section 17A of
the Act and remove the protective shield in a situation where an
enquiry has started after introduction of the said provision but
relates to an offence committed prior to its introduction in 2018.
The said phrase ought to be relatable to the date of starting of the
enquiry, inquiry or investigation and not to the time or date of
commission of offence.
Otherwise, if I apply an interpretation of the expression
23.
“under this Act” to mean the statute as it exists at the time the
enactment is invoked, the same phrase is invoked, the same
might result in divesting the Special Judge of his power to
proceed against the appellant, as at the time the appellant’s case
was brought to the Special Judge, the aforesaid two subsections
stood deleted from Section 13 (1) of the 1988 Act.
I am making this observation because the Special Judge’s
jurisdiction is derived from Sections 3 and 4 of the 1988 Act.
These provisions read:
29
| “3. Power to appoint special Judges.—(1) The<br>Central Government or the State Government may, by<br>notification in the Official Gazette, appoint as many<br>special Judges as may be necessary for such area or<br>areas or for such case or group of cases as may be<br>specified in the notification to try the following<br>offences, namely:— | ||
|---|---|---|
| (a) any offence punishable under this Act; and | ||
| (b) any conspiracy to commit or any attempt to<br>commit or any abetment of any of the offences<br>specified in clause (a). | ||
| (2) A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a<br>special Judge under this Act unless he is or has been a<br>Sessions Judge or an Additional Sessions Judge or an<br>Assistant Sessions Judge under the Code of Criminal<br>Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974). | ||
| 4. Cases triable by special Judges.—(1)<br>Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of<br>Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), or in any other<br>law for the time being in force, the offences specified in<br>subsection (1) of section 3 shall be tried by special<br>Judges only. | ||
| (2) Every offence specified in subsection (1) of section<br>3 shall be tried by the special Judge for the area<br>within which it was committed, or, as the case may be,<br>by the special Judge appointed for the case, or where<br>there are more special Judges than one for such area,<br>by such one of them as may be specified in this behalf<br>by the Central Government. | ||
| (3) When trying any case, a special Judge may also<br>try any offence, other than an offence specified in<br>section 3, with which the accused may, under the<br>Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), be<br>charged at the same trial. | ||
| (4) Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of<br>Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), the trial of an<br>offence shall be held, as far as practicable, on dayto |
30
day basis and an endeavour shall be made to ensure
that the said trial is concluded within a period of two
years:
Provided that where the trial is not concluded within
the said period, the special Judge shall record the
reasons for not having done so:
Provided further that the said period may be extended
by such further period, for reasons to be recorded in
writing but not exceeding six months at a time; so,
however, that the said period together with such
extended period shall not exceed ordinarily four years
in aggregate.”
24. Now if I accept the meaning Mr. Rohtagi wants us to give to
the said expression as employed in Section 17A of the 1988 Act,
the same expression i.e. “under this Act” as contained in Section
3 (1) (a) would also have to be read to mean as “the Act”
prevailing at the point of time the appellant’s case is brought to
the Special Judge. This would result in shrinking the jurisdiction
of the Special Judge to try offences which have been repealed by
the Amendment Act of 2018. I am unable to agree with
Mr. Rohatgi on this point. It is an established principle of
statutory interpretation that if a particular phrase is employed in
different parts of an enactment, Courts ought to proceed with an
understanding that the legislature intended to assign the same
meaning to that expression used in different provisions thereof,
31
unless of course, a contrary intention appears from the statute
itself. Here I find no such contrary intention.
25. Now I shall examine the legality of a proceeding which is
started without complying with the requirement of previous
approval under Section 17A of the 1988 Act. In the case of
Yashwant Sinha and Others vs Central Bureau of
Investigation through its Director and Another [(2020) 2 SCC
338], a Bench of this Court comprising of three Hon’ble Judges,
while dealing with power of review had also examined this
question. The Bench was unanimous in rejecting the review plea.
In a concurring judgment one of the Hon’ble Judges, (K. M.
Joseh, J.) held:
| “116. In the year 2018, the Prevention of Corruption<br>(Amendment) Act, 2018 (hereinafter referred to as “the<br>2018 Act”, for short) was brought into force on 2672018.<br>Thereunder, Section 17A, a new section was inserted,<br>which reads as follows: | ||
|---|---|---|
| “17A. Enquiry or inquiry or investigation of<br>offences relatable to recommendations made<br>or decision taken by public servant in<br>discharge of official functions or duties.—(1)<br>No police officer shall conduct any enquiry or<br>inquiry or investigation into any offence alleged to<br>have been committed by a public servant under<br>this Act, where the alleged offence is relatable to<br>any recommendation made or decision taken by<br>such public servant in discharge of his official<br>functions or duties, without the previous approval<br>— |
32
| (a) in the case of a person who is or was<br>employed, at the time when the offence was<br>alleged to have been committed, in<br>connection with the affairs of the Union, of<br>that Government;<br>(b) in the case of a person who is or was<br>employed, at the time when the offence was<br>alleged to have been committed, in<br>connection with the affairs of a State, of<br>that Government;<br>(c) in the case of any other person, of the<br>authority competent to remove him from his<br>office, at the time when the offence was<br>alleged to have been committed:<br>Provided that no such approval shall be necessary<br>for cases involving arrest of a person on the spot on<br>the charge of accepting or attempting to accept any<br>undue advantage for himself or for any other<br>person:<br>Provided further that the concerned authority shall<br>convey its decision under this section within a<br>period of three months, which may, for reasons to<br>be recorded in writing by such authority, be<br>extended by a further period of one month.”<br>(emphasis supplied) | ||
|---|---|---|
| 117. In terms of Section 17A, no police officer is permitted<br>to conduct any enquiry or inquiry or conduct investigation<br>into any offence done by a public servant where the<br>offence alleged is relatable to any recommendation made<br>or decision taken by the public servant in discharge of his<br>public functions without previous approval, inter alia, of<br>the authority competent to remove the public servant from<br>his office at the time when the offence was alleged to have<br>been committed. In respect of the public servant, who is<br>involved in this case, it is clause (c), which is applicable.<br>Unless, therefore, there is previous approval, there could<br>be neither inquiry or enquiry or investigation. It is in this<br>context apposite to notice that the complaint, which has<br>been filed by the petitioners in Writ Petition (Criminal) No.<br>298 of 2018, moved before the first respondent CBI, is<br>done after Section 17A was inserted. The complaint is<br>dated 4102018. Para 5 sets out the relief which is sought<br>in the complaint which is to register an FIR under various |
33
| provisions. Paras 6 and 7 of the complaint are relevant in<br>the context of Section 17A, which read as follows:<br>“6. We are also aware that recently, Section 17<br>A of the Act has been brought in by way of an<br>amendment to introduce the requirement of prior<br>permission of the Government for investigation or<br>inquiry under the Prevention of Corruption Act.<br>7. We are also aware that this will place you in<br>the peculiar situation, of having to ask the<br>accused himself, for permission to investigate a<br>case against him. We realise that your hands<br>are tied in this matter, but we request you to at<br>least take the first step, of seeking permission of<br>the Government under Section 17A of the<br>Prevention of Corruption Act for investigating this<br>offence and under which, “the concerned<br>authority shall convey its decision under this<br>section within a period of three months, which<br>may, for reasons to be recorded in writing by<br>such authority, be extended by a further period<br>of one month”.”<br>(emphasis supplied) | ||
|---|---|---|
| 118. Therefore, the petitioners have filed the complaint<br>fully knowing that Section 17A constituted a bar to any<br>inquiry or enquiry or investigation unless there was<br>previous approval. In fact, a request is made to at least<br>take the first step of seeking permission under Section 17<br>A of the 2018 Act. Writ Petition (Criminal) No. 298 of 2018<br>was filed on 24102018 and the complaint is based on<br>nonregistration of the FIR. There is no challenge to Section<br>17A. Under the law, as it stood, both on the date of filing<br>the petition and even as of today, Section 17A continues<br>to be on the statute book and it constitutes a bar to any<br>inquiry or enquiry or investigation. The petitioners<br>themselves, in the complaint, request to seek approval in<br>terms of Section 17A but when it comes to the relief<br>sought in the writ petition, there was no relief claimed in<br>this behalf.” | ||
The same view has been reflected in the case of Tejmal
Choudhary (supra).
34
26. One point which has been urged in relation to this authority
is that this was not a contention raised by the parties in the
judgment of Yashwant Sinha (supra) and was not dealt with by
the majority opinion. Hence, according to the respondents a
concurring opinion could not be a binding authority on a point
which has not been dealt with by the majority of the Hon’ble
Judges in the Bench. Mr. Rohatgi relied on a decision in the case
of Rameshbhai Dabhai Naika vs State of Gurajat and Others
[(2012) 3 SCC 400] on this point. The ratio of this decision would
not apply in the context of the judgment delivered in the case of
Yashwant Sinha (supra), as in the latter authority the majority
view does not reflect any discord over the concurring view. In my
opinion, however, position of law laid down in a concurring
judgment ought to be treated as part of the main judgment and
that opinion would form a binding authority. I should not
distinguish between the main judgment and the concurring view
and isolate the reasoning contained in the concurring opinion
and hold the reasoning contained in the main opinion (of majority
of the judges) only to have the status of a binding precedent. The
concurring view is just as much part of the main opinion (of
35
majority of the judges) and will be a binding precedent, composite
with the majority view. The position of law would be different if
the majority view had expressed, either directly or by implication,
a contrary view. That is not the case so far as the judgment in
the case of Yashwant Sinha (supra) is concerned. Hence this
principle of law contained in the concurring judgment would
constitute precedent even though it was expressed in a
concurring judgment of a learned Single Judge which the
majority members of the Bench have not differed. Thus, the steps
taken against the appellant under the 1988 Act ought to be
invalidated as the same did not commence with prior approval as
laid down under Section 17A of the 1988 Act.
27. The cases of Neeharika Infrastructure Pvt. Ltd. vs. State
of Maharashtra [AIR 2021 SC 315] and State vs M. Maridoss
[(2023) 4 SCC 338] were cited by the respondents to contend that
investigation ought not be scuttled at a nascent stage and it was
also highlighted that the petition for quashing of an FIR was
made within five days from the date the appellant was arraigned
as an accused. It is a fact that the appellant had approached the
quashing Court with extraordinary speed but that factor by itself
36
would not render his action untenable, ousting him from the
judicial forum to have the proceeding against him invalidated. In
the cases of [AIR 1960 SC 866]
R.P. Kapur vs State of Punjab
and State of Haryana vs Bhajan Lal [(1992) Supp. (1) SCC
335], it has been held that prosecution undertaken in violation of
a legal bar would be a valid ground for quashment of the
proceeding. Further, in the case of Mahmood Ali & others vs
State of UP [2023 INSC 684] a Coordinate Bench of this Court
has observed :
“13.…. The Court while exercising its jurisdiction under
Section 482 of the CrPC or Article 226 of the Constitution
need not restrict itself only to the stage of a case but is
empowered to take into account the overall circumstances
leading to the initiation/registration of the case as well as
the materials collected in the course of investigation.….”
28. Now I shall address the issue as to whether striking down
the set of offences under the 1988 Act from the FIR would render
the remand order passed by the Special Judge appointed in
terms of Section 3 of the aforesaid statute illegal and nonest. For
the purpose of testing this legal issue, which was raised on behalf
of the appellant, it would be necessary to refer to the provisions
37
of Sections 3 and 4 of the 1988 Act which have been reproduced
above.
29. The question of lack of prior approval under the 1988 Act
was raised before the Special Judge at the time of remand but
this argument was rejected on the ground that time for
commission of the alleged offences related to a period prior to
26.07.2018. I have in the earlier part of this judgment discussed
this question and held the point in favour of the appellant.
There are allegations of commission of offences against the
30.
appellant under different provisions of the 1860 Code. I have
been taken through the memorandum for adding the appellant as
accused and also the order of the remand Court. The IPC offences
also relate to the same or similar set of transactions, for which
the aforesaid provisions of the 1988 Act were applied. The
substantive offences alleged against the appellant are Section 12
and Sections 13(1) (c) and (d) read with Section 13(2), which is
the provisions prescribing punishment. I am not satisfied, at this
stage, that the 1988 Act offences are so dominant in the set of
allegations against the appellant that once I consider the
allegations against the appellant de hors the alleged offences
38
under 1988 Act, the allegations of commission of the IPC offences
would automatically collapse. At this stage, in my opinion, the
alleged commission of IPC offences are not mere ancillary to the
1988 Act offences, as has been argued by Mr. Salve and Mr.
Luthra and if commission of offences by the appellant under the
IPC provisions is proved, could form the basis of conviction
independent of the offences under the 1988 Act. Thus, the ratio
of the judgement of this Court in the case of Ebha Arjun Jadeja
and others vs State of Gujarat [(2019) 9 SCC 789], to which I
was a party, would not aid the appellant. In this judgment, it was
held:
“ 18. In the case in hand, the only information recorded
which constitutes an offence is the recovery of the arms.
The police officials must have known that the area is a
notified area under the TADA Act and, therefore, carrying
such arms in a notified area is itself an offence under the
TADA Act. It is true that this may be an offence under the
Arms Act also but the basic material for constituting an
offence both under the Arms Act and the TADA Act is
identical i.e. recovery of prohibited arms in a notified area
under the TADA Act. The evidence to convict the accused
for crimes under the Arms Act and the TADA Act is also
the same. There are no other offences of rape, murder, etc.
in this case. Therefore, as far as the present case is
concerned, noncompliance with Section 20A(1) of the
TADA Act is fatal and we have no other option but to
discharge the appellants insofar as the offence under the
39
TADA Act is concerned. We make it clear that they can be
proceeded against under the provisions of the Arms Act.”
As would be evident from quoted portion of the judgment in
the case of (supra), the Coordinate Bench
Ebha Arjun Jadeja
had permitted proceeding against the appellant therein under the
provisions of the Arms Act though basic material for constituting
the offences was both under the Arms Act and the TADA.
31. In the case of State through Central Bureau of
Investigation, New Delhi vs Jitender Kumar Singh [(2014) 11
SCC 724] certain persons who were not public servants were
being tried with a public servant in relation to offences outside
the purview of the 1988 Act. The public servant however was
implicated in offences under the aforesaid statute. It has been
held and observed in this judgment:
“ 46. We may now examine Criminal Appeal No. 161 of
2011, where the FIR was registered on 271996 and the
chargesheet was filed before the Special Judge on 149
2001 for the offences under Sections 120B, 420 IPC read
with Sections 13(2) and 13(1) of the PC Act. Accused 9 and
10 died even before the chargesheet was sent to the
Special Judge. The charge against the sole public servant
under the PC Act could also not be framed since he died on
1822005. The Special Judge also could not frame any
charge against nonpublic servants. As already indicated,
under subsection (3) of Section 4, the Special Judge could
40
try nonPC offences only when “trying any case” relating
to PC offences. In the instant case, no PC offence has been
committed by any of the nonpublic servants so as to fall
under Section 3(1) of the PC Act. Consequently, there was
no occasion for the Special Judge to try any case relating
to the offences under the PC Act against the appellant. The
trying of any case under the PC Act against a public
servant or a nonpublic servant, as already indicated, is a
sine qua non for exercising powers under subsection (3) of
Section 4 of the PC Act. In the instant case, since no PC
offence has been committed by any of the nonpublic
servants and no charges have been framed against the
public servant, while he was alive, the Special Judge had
no occasion to try any case against any of them under the
PC Act, since no charge has been framed prior to the death
of the public servant. The jurisdictional fact, as already
discussed above, does not exist so far as this appeal is
concerned, so as to exercise jurisdiction by the Special
Judge to deal with nonPC offences.
47. Consequently, we find no error in the view taken by
the Special Judge, CBI, Greater Mumbai in forwarding the
case papers of Special Case No. 88 of 2001 in the Court of
the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate for trying the case in
accordance with law. Consequently, the order passed by
the High Court is set aside. The competent court to which
Special Case No. 88 of 2001 is forwarded, is directed to
dispose of the same within a period of six months.
Criminal Appeal No. 161 of 2011 is allowed accordingly.”
Citing this authority along with the judgement of this court
in the cases of (i) Chiranjilal Goenka vs Jasjit Singh &
Others [(1993) 2 SCC 507], (ii) State of Tamil Nadu vs
Paramasiva Pandian [(2002) 1 SCC 15], (iii) State of Punjab vs
41
Davinder Pal Singh Bhullar [(2011) 14 SCC 427] and (iv)
Kaushik Chaterjee vs State of Haryana [(2020) 10 SCC 92] it
was argued that the defect of jurisdiction strikes at the very
power or authority of the Court and hence the Special Judge
could not have passed the remand order and hence the entire
proceeding against the appellant before the Special Judge ought
to fail. On the same point, certain other authorities were also
referred to but we do not consider it necessary to individually cite
those authorities and deal with them separately.
32. So far as the present case is concerned, the principle of law
laid down in the authorities referred to in the preceding
paragraph would not apply. In Section 4(3) of the 1988 Act it has
been stipulated that when trying any case, a Special Judge may
also try any offence other than an offence specified in Section 3,
with which the accused may be charged with under the 1973
Code, at the same trial. In the case of
Jitender Kumar Singh
(supra), the public servant against whom allegations of
commission of offences under the 1988 Act were brought, had
died before framing of charge and other accused persons were
not public servants. They were not charged with any offence
42
under the 1988 Act. It was in this context the aforesaid
judgment was delivered. It has been submitted before us on
behalf of the State that other coaccused persons have been
implicated in offences under the 1988 Act. A similar line of
reasoning was followed in the case of A. Sreenivasa Reddy vs
[2023 INSC 682]. I have earlier
Rakesh Sharma and Another
observed that the offences against the appellant relate to the
same or similar set of transactions in relation to which the
Special Judge is proceeding with the case initiated by the F.I.R.
dated 09.12.2021 against the other accused persons. In this
context, I shall refer to Section 223 of the 1973 Code, which
stipulates :
“ 223. What persons may be charged jointly .—The
following persons may be charged and tried together,
namely:—
(a) persons accused of the same offence committed in the
course of the same transaction;
(b) persons accused of an offence and persons accused of
abetment of, or attempt to commit, such offence;
(c) persons accused of more than one offence of the same
kind, within the meaning of section 219 committed by
them jointly within the period of twelve months;
(d) persons accused of different offences committed in the
course of the same transaction;
(e) persons accused of an offence which includes theft,
extortion, cheating, or criminal misappropriation, and
43
persons accused of receiving or retaining, or assisting in
the disposal or concealment of, property possession of
which is alleged to have been transferred by any such
offence committed by the firstnamed persons, or of
abetment of or attempting to commit any such last named
offence;
(f) persons accused of offences under sections 411 and
414 of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860) or either of
those sections in respect of stolen property the possession
of which has been transferred by one offence;
(g) persons accused of any offence under Chapter XII of
the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860) relating to counterfeit
coin and persons accused of any other offence under the
said Chapter relating to the same coin, or of abetment of or
attempting to commit any such offence; and the provisions
contained in the former part of this Chapter shall, so far as
may be, apply to all such charges:
Provided that where a number of persons are charged
with separate offences and such persons do not fall within
any of the categories specified in this section, the
[Magistrate or Court of Session] may, if such persons by
an application in writing, so desire, and [if he or it is
satisfied] that such persons would not be prejudicially
affected thereby, and it is expedient so to do, try all such
persons together.”
33. Sub clause (a) of the aforesaid provision of the 1973 Code,
so far as charging and trying of an accused is concerned, could
apply in the present case, as the nonobstante clause with which
Section 4 of the 1988 Act is couched, would not oust the
principles contained in Section 223 of the 1973 Code. There is
no incompatibility in applying the aforesaid principle considering
44
the content of subsection 3 of Section 4 of 1988 Act. In the case
of
Vivek Gupta vs Central Bureau Investigation and Another
[(2003) 8 SCC 628] decided by a Coordinate Bench of this Court,
it has been held:
“ 14. The only narrow question which remains to be
answered is whether any other person who is also
charged of the same offence with which the coaccused is
charged, but which is not an offence specified in Section 3
of the Act, can be tried with the coaccused at the same
trial by the Special Judge. We are of the view that since
subsection (3) of Section 4 of the Act authorizes a Special
Judge to try any offence other than an offence specified in
Section 3 of the Act to which the provisions of Section 220
apply, there is no reason why the provisions of Section
223 of the Code should not apply to such a case. Section
223 in clear terms provides that persons accused of the
same offence committed in the course of the same
transaction, or persons accused of different offences
committed in the course of the same transaction may be
charged and tried together. Applying the provisions of
Sections 3 and 4 of the Act and Sections 220 and 223 of
the Code of Criminal Procedure, it must be held that the
appellant and his coaccused may be tried by the Special
Judge in the same trial.
15. This is because the coaccused of the appellant who
have been also charged of offences specified in Section 3
of the Act must be tried by the Special Judge, who in view
of the provisions of subsection (3) of Section 4 and Section
220 of the Code may also try them of the charge under
Section 120B read with Section 420 IPC. All the three
accused, including the appellant, have been charged of the
offence under Section 120B read with Section 420 IPC. If
the Special Judge has jurisdiction to try the coaccused for
the offence under Section 120B read with Section 420
IPC, the provisions of Section 223 are attracted. Therefore,
it follows that the appellant who is also charged of having
committed the same offence in the course of the same
transaction may also be tried with them. Otherwise it
appears rather incongruous that some of the conspirators
charged of having committed the same offence may be
45
tried by the Special Judge while the remaining
conspirators who are also charged of the same offence will
be tried by another court, because they are not charged of
any offence specified in Section 3 of the Act.”
34. A question has also been raised by the appellant as to
whether the Special Judge could have passed the remand order
in the event the remand was asked for only in respect of alleged
commission of the IPC offences. We are apprised in course of
hearing that the appellant has been enlarged on bail. Hence, this
question need not be addressed by me in this judgment. I,
accordingly, dispose of this appeal with the following directions:
If an enquiry, inquiry or investigation is intended in
(i)
respect of a public servant on the allegation of commission of
offence under the 1988 Act after Section 17A thereof becomes
operational, which is relatable to any recommendation made
or decision taken, at least prima facie, in discharge of his
official duty, previous approval of the authority postulated in
subsection (a) or (b) or (c) of Section 17A of the 1988 Act
shall have to be obtained. In absence of such previous
approval, the action initiated under the 1988 Act shall be
held illegal.
46
(ii) The appellant cannot be proceeded against for offences
under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 as no previous
approval of the appropriate authority has been obtained. This
opinion of this Court, however, shall not foreclose the option
of the concerned authority in seeking approval in terms of
the aforesaid provision. In this case, liberty is preserved for
the State to apply for such approval as contained in the said
provision.
(iii) I decline to interfere with the remand order dated
10.09.2023 as I am of the view that the Special Judge had
the jurisdiction to pass such order even if the offences under
the 1988 Act could not be invoked at that stage. Lack of
approval in terms of Section 17A would not have rendered
the entire order of remand nonest.
(iv) The appellant, however, could be proceeded against
before the Special Judge for allegations of commission of
offences under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 for which also he
has been implicated.
47
35. The appeal stands partly allowed, in the above terms.
36. All connected applications stand disposed of.
……………………….. J.
(ANIRUDDHA BOSE)
NEW DELHI;
th
16 January, 2024
48
REPORTABLE
IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION
CRIMINAL APPEAL NO. OF 2024
(@SPECIAL LEAVE PETITION (Crl.) No. 12289 OF 2023
NARA CHANDRABABU NAIDU …APPELLANT(S)
VERSUS
THE STATE OF ANDHRA PRADESH & ANR. …RESPONDENT(S)
J U D G M E N T
BELA M. TRIVEDI, J.
Leave granted.
1.
2. The entire controversy in the instant Appeal centres around the
interpretation of Section 17A of the Prevention of Corruption
Act,1988 (hereinafter referred to as the “PC Act”), and its
applicability to the facts of the present case. Having had the
benefit of going through the draft opinion of my esteemed Brother
Justice Aniruddha Bose, I deem it appropriate to pen down my
views on the issues involved in the Appeal.
49
FACTUAL MATRIX:
Bereft of unnecessary details, the bare minimum facts required to
3.
decide the present Appeal are that the appellant, who is sought to
be added as the accused No. 37 vide the “Accused Adding
Memo” dated 08.09.2023, in the FIR No. 29/2021 registered at
the P.S. CID P.S., AP, Amarvathi, Mangalalagiri, on 09.12.2021,
was the Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh between 2014-2019.
The said FIR No.29/2021 was initially registered against 26
accused on the basis of the report of the Chairman APSSDC
dated 07.09.2021 and the preliminary enquiry report dated
09.12.2021, for the offences under Sections 166, 167, 418, 420,
465, 468, 471, 409, 201, 109 read with 120-B IPC and Section
13(2) read with Section 13(1)(c) and 13(1)(d) of the PC Act, in
connection with the alleged swindling of funds by the then Special
Secretary and other officers of the Government and by the
Directors, Project team members and other officers of M/s
Siemens and M/s DesignTech and their shell/defunct allies, by
creating bogus invoices and thereby siphoning of funds of the
government.
As per the case of the respondent state, the office of Director
4.
General, Anti-corruption Bureau, A.P, Vijayawada, vide the
memorandum dated 05.06.2018 had directed the DSP, CIU, ACB,
50
Vijayawada to conduct a Regular Inquiry into the letter/complaint
dated 14.05.2018 received by it in respect of the allegations of
corruption made against the officials of the A.P. State Skill
Development Corporation Vijayawada. Based on the report of the
complainant Sri Konduru Ajay Reddy, Chairman, APSSDC; and
the PE Report of Sri N. Surendra, Dy. S.P. EOW-II, CID, A.P.
Mangalagiri, the case being FIR No. 29/2021 was registered on
09.12.2021.
5. It was stated in the “Accused Adding Memo” dated 08.09.2023
filed in CR No. 29/2021 against the appellant (A-37) inter alia
that–
“As per the investigation so far done, prima facie
established that A36 committed the offence through a
prior conspiracy led by A-37 along with A-1 A-2 and
others. A-38 colluded with A-37, on 16.2.2015, as a
minister in the AP cabinet led by A-37, approved the cost
estimation of Siemens project received through A-1,
without getting any assessment, verification, proper DPR
and evaluation. The accused A-38 while holding office
as public servant as a Minister holding departments i.e
SDEI & APSSDC, conspired, colluded with A-37, A-2, A-
6 to A-10 and with criminal intention, released the Govt
51
funds through the accused without verifying the
contribution of Technology partners, allowed other
accused to do fraudulent and illegal acts, committed
misappropriation of Government funds to the tune of
around Rs.279 Crores which were entrusted to them or
under their control by corrupt and illegal methods. A-37
& A-38 through A-1, allowed other accused to divert
APSSDC funds by using fake invoices as genuine one
for purpose of cheating through the shell, defunct
companies without providing materials/services to the
APSSDC-Siemens project by the M/s DesignTech, by
conspiring, colluding and intentionally co-operating in the
commission offence with several acts of by the
concerned Directors of companies and private persons.
A-38 as a Minister holding a concerned department i.e
SDE&I & APSSDC did not review the project and caused
the wrongful loss to the Govt. and wrongful gain to
himself and others.
Therefore, a prima-facie case was established for the
offences U/s 120(B), 418, 420, 465, 468, 471, 409, 201,
109 r/w 34 & 37 IPC & Section 12, 13(2) r/w 13(1) (c)
52
and (d) of Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 against Sri
Nara Chandra Babu Naidu (A- 37), formerly Chief
Minister of Andhra Pradesh and against Sri K.
Atchannaidu, the then Minister for Labour &
Employment, Factories, Youth & Sports, Skill
Development and Entrepreneurship, Govt. of A.P were
added as accused no. 37 and A-38 respectively to this
case.”
6. The appellant was arrested on 09.09.2023 and was produced
before the Special Court for SPE and ACB cases Vijayawada,
A.P. The Special Court on 10.09.2023, passed the order
remanding the appellant (accused no.37) to the judicial custody
till 22.09.2023 under Section 167 Cr.PC by holding inter alia that
the material on record prima facie showed that accused no. 37
had in pursuance of criminal conspiracy, while holding his office
as a public servant, colluded with the other accused and
committed misappropriation of government funds to the tune of
Rs.279 crores by corrupt and illegal methods, causing huge loss
to the Government exchequer. It was also observed that there
was a prima facie material to show the nexus of accused no.37
with the other accused no. 1, 2, 6 and 38 and the other
53
representatives of shell companies, and also sufficient material
eliciting the role of A-37 in the approval of the Skill Development
Project and its activities, attracting the offences under IPC and
PC Act.
The appellant thereafter filed a petition being Criminal Petition no.
7.
6942/2023 in the High Court under Section 482 of Cr.PC seeking
to quash the FIR being no.29/2021 qua him and the
consequential order of remand dated 10.09.2023 passed by the
Special Court. The said Criminal Petition came to be dismissed
by the High Court vide the impugned order dated 22.09.2023
which is under challenge before this Court by way of the present
Appeal.
SUBMISSIONS
8. During the course of lengthy arguments made by a battery of
lawyers led by learned Senior Advocate Mr. Harish N. Salve
appearing for the appellant, broadly following submissions were
made:
(i) The absence of a prior approval as mandated by Section 17A
of the PC Act, vitiated the conduct of enquiry or inquiry or
investigation; the initiation and continuation of investigation in
FIR No. 29 of 2021 dated 09.12.2021, including the various
investigative steps of adding of the appellant as Accused No.
37 and arresting the appellant on 08.09.2023; and the
54
remand of the appellant into the custody pursuant to the
orders passed by the Special Court.
(ii) Section 17A of the PC Act which was introduced with effect
from 26.07.2018, interdicts “…. any enquiry or inquiry or
investigation into an offence alleged to have been committed
by a public servant ……”, without the previous approval of
functionaries specified in Clauses (a), (b) or (c), as the case
may be, the only exception being where a public servant is
apprehended “red handed”.
(iii) Section 17A constitutes a complete legal bar to the very
initiation of any enquiry, inquiry or investigation as was noted
by this Court in Yashwant Sinha & Ors. Vs. Central Bureau
1
of Investigation .
(iv) Section 17A relates to the procedure by which an enquiry,
inquiry or investigation into an offence is to be conducted. It is
a procedural provision, which does not impair any right of the
investigating agencies. In this regard reliance is placed on
2
Anant Gopal Sheorey vs. State of Bombay and on Rattan
3
Lal Alias Ram Rattan Vs. State of Punjab .
(v) No person has a “vested right in the remedies and the
methods of procedure in trials for crime.” A law that draws
upon antecedent facts in its prospective operation is not
1 (2020) 2 SCC 338
2 AIR 1958 SC 915
3 AIR 1965 SC 444
55
retrospective - it is sometimes referred to as being
retroactive.
(vi) Section 17A is retroactive in the sense that it would apply in
future in relation to all enquires, inquires or investigations
being conducted, even though such enquiries, inquires or
investigations may be in respect of offences which may have
allegedly been committed prior to coming into force of Section
17A.
(vii) Section 17A (c) uses the phrase “at the time when the offence
was alleged to have been committed”. Meaning thereby it
suggest that the provision is intended to apply to offences
committed in the past without any limitation.
The question whether a prosecution can be initiated after a
(viii)
substantive offence is deleted is not being raised in the
present case - the appellant’s case will be that in such
matters, if the law does not consider an act to be an offence
anymore, initiating a prosecution after the offence is deleted
violates Article 21. However, that will arise in the Trial and the
issue is not being raised at this stage.
(ix) The conclusion of the High Court that the provision cannot be
applied in the case of any offence committed prior to
26.07.2018 is erroneous, as in the instant case the alleged
offences have taken place till 2019, as for the case of the
prosecution.
56
(x) The SOP issued in relation to Section 17A contemplates a
step-by-step approval requirement as per the notification
issued in this behalf.
The alleged offences in the present case relate to the
(xi)
recommendations made/decisions taken by the appellant in
discharge of his official functions or duties. The focus of the
provision under Section 17A is the person who has committed
the offence and not merely the offence. The private acts of a
person, not in his or her capacity as a public servant are not
protected by this provision, however, if the offences are
based on the allegations in connection with recommendations
or decisions taken in discharge of his official functions or
duties, section 17A would apply. The allegations levelled
against the appellant have a clear nexus to his post of Chief
Minister.
(xii) Section 17A uses the phrase “any offence”. Hence the
requirement of obtaining prior approval under Section 17A is
applicable to all offences, and not just offences under the PC
Act. In any event, even if the prior approval under Section
17A applies only to allegations of offences under the PC Act,
the continuation of investigation under IPC offences cannot
be countenanced as the basic material for constituting both
kinds of offences is the same.
57
(xiii) It is trite law that if the initial action is not in consonance
with law, all subsequent and consequential proceedings
would fall. In the present case, once offences under the PC
Act are effaced from existence, the custody of the appellant
pursuant to the orders passed by the Special Court from time
to time was without any sanction of law, as the Special Court
in that case had no powers to remand persons accused of
offences under the IPC alone. The jurisdictional fact for the
exercise of jurisdiction by the Special Court is the existence
of an offence under the PC Act, and once such jurisdictional
fact ceases to exist, the orders of Special Court are required
to be treated as without any sanction of law and non-est. In
this regard, reliance is placed on State of Punjab vs.
4
Davinder Pal Singh Bhullar & Others .
(xiv) A legal bar to a prosecution is a valid ground for quashing the
proceedings as held by this Court in R.P. Kapur vs. State of
5 6
Punjab and State of Haryana Vs. Bhajan Lal .
9. Learned Senior Advocate Mr. Mukul Rohtagi for the Respondent –
State of Andhra Pradesh made following submissions: -
(i) None of the facets contained in Section 17A would be
applicable to the facts of the present case in as much as
4 (2011) 14 SCC 770
5 AIR 1960 SC 866
6 1992 (Suppl.) SCC 335
58
Section 17A of the PC Act came into force with effect from
26.07.2018, whereas the Regular Enquiry was initiated in
respect of the alleged scam against the appellant and
others by ACB vide the letter dated 05.06.2018, on the
basis of the complaint received from within the DGSTI on
14.05.2018. When the Enquiry began, Section 17A was not
in existence and therefore cannot be made applicable to the
present case.
(ii) On 11.07.2021, the State issued a memo at the request of
the M.D. of APSSDC entrusting a detailed investigation into
the very alleged scam. As long as the enquiry into the
offence. i.e. facts constituting the offence by the ACB and
the CID enquiry are one and the same i.e. about the
siphoning of funds from APSSDC during the period 2015-
2018. Therefore, the date of initiation of Enquiry into the
said offence for the purpose of deciding the applicability of
Section 17A of the PC Act is the date on which the Enquiry
was first initiated into that particular offence, i.e. 05.06.2018
in the instant case.
(iii) The word “Enquiry” is neither defined in the Code of
Criminal Procedure nor in the PC Act. As per the Standard
Operating Procedure issued by the Government of India
however describes “enquiry” as – “enquiry for the purposes
59
of the SOPs means any action taken, for verifying as to
whether the information pertains to commission of an
offence under the Act.” Hence, the date of initiation of
Enquiry is only offence specific and not investigation agency
specific or complaint/ complainant specific, and does not
change by the mere change of investigating agency.
(iv) The Enquiry, which was initiated by the ACB on 05.06.2018
i.e. much prior to the incorporation of Section 17A into the
PC Act, was later entrusted to the AP CID. All the decisions
that formed part of the offences were taken much prior to
the amendment of the PC Act i.e. between 2015 and 2017.
Therefore, no approval as contemplated under Section 17A
would be required.
The offences allegedly committed by the appellant were not
(v)
in discharge of his official functions or duties. Even as per
the appellants case, he was neither the Minister In-Charge
of the concerned Project, nor had he had anything to do
with the concerned corporation (APSSDC).
(vi) In the instant case, the alleged offences have been
registered not only under the PC Act but also under various
offences of Indian Penal Code (IPC) like Sections 409, 166,
167, 418, 420, 465, 468, 471, 201 and 109 read with
Section 120(B) of IPC. Committing criminal breach of
60
trust/misappropriation of funds could never be construed to
fall under the discharge of official duties. In any case the
question whether an act is within one’s official capacity or
not can only be decided in the course of trial.
7
As held in State of Rajasthan vs. Tejmal Choudhary ,
(vii)
Section 17A of PC Act is ‘a Substantive Provision’ and is
therefore applicable only prospectively. Section 17A
envisages a substantive right against non-prosecution of
innocent acts in course of official duty; and not an obstacle/
hurdle in the investigation process of the prosecution,
especially when the sanction is denied. Section 17A creates
new rights, disabilities and obligations and therefore it ought
not to be applied retrospectively as held in G.J. Raja vs.
8
Tejraj Surana .
(viii) Under the 2018 amendment, other than introducing
Section 17A, other sections like Section 13 (1)(c) and 13(1)
(d) i.e. the offences for which the appellant is charged, were
specifically repealed and the offences were redefined.
Section 17A can have no application to the offences as they
existed prior to the 2018 amendment.
(ix) Even if Section 17A of the PC Act were to be applicable to
the present case, the IPC offences would survive and
7 2021 SCC Online SC 3477
8 (2019) 9 SCC 469
61
therefore also the FIR qua the appellant cannot be
quashed. The question of competence of a particular court
to try the offences would arise only after the investigation is
complete and a chargesheet is filed.
When one of the co-accused has been charged under the
(x)
offences under both the PC Act and the IPC, while the other
co-accused have only been charged under the IPC, the
Special Court would have jurisdiction to try both the
accused persons in view of Sections 3, 4 and 5 of the PC
Act. In the instant case 38 persons including multiple public
servants have been arrayed as the accused in Crime No.
29 of 2021 before the AP CID Police Station, and therefore
the Special Court under the PC Act has the jurisdiction to try
all the accused involved in the case.
(xi) In case of two possible constructions of a provision in the
PC Act, it is the duty of the Court to interpret it in the
manner which roots out corruption, as opposed to creating
a road block in the fight against corruption.
(xii) Section 17A of the PC Act is substantially similar to Section
197 of the Cr.P.C., and this Court has interpretively
narrowed down the circumstances in which sanction under
Section 197 of Cr.P.C. needs to be obtained, by holding that
official duties, when discharged for collateral or other
62
benefits, would fall outside the scope of the term “official
duties”.
(xiii) The judgment in case of Yaswant Sinha vs. CBI (supra) ,
relied upon by the appellant was not a binding precedent,
as the portion thereof relied upon was a discordant note in
Hon’ble Justice Joseph’s judgment, which was in variance
with the main judgment.
(xiv) The appellant was added as an accused by filing the
“Accused Adding Memo” on 07.09.2023 and the petition for
quashing the FIR was filed by the appellant merely 5 days
later, on 12.09.2023. There was a clear attempt on the part
of the appellant therefore to scuttle the investigation at the
preliminary stage qua him. When there are adequate
grounds to initiate a criminal investigation, the same cannot
be scuttled more particularly when the other central
agencies are also investigating the same scam alleged
against the appellant.
ANALYSIS:
10. At the outset, it may be noted that the PC Act 1988 sets the
framework for prosecuting individuals involved in corrupt activities
and provides measures to prevent corruption in various spheres
of the society. By emphasizing accountability, transparency and
63
strict legal consequences, the PC Act stands to combat corruption
and to foster and uphold the culture of ethical conduct. The very
objectives of the Act are to prevent corruption, to promote
transparency and accountability in the public administration, to
deter individuals from engaging in corrupt practices by imposing
strict penalties, protects whistleblowers etc. It also provides for
the investigation and prosecution of corruption cases, outlining
the procedure for gathering evidence, conducting trials and
ensuring a fair and expeditious legal process. By the Prevention
of Corruption (Amendment) Act 2018 (hereinafter referred to as
the Amendment Act, 2018), the PC Act 1988 was further
amended, to fill in the gaps in the description and coverage of the
offence of bribery so as to bring it in line with the current
international practices and also to meet more effectively the
country’s obligations under the United Nations Convention
Against Corruption. The Central Government in exercise of the
powers conferred by sub section (2) of Section (1) of the
Amendment Act, 2018, had vide the Notification dated 26.07.2018
th
appointed the 26 July 2018 as the date on which the provisions
of the said Amendment shall come into force. Accordingly, the
said provisions of the Amendment Act, 2018 came into force on
26.07.2018.
64
11. By the Amendment Act 2018, several provisions more particularly
the offences described under Section 7, 8, 9, 10 and 13 in the PC
Act, 1988 were substituted with the new provisions; and several
new provisions like Section 7A, 17A, 18A, 29A etc. were inserted.
Certain provisions pertaining to the punishments of the offences
under the Act were also amended. The newly added Section 17A
being relevant for this Appeal, is reproduced as under: -
“ 17A. Enquiry or Inquiry or investigation of
offences relatable to recommendations made or
decision taken by public servant in discharge of
official functions or duties.—
No police officer shall conduct any enquiry or inquiry or
investigation into any offence alleged to have been
committed by a public servant under this Act, where the
alleged offence is relatable to any recommendation
made or decision taken by such public servant in
discharge of his official functions or duties, without the
previous approval—
(a) in the case of a person who is or was employed, at
the time when the offence was alleged to have been
committed, in connection with the affairs of the Union,
of that Government;
(b) in the case of a person who is or was employed, at
the time when the offence was alleged to have been
committed, in connection with the affairs of a State, of
that Government;
(c) in the case of any other person, of the authority
competent to remove him from his office, at the time
when the offence was alleged to have been committed:
Provided that no such approval shall be necessary for
cases involving arrest of a person on the spot on the
charge of accepting or attempting to accept any undue
advantage for himself or for any other person:
Provided further that the concerned authority shall
convey its decision under this section within a period of
65
three months, which may, for reasons to be recorded in
writing by such authority, be extended by a further
period of one month.”
12. Since the main issue involved in the present Appeal is in respect
of the interpretation of the newly inserted provision Section 17A,
let us regurgitate the basic principles of Statutory interpretation as
propounded by this Court from time to time. It is well known rule
of interpretation of statutes that the courts must look to the object
which the Statute seeks to achieve while interpreting any of the
provisions of the Act. A purposive approach for interpreting the Act
9
is necessary . The purport and object of the Act must be given its
10
full effect . The text and the context of the entire Act must be
looked into while interpreting any of the expressions used in the
Statue. If two views are possible, the view which most accords
the object of the Act, and which makes the Act workable must
necessarily be the controlling view. Even penal Statutes are
governed not only by their literal language, but also by the object
11
sought to be achieved by Parliament . Even if the words
occurring in the Statute are plain and unambiguous, they have to
be interpreted in a manner which would fit in the context of the
9 S. Gopal Reddy Vs. State of A.P.; 1996 (4) SCC 596.
10 Indian Handicrafts Emporium & Ors. Vs. Union of India & Ors.; 2003 (7) SCC
589.
11 Asian Resurfacing of Road Agency Pvt. Ltd. & Anr. Vs. Central Bureau of
Investigation; 2018 (16) SCC 299.
66
other provisions of the Statutes and bring about the real intention
12
of the legislature .
13. Although not specifically mentioned in the Statement of Objects
and Reasons of the Amendment Act, 2018, the object of inserting
Section 17A in the PC Act, which is in pari materia with the
provisions contained in Section 6A of the Delhi Special Police
Establishment Act 1946, is to protect the honest public servants
from the harassment by way of inquiry or investigation in respect
of the decisions taken or acts done in bonafide performance of
their official functions or duties. Whereas Section 19 bars the
courts from taking the cognizance of an offence punishable under
the PC Act, alleged to have been committed by public servants
except with the prior sanction of the concerned authorities
mentioned therein, Section 17A bars the police officer from
conducting any enquiry or inquiry or investigation of offences
relatable to recommendations made or decision taken by public
servant in discharge of official functions or duties, without the
previous approval of the concerned authorities mentioned therein.
From the bare reading, it is discernible that Section 17A has the
following main four facets.
(I) Enquiry or inquiry or investigation of offences under the PC
Act.
12 R.M.D. Chamarbaugwalla & Anr. Vs. Union of India & Anr; AIR 1957 SC 628.
67
(ii) Alleged offences should be relatable to the recommendation
made or decision taken by a public servant.
(iii) Such recommendation made or decision taken by a public
servant should be in discharge of official functions or duties
and
(iv) Previous approval of the authorities mentioned therein.
14. Though the word ‘Enquiry’ as contained in Section 17A has
neither been defined in the PC Act nor in the CrPC, as per the
Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) issued by the Ministry of
Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions (Department of
rd
Personnel& Training) dated 3 September, 2021 for processing
of cases under Section 17A, “Enquiry” means any action taken,
for verifying as to whether the information received by the Police
Officer pertains to the commission of an offence under the Act
(Para 4.2 of the said SOPs). The meaning of the words ‘inquiry’
and ‘investigation’ for the purposes of Section 17A could be
imported from the definitions contained in Section 2(g) & Section
2(h) respectively of Cr.PC, the same being made applicable
subject to certain modifications in view of Section 22 of the PC
Act.
15. As stated earlier, the provisions pertaining to the offences under
the PC Act particularly the offences under Section 7, 8, 9, 10 and
13, have been substantially amended, and the new offence under
68
Section 7(A), has been inserted by the Amendment Act 16/2018.
Such substitution in place of existing provisions and such
insertion of new provisions in the PC Act, have created new set of
rights and liabilities under the Act. Section 17A having been newly
inserted simultaneously with such amendments in the provisions
pertaining to the offences, in my opinion, Section 17A could be
made applicable only to the said amended/ newly inserted
offences under the PC Act. Section 17A having been introduced
as a part of larger legislative scheme, and the other offences
under the PC Act having been redefined or newly inserted by way
of Amendment Act, 2018, Section 17A is required to be treated as
a substantive and not merely a procedural in nature. Such a
substantive amendment could not be made applicable
retrospectively to the offences like Section 13(1)(c) and 13(1)(d),
which have been deleted under the Amendment Act, 2018.
16. The submission of ld. Senior Advocate Mr. Salve that since
Section 17A constitutes a legal bar to the very initiation of enquiry,
inquiry or investigation into the offence alleged to have been
committed by a public servant, without the previous approval of
the functionaries specified in the said provision, such a provision
is procedural in nature, and therefore the mandate of Section 17A
should be made retroactively applicable i.e. even to the pending
69
enquiry, inquiry or investigation, if not made applicable
retrospectively, also can not be accepted. The cardinal principle
of construction is that every statute would have prospective
operation, unless it is expressly or by necessary implication made
to have a retrospective operation. There could not be a
presumption against the retrospectivity. In the instant case, the
Amendment Act, 2018, by which Section 17A was inserted, was
specifically made applicable with effect from 26.07.2018 by the
Central Government vide the Notification of the even date. Hence,
the intention of the Legislature was also to make the amendments
applicable prospectively from a particular date and not
retrospectively or retroactively. In Vineeta Sharma vs. Rakesh
13
Sharma and Others , a three-judge bench has very aptly
distinguished the effect of retrospective statute, retroactive statute
and prospective statute, and has observed as under: -
| “61. | The prospective statute operates from the date of | ||
|---|---|---|---|
| its enactment conferring new rights. The retrospective | |||
| statute operates backwards and takes away or impairs | |||
| vested rights acquired under existing laws. A | |||
| retroactive statute is the one that does not operate | |||
| retrospectively. It operates in futuro. However, its | |||
| operation is based upon the character or status that | |||
| arose earlier. Characteristic or event which happened | |||
| in the past or requisites which had been drawn from | |||
| antecedent events. Under the amended Section 6, | |||
| since the right is given by birth, that is, an antecedent | |||
| event, and the provisions operate concerning claiming | |||
| rights on and from the date of the Amendment Act. |
13 2020 (9) SCC 1
70
| 62. The concept of retrospective and retroactive statute<br>was stated by this Court in Darshan Singh v. Ram Pal<br>Singh [Darshan Singh v. Ram Pal Singh, 1992 Supp (1)<br>SCC 191] , thus: (SCC pp. 211-13, paras 35-37) | ||
|---|---|---|
| “35. Mr Sachar relies on Gokal Chand v. Parvin<br>Kumari [Gokal Chand v. Parvin Kumari, (1952)<br>1 SCC 713 : AIR 1952 SC 231] , Garikapati<br>Veeraya v. N. Subbiah Choudhry [Garikapati<br>Veeraya v. N. Subbiah Choudhry, AIR 1957 SC<br>540] , Jose Da Costa v. Bascora Sadasiva<br>Sinai Narcornim [Jose Da Costa v. Bascora<br>Sadasiva Sinai Narcornim, (1976) 2 SCC<br>917] , Govind Das v. CIT [Govind Das v. CIT,<br>(1976) 1 SCC 906 : 1976 SCC (Tax)<br>133] , Henshall v. Porter [Henshall v. Porter,<br>(1923) 2 KB 193] , United Provinces v. Atiqa<br>Begum [United Provinces v. Atiqa Begum,<br>1940 SCC OnLine FC 11 : AIR 1941 FC 16] , in<br>support of his submission that the Amendment<br>Act was not made retrospective by the<br>legislature either expressly or by necessary<br>implication as the Act itself expressly provided<br>that it shall be deemed to have come into force<br>on 23-1-1973; and therefore there would be no<br>justification to giving it retrospective operation.<br>The vested right to contest which was created<br>on the alienation having taken place and which<br>had been litigated in the court, argues Mr<br>Sachar, could not be taken away. In other<br>words, the vested right to contest in appeal<br>was not affected by the Amendment Act.<br>However, to appreciate this argument we have<br>to analyse and distinguish between the two<br>rights involved, namely, the right to contest and<br>the right to appeal against the lower court's<br>decision. Of these two rights, while the right to<br>contest is a customary right, the right to appeal<br>is always a creature of statute. The change of<br>the forum for appeal by enactment may not<br>affect the right of appeal itself. In the instant<br>case we are concerned with the right to contest<br>and not with the right to appeal as such. There<br>is also no dispute as to the propositions of law<br>regarding vested rights being not taken away<br>by an enactment which is ex facie or by<br>implication not retrospective. But merely<br>because an Act envisages a past act or event<br>in the sweep of its operation, it may not |
71
necessarily be said to be retrospective.
Retrospective, according to Black's Law
Dictionary , means looking backward;
contemplating what is past; having reference to
a statute or things existing before the Act in
question. Retrospective law, according to the
same dictionary, means a law which looks
backwards or contemplates the past; one
which is made to affect acts or facts occurring,
or rights occurring, before it came into force.
Every statute which takes away or impairs
vested rights acquired under existing laws, or
creates a new obligation, imposes a new duty,
or attaches a new disability in respect to
transactions or considerations already past.
Retroactive statute means a statute which
creates a new obligation on transactions or
considerations already past or destroys or
impairs vested rights.”
17. Thus, whereas the prospective statute operates from the date of
its enactments conferring new rights, the retrospective statute
operates backwards and takes away or impairs vested rights
acquired under the existing laws. A retroactive statute is one that
does not operate retrospectively, however depending upon the
status and nature of the events or transactions, the operation of
the statute is extended or given effect from the date prior to its
enactment. So far as the Amendment Act, 2018 is concerned, it
has been made applicable specifically from the date of its
notification i.e. 26.07.2018.
18. In Hitendra Vishnu Thakur and Others vs. State of
14
Maharashtra and Others , it was held by this Court that a
14 (1994) 4 SCC 602
72
statute which not only changes the procedure but also creates
new rights and liabilities shall be construed to be prospective in
operation unless otherwise provided either expressly or by
necessary implication. The ratio of the said judgment in Hitendra
Vishnu Thakur was also followed in G.J. Raja vs. Tejraj
15
Surana .
19. In State of Telangana vs. Managipet @ Mangipet Sarveshwar
16
Reddy , this Court rejected the arguments that the amended
provisions of the PC Act would be applicable to an FIR registered
before the said amendment came into force.
20. In a very recent decision in the case of State of Rajasthan vs.
17
Tejmal Choudhary , this Court set-aside the interim order
passed by the High Court which had quashed the proceedings
only on the ground that the approval was not obtained under
Section 17A of the PC Act, by observing inter alia that the
legislative intent in the enactment of a statute is to be gathered
from the express words used in the statute, unless the plain
words literally construed give rise to absurd results. It has been
further observed therein that this Court has to go by the plain
words of the statute to construe the legislative intent, and that it
could not possibly have been the intent of the legislature that all
15 (2019) 19 SCC 469
16 (2019) 19 SCC 87
17 (2021) SCC OnLine SC 3477
73
pending investigations up to July 2018 should be rendered
infructuous.
21. Apart from the afore-stated legal position, it is also required to be
noted that while passing the Amendment Act 2018 by which the
then existing offences under the PC Act were deleted and
redefined, and by which some new offences were inserted, the
Legislature had simultaneously introduced Section 17A. It was
also stated in the Amendment Act that the same shall come into
force from the date as may be notified by the Central
Government. Therefore, it is required to be presumed that the
intention of the legislature was to make Section 17A applicable
only to the new offences as amended by Amendment Act, 2018
and not to the offences which existed prior to the coming into
force of the Amendment Act 2018. Any other interpretation may
lead to an anomalous situation resulting into absurdity in as much
as there could not be prior approval of the authorities as
contemplated under Section 17A for the offences which have
been deleted by the Amendment Act, 2018. If the submission of
Mr. Salve that Section 17A is retroactive in operation is accepted,
then all the pending proceedings of enquiry, inquiry and
investigation as on 26.7.2018, carried out in respect of the
74
offences which existed prior to the amendment would become
infructuous, frustrating the very object of the Act.
22. As stated earlier, the very object of the PC Act is to combat the
corruption, and the object of Section 17A is to protect the honest
and innocent public servants from undergoing the harassment by
the police for the recommendations made or decisions taken in
discharge of official functions or duties. It cannot be the object of
Section 17A to give benefit to the dishonest and corrupt public
servants. If any enquiry or inquiry or investigation carried out by a
police officer in respect of the offence committed by a public
servant is held to be non est or infructuous by making Section
17A retrospectively or retroactively applicable, the same would
not only frustrate the object of the PC Act but also would be
counter-productive. It is axiomatic that no proceeding could stand
vitiated or could become infructuous on account of the
subsequent amendment in the Act. The well-known and well
accepted rule of interpretation of statute is that the courts should
take into consideration the other provisions of the Act also while
interpreting a particular provision, and should avoid such
interpretation as would lead to an anomalous situation or to
frustration of the object of the Act.
75
23. As held in Subramanian Swamy vs. Manmohan Singh and
18
Another , in case of two possible constructions of a provision in
the PC Act, it would be the duty of the court to accept the one that
seeks to eradicate corruption to the one which seeks to
perpetuate it. In Subramanian Swamy vs. Director, Central
19
Bureau of Investigation and Another , the Constitution Bench
had observed while dealing with Section 19 of the P.C. Act that
the protection against malicious prosecution which is extended in
public interest, cannot become a shield to protect corrupt officials.
24. The judgment in case of Yashwant Sinha and Others vs.
Central Bureau of Investigation (supra) , relied upon by Mr.
Salve also would not be of any help to the appellant. Mr. Salve
has relied upon the observations made by Hon’ble Justice Joseph
in his concurring judgment, which according to Mr. Rohtagi was a
discordant note in variance with the main judgment of two judges.
Be that as it may, what has been observed by Justice Joseph is
that Section 17A constitutes a bar of any enquiry, inquiry or
investigation without the previous approval of the concerned
authority. The said observation nowhere states that Section 17A
shall operate retrospectively or retroactively.
18 (2012) 3 SCC 64
19 (2014) 8 SCC 682
76
25. Even otherwise, absence of approval before conducting any
enquiry or inquiry or investigation into an offence alleged to have
been committed by a public servant, as contemplated in Section
17A could never be the ground for quashing the FIR registered
against the public servant or the proceedings conducted against
him, more particularly when he is also charged for the other
offences under the IPC in respect of the same set of allegations.
As stated earlier, there are other important facets contained in
Section 17A, like whether the alleged offence is relatable to the
recommendation made or decision taken by the public servant or
not, and whether such recommendation or decision was made or
taken in discharge of his official functions or duties or not etc.
Such facets could be examined only when the evidence is led
during the course of trial. The alleged acts which prima facie
constitute the offences, though done under the purported exercise
of official function or duty, could not fall within the purview of
Section 17A. The Protection sought to be granted to a public
servant under Section 17A could not be extended to his acts
which prima facie were not in discharge of his official functions or
duties. Any other interpretation would certainly tantamount to
scuttling the investigation at a very nascent stage. Such could
neither be the intention of the legislature nor could such provision
77
be interpreted in the manner which would be counter productive
or frustrating the very object of the PC Act.
26. In response to the court’s query as to how an FIR could have
been registered in 2021 for the offences under Section 13(1)(c)
and 13(1)(d) which have already been deleted by the Amendment
Act 2018, Mr. Rohtagi submitted that though the old provision of
Section 13 has been substituted by the new provision, and though
Section 13(1)(c) and 13(1)(d) are no more offences under the
amended provision of Section 13, the right of the investigating
agency which had accrued to investigate the crime which took
place prior to the amended provision of Section 13, continues in
view of Clauses ‘c’ and ‘e’ of Section 6 of the General Clauses
Act. According to him, unless a different intention appears in the
Amendment Act 2018, the right of the investigating agency to
investigate the offences under Section 13(1)(c) and 13(1) (d)
could not be said to have been affected by the Amendment Act
2018. I find substance in the said submission of Mr. Rohtagi, in
view of the observations made by this Court in M.C. Gupta vs.
20
Central Bureau of Investigation, Dehradun , which clinches
the issue.
| “14. | Viewed from this angle, clauses ( | c | ) and ( | e | ) of | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Section 6 of the GC Act become relevant for the |
20 (2012) 8 SCC 669
78
| present case. Sub-clause ( | c | ) says that if any Central | ||||||||||||||
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Act repeals any enactment, the repeal shall not affect | ||||||||||||||||
| any right, privilege, obligation or liability acquired, | ||||||||||||||||
| accrued or incurred under any enactment so repealed. | ||||||||||||||||
| In this case, the right which had accrued to the | ||||||||||||||||
| investigating agency to investigate the crime which | ||||||||||||||||
| took place prior to the coming into force of the new Act | ||||||||||||||||
| and which was covered by the 1947 Act remained, | ||||||||||||||||
| unaffected by reason of clause ( | c | ) of Section 6. Clause | ||||||||||||||
| ( | e | ) says that the repeal shall not affect any | ||||||||||||||
| investigation, legal proceeding or remedy in respect of | ||||||||||||||||
| any such right, privilege, obligation, liability, penalty, | ||||||||||||||||
| forfeiture or punishment and Section 6 further states | ||||||||||||||||
| that any such investigation, legal proceeding or remedy | ||||||||||||||||
| may be instituted, continued or enforced and such | ||||||||||||||||
| penalty, forfeiture or punishment may be imposed as if | ||||||||||||||||
| the repealing Act had not been passed. Therefore, the | ||||||||||||||||
| right of CBI to investigate the crime, institute | ||||||||||||||||
| proceedings and prosecute the appellants is saved and | ||||||||||||||||
| not affected by the repeal of the 1947 Act. That is to | ||||||||||||||||
| say, the right to investigate and the corresponding | ||||||||||||||||
| liability incurred are saved. Section 6 of the GC Act | ||||||||||||||||
| qualifies the effect of repeal stated in sub-clauses ( | a | ) to | ||||||||||||||
| ( | e | ) by the words “unless a different intention appears”. | ||||||||||||||
| Different intention must appear in the repealing Act | ||||||||||||||||
| (see | Bansidhar | [(1989) 2 SCC 557] ). If the repealing | ||||||||||||||
| Act discloses a different intention, the repeal shall not | ||||||||||||||||
| result in situations stated in sub-clauses ( | a | ) to ( | e | ). No | ||||||||||||
| different intention is disclosed in the provisions of the | ||||||||||||||||
| new Act to hold that the repeal of the 1947 Act affects | ||||||||||||||||
| the right of the investigating agency to investigate | ||||||||||||||||
| offences which are covered by the 1947 Act or that it | ||||||||||||||||
| prevents the investigating agency from proceeding with | ||||||||||||||||
| the investigation and prosecuting the accused for | ||||||||||||||||
| offences under the 1947 Act. In our opinion, therefore, | ||||||||||||||||
| the repeal of the 1947 Act does not vitiate or invalidate | ||||||||||||||||
| the criminal case instituted against the appellants and | ||||||||||||||||
| the consequent conviction of the appellants for | ||||||||||||||||
| offences under the provisions of the 1947 Act.” |
27. In view of the afore-stated legal position, unless a different
intention is disclosed in the new Act or repealing Act, a repeal of
an Act would not affect the right of the investigating agency to
investigate the offences which were covered under the repealed
79
Act. If the offences were committed when the repealed Act was in
force, then the repeal of such Act would neither affect the right of
the investigating agency to investigate the offence nor would
vitiate or invalidate any proceedings instituted against the
accused. In the instant case also the offences under Section
13(1)(c) and 13(1)(d) were in force when the same were allegedly
committed by the appellant. Hence, the deletion of the said
provisions and the substitution of the new offence under Section
13 by the Amendment Act, 2018 would not affect the right of the
investigating agency to investigate nor would vitiate or invalidate
any proceedings initiated against the appellant.
28. Having considered the different contours of Section 17A, I am of
the opinion that Section 17A would be applicable to the offences
under the PC Act as amended by the Amendment Act, 2018, and
not to the offences existing prior to the said amendment. Even
otherwise, absence of an approval as contemplated in Section
17A for conducting enquiry, inquiry or investigation of the offences
alleged to have been committed by a public servant in purported
exercise of his official functions or duties, would neither vitiate the
proceedings nor would be a ground to quash the proceedings or
the FIR registered against such public servant.
29. In the instant case, the Appellant having been implicated for the
other offences under IPC also, the Special Court was completely
80
within its jurisdiction to pass the remand order in view of the
powers conferred upon it under Section 4 and 5 of the PC Act.
There was no jurisdictional error committed by the Special Court
in passing the impugned order of remand. The impugned
judgment and order passed by the High Court also does not
suffer from any illegality or infirmity which would warrant
interference of this Court.
30. In that view of the matter, the appeal being devoid of merits is
dismissed.
…………………………. J.
[BELA M. TRIVEDI]
NEW DELHI;
th
JANUARY, 16 2024.
81
IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION
CRIMINAL APPEAL NO._______________OF 2024
(Arising out of Petition for Special Leave to Appeal (Criminal)
No.12289 of 2023)
NARA CHANDRABABU NAIDU … APPELLANT(S)
VERSUS
THE STATE OF ANDHRA PRADESH
& ANR. … RESPONDENT(S)
ORDER
As we have expressed opinions taking different views
on the interpretation of Section 17A of the Prevention of
Corruption Act, 1988 as also its applicability to the
appellant in the subject-case, we refer the matter to the
Hon’ble the Chief Justice of India. The Registry to place
the papers before the Hon’ble the Chief Justice of India
so that appropriate decision can be taken for the
constitution of a Larger Bench in this case for
adjudication on the point on which contrary opinions have
been expressed by us.
……………………….. J.
(ANIRUDDHA BOSE)
……………………….. J.
(BELA M. TRIVEDI)
NEW DELHI;
16TH JANUARY, 2024.
82