Reportable
IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CIVIL ORIGINAL JURISDICTION
Writ Petition (C) No. 493 of 2022
Subhash Desai ...Petitioner
Versus
Principal Secretary, Governor of Maharashtra & Ors. …Respondents
With
Writ Petition (C) No. 469 of 2022
With
Writ Petition (C) No. 468 of 2022
With
Writ Petition (C) No. 470 of 2022
With
Writ Petition (C) No. 479 of 2022
And With
Writ Petition (C) No. 538 of 2022
Signature Not Verified
Digitally signed by
CHETAN KUMAR
Date: 2023.05.11
12:43:16 IST
Reason:
1
J U D G M E N T
Dr. Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud, CJI
Table of Contents
A. Factual Background ......................................................................................... 4
i. A change in the government of the State of Maharashtra .................................... 4
ii. The election of the Speaker .................................................................................. 12
iii. The proceedings before the Election Commission of India ............................... 15
B. Overview of the reliefs sought in the present proceedings ........................ 16
C. The reference .................................................................................................. 20
D. Submissions ................................................................................................... 22
i. Submissions on whether Nabam Rebia’s case ought to be referred to a larger
Bench ............................................................................................................................. 22
ii. Submissions on the merits of the case ............................................................... 28
E. Analysis ........................................................................................................... 48
i. Reference of Nabam Rebia’s case to a larger Bench ......................................... 48
ii. The power of this Court to decide disqualification petitions at the first instance
62
iii. Validity of the proceedings of the House between the prohibitory conduct and
the decision in the disqualification petitions .............................................................. 69
iv. The power to appoint the Whip and the Leader of the Legislature Party .......... 75
a. The bar under Article 212: justiciability of legislative proceedings ..................................... 76
2
b. The power to appoint the Whip and the Leader of the legislature party ............................. 80
I. ‘Political party’ and ‘legislature party’ are distinguishable concepts. .............................. 80
II. Literal and purposive interpretation of the provisions of the Tenth Schedule, the 1986
Rules, and the Act of 1956 ...................................................................................................... 85
v. Deciding who the “real” Shiv Sena is .................................................................. 98
a. The purpose of the Tenth Schedule and the effect of disqualification ................................ 98
b. The purpose of the Symbols Order and the effect of the decision under Paragraph 15 .. 100
c. The test(s) applicable to disputes under Paragraph 15 of the Symbols Order ................. 104
d. The potential for complications in the present case.......................................................... 107
e. Harmonising the Tenth Schedule with Paragraph 15 of the Symbols Order .................... 109
vi. The impact of the deletion of Paragraph 3 of the Tenth Schedule .................. 114
a. The defence of a ‘split’ is no longer available to members who face disqualification
proceedings ................................................................................................................................ 118
b. The decision of the Speaker under Paragraph 2 of the Tenth Schedule ......................... 119
vii. The exercise of discretion by the Governor in directing Mr. Thackeray to
face a floor test ........................................................................................................... 121
a. The power of the Governor to call for a floor test ............................................................. 123
b. The Governor’s exercise of the power to call for a floor test ............................................ 127
viii. The exercise of discretion by the Governor in inviting Mr. Shinde to be the
Chief Minister .............................................................................................................. 133
a. Mr. Shinde’s appointment is not barred by Article 164(1B) of the Constitution ................ 134
b. The Governor did not exceed the scope of his authority .................................................. 137
F. Conclusions .................................................................................................. 139
3
PART A
1. The Writ Petitions instituted before this Court under Article 32 of the
Constitution arise from the political imbroglio in the State Legislature of
Maharashtra. A coalition consisting of the Shiv Sena, the Nationalist Congress
1 2
Party, the Indian National Congress, and certain independent Members of the
3
Legislative Assembly formed the government in the State of Maharashtra with Mr.
Uddhav Thackeray of the Shiv Sena as the Chief Minister. Certain events
transpired in mid-2022 which led to the formation of a new government by a
coalition consisting of a faction of the Shiv Sena (which claimed to the “real” Shiv
4
Sena), the Bharatiya Janata Party, and certain independent MLAs. Mr. Eknath
Shinde of the Shiv Sena helmed the second government as its Chief Minister. The
change in the composition of the government in the State of Maharashtra was
precipitated by the emergence of two factions within the Shiv Sena. Various issues
arising from these events fall to be determined by this Court in these proceedings.
A detailed narration of the factual background follows.
A. Factual Background
i. A change in the government of the State of Maharashtra
1
“NCP”
2
“INC”
3
“MLA”
4
“BJP”
4
PART A
2. The Shiv Sena was founded in 1966 in Maharashtra. The Election
5
Commission of India recognizes the Shiv Sena as a state political party. The
organizational election of the party for the term extending from January 2018 to
January 2023 was held on 23 January 2018 and Mr. Uddhav Thackeray was
elected as the Party President or the ‘Paksh Pramukh.’
th
3. The elections to the 14 Legislative Assembly of Maharashtra were held in
October 2019. Of a total of two hundred and eighty-eight seats, the BJP returned
candidates in one hundred and six seats, the Shiv Sena in fifty-six seats, the NCP
in fifty-three seats, and the INC in forty-four seats. Independent candidates were
returned in thirteen constituencies and the remaining constituencies returned
candidates from various other parties. In November 2019, the Shiv Sena, the NCP,
and the INC formed a post-poll alliance which came to be known as the Maha Vikas
6
Aghadi. The MVA successfully staked a claim to form the government in
Maharashtra and Mr. Uddhav Thackeray was sworn in as the Chief Minister. On
25 November 2019, pursuant to a meeting chaired by Mr. Uddhav Thackeray, all
fifty-six MLAs of the Shiv Sena issued a communication to the Speaker of the
Maharashtra Legislative Assembly intimating him that Mr. Eknath Shinde was
7
appointed as the Group Leader of the Shiv Sena Legislature Party and that Mr.
Sunil Prabhu was appointed as the Chief Whip of the SSLP.
5
“ECI”
6
“MVA”
7
“SSLP”
5
PART A
4. The MVA continued to govern the State of Maharashtra until June 2022,
when news reports revealed that some MLAs who belonged to the Shiv Sena were
meeting with leaders of the BJP. At this time, the office of the Speaker lay vacant,
and the functions of the Speaker were being discharged by the Deputy Speaker,
Mr. Narhari Zirwal.
5. The events which followed indicate that the SSLP fractured into two factions:
one led by the then Chief Minister, Mr. Uddhav Thackeray, and the other led by the
Group Leader of the SSLP, Mr. Eknath Shinde. Each faction claimed to represent
the “real” political party and passed various resolutions pertaining to the affairs of
the SSLP. For ease of reference, we refer to the faction led by Mr. Thackeray as
the petitioners and the faction led by Mr. Shinde as the respondents.
6. On 21 June 2022, the Chief Whip of the Shiv Sena, Mr. Sunil Prabhu, issued
a whip directing all MLAs of the Shiv Sena to attend a meeting at Mr. Thackeray’s
residence on the same day. Many MLAs, including the Group Leader Mr. Eknath
Shinde, did not attend this meeting. The MLAs who were in attendance passed a
resolution removing Mr. Eknath Shinde from the position of the Group Leader of
the SSLP and appointing one Mr. Ajay Choudhari in his place. The decisions taken
by way of this resolution were communicated to the Deputy Speaker on the same
day, i.e., 21 June 2022. Also on the same day, the Deputy Speaker communicated
his acceptance of the change in the Group Leader of the SSLP.
7. Concurrently, thirty-four MLAs of the Shiv Sena (i.e., the respondents)
organized a separate meeting and passed a resolution reaffirming that Mr. Eknath
Shinde “ continues to be ” the Group Leader of the SSLP. It was further resolved
6
PART A
that the appointment of Mr. Sunil Prabhu as the Chief Whip was cancelled, and
that Mr. Bharat Gogawale was appointed in his place. The resolution is dated 21
June 2022 and was purportedly passed in Guwahati, Assam. The petitioners claim
that it was received by the Deputy Speaker only on 22 June 2022 while the
respondents claim that it was sent on 21 June 2022.
8. Mr. Eknath Shinde wrote to the Deputy Speaker communicating the details
of the resolution passed by the thirty-four MLAs of the Shiv Sena, by which his
appointment as the Group Leader of the SSLP was reaffirmed. He requested the
Deputy Speaker not to recognize Mr. Ajay Choudhari as the Group Leader in view
of the resolution reaffirming his appointment. Once again, the petitioners claim that
the Deputy Speaker received this communication on 22 June 2022 and the
respondents aver that it was sent on 21 June 2022.
9. The same thirty-four MLAs also issued a notice to Mr. Narhari Zirwal, the
Deputy Speaker, stating that he no longer enjoyed their support and calling upon
him to move a motion for his removal from office. The notice was issued under
Article 179(c) of the Constitution read with Rule 11 of the Maharashtra Legislative
Assembly Rules 2019. The petitioners claim that this notice, too, was received by
the Deputy Speaker on 22 June 2022. The respondents maintain that it was sent
on the preceding day, 21 June 2022.
10. On 22 June 2022, Mr. Sunil Prabhu issued individual communications to all
MLAs of the Shiv Sena, calling upon them to attend a meeting of the SSLP
scheduled to take place that evening at Mr. Thackeray’s residence. The
communication stated as follows:
7
PART A
| “…failure to participate in the meeting without providing | |
|---|
| valid and adequate reasons in writing, communicated in | |
| advance to the undersigned, will result in consequential | |
| action against you under the relevant provisions of the | |
| Constitution of India.” | |
The meeting on 22 June 2022, too, was not attended by many MLAs of the Shiv
Sena including Mr. Eknath Shinde.
11. Mr. Eknath Shinde addressed a letter to Mr. Sunil Prabhu on 22 June 2022
accusing him of misusing the letterhead of the SSLP. The letter stated that:
a. A meeting of forty-five MLAs of the Shiv Sena was held under the
chairmanship of Mr. Eknath Shinde;
b. Mr. Sunil Prabhu was removed from the position of Chief Whip of the
Shiv Sena;
c. Mr. Bharat Gogawale was appointed as the Chief Whip of the Shiv Sena
in place of Mr. Sunil Prabhu; and
d. Mr. Sunil Prabhu did not have the authority to sign the communication
dated 22 June 2022 (issued by him to all MLAs of the Shiv Sena). It was
therefore not binding upon Mr. Eknath Shinde to attend the meeting
scheduled to take place at Mr. Thackeray’s residence.
12. On 23 June 2022, Mr. Sunil Prabhu filed petitions under Paragraph 2(1)(a)
of the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution for the disqualification of Mr. Eknath
Shinde and fifteen other MLAs of the Shiv Sena. The Deputy Speaker issued
notices in these disqualification petitions on 25 June 2022. The relevant portion of
the order issuing notice is reproduced below:
8
PART A
| “You are instructed to submit written submissions as per | |
|---|
| the procedure laid in the Members of Maharashtra | |
| Legislative Assembly (Disqualification on Ground of | |
| Defection) Rules 1986 by Monday, 27th June 2022 by | |
| 5.30 pm to Deputy Speaker.” | |
13. On 27 June 2022, the jurisdiction of this Court under Article 32 was invoked
by the respondents challenging the notice issued in the disqualification petitions.
This Court passed an interim order on the same day in the following terms,
extending the time to respond to the disqualification petitions from 27 June 2022
to 12 July 2022:
| “Meanwhile as an interim measure, the time granted by | |
|---|
| the Deputy Speaker of the Assembly to the petitioners | |
| or other similarly placed Members of the Legislative | |
| Assembly to submit their written submissions up to | |
| today by 5.30P.M., is extended till 12.07.2022.” | |
14. Separately, Mr. Sunil Prabhu filed petitions for the disqualification of two
independent MLAs as well as one MLA of the Prahar Janshakti Party on 25 June
2022 and against twenty-two MLAs of the Shiv Sena on 27 June 2022.
15. On 28 June 2022, the then Leader of Opposition Mr. Devendra Fadnavis
addressed a letter to the Governor inter alia conveying that he believed that the
then Chief Minister, Mr. Thackeray, did not enjoy a majority on the floor of the
House. He called upon the Governor to direct Mr. Thackeray to prove his majority
on the floor of the House. Seven MLAs who were elected as independent
candidates penned a similar letter to the Governor on the same day. They too
requested the Governor to direct Mr. Thackeray to prove his majority on the floor
of the House.
9
PART A
16. The Governor issued a letter to the then Chief Minister, Mr. Uddhav
Thackeray on 28 June 2022, calling upon him to face a floor test on 30 June 2022.
The communication specified the manner in which the trust vote was to be
conducted in the following terms:
| “(i) A Special session of the Maharashtra Vidhan Sabha | |
|---|
| be summoned on 30.06.2022 at 11:00 AM with the only | |
| agenda of a trust vote against the Government. | |
| (ii) The business of the house shall be conducted in | |
|---|
| such a way that the speeches, if any, are concluded in | |
| a short period of time and the trust vote is concluded on | |
| 30.06.2022 by 5:00 PM. | |
| (iii) The voting will be conducted by asking Members to | |
|---|
| rise in their seats for the purpose of counting votes as | |
| contemplated under the Maharashtra Legislative | |
| Assembly Rules. | |
| (iv) The Proceedings have to be live telecast, and | |
|---|
| appropriate arrangements are to be made to ensure the | |
| same. | |
| (v) The entire proceedings of the trust vote shall be | |
|---|
| videographed by the Vidhan Sabha Secretariat through | |
| an independent agency and shall be submitted to me. | |
| (vi) The aforesaid proceedings shall be started on | |
|---|
| 30.06.2022 at 11:00 AM and no case shall be same be | |
| adjourned, delayed or suspended. | |
| (vii) Adequate arrangements shall be made for the | |
|---|
| security of the Members both outside and inside the | |
| Vidhan Bhavan to ensure smooth conducting of the | |
| floor test.” | |
The Governor also issued a communication dated 28 June 2022 to the Secretary,
Maharashtra Legislative Assembly calling upon him to make necessary
arrangements for the session of the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly at which
the floor test was to be conducted.
10
PART A
17. On the very next day (29 June 2022), Mr. Sunil Prabhu instituted a Writ
Petition before this Court for setting aside the communications dated 28 June 2022
issued by the Governor to the Chief Minister as also to the Secretary, Maharashtra
Legislative Assembly, on the ground that disqualification petitions against forty-two
MLAs of the Shiv Sena were pending consideration before the Deputy Speaker.
This Court declined to stay the trust vote. The relevant portion of the order dated
29 June 2022 passed by this Court is reproduced below:
“8 …
| (i) We do not find any ground to stay convening of the | |
|---|
| Special Session of the Maharashtra Vidhan Sabha on | |
| 3062022, i.e, tomorrow at 11.00 a.m. with the only | |
| agenda of a trust vote; | |
| (ii) The proceedings of the trust vote to be convened on | |
|---|
| 3062022 shall be subject to the final outcome of the | |
| instant Writ Petition as well the Writ Petitions referred to | |
| above; | |
| (iii) the Special Session of the Maharashtra Vidha | |
|---|
| Sabha shall be conducted in accordance with the | |
| directions as contained in the communication dated | |
| 2862022 of the Governor of Maharashtra.” | |
Mr. Thackeray, resigned on the same day.
18. On 30 June 2022, Mr. Devendra Fadnavis wrote a letter to the Governor
stating that one hundred and six MLAs from BJP and eight independent and other
MLAs were extending support to Mr. Eknath Shinde to form the government. On
the same day, Mr. Shinde submitted a letter to the Governor along with a resolution
by thirty-nine MLAs from the SSLP unanimously resolving to authorise Mr. Shinde
11
PART A
to initiate proceedings to form the government in the State. In said letter, Mr. Shinde
claimed the support of one hundred and six BJP MLAs and seventeen independent
and other MLAs. Moreover, Mr. Shinde claimed that he had the support of the
majority and requested the Governor to invite him to take oath as the Chief Minister.
On 30 June 2022, sixteen MLAs who were independent candidates or belonged to
parties other than the Shiv Sena, BJP, INC, and NCP wrote to the Governor
expressing their support for a government led by Mr. Shinde. On the same day, the
Governor issued a communication to Mr. Shinde inviting him to take oath as the
Chief Minister and requesting him to prove that he enjoyed the confidence of the
Assembly within a period of seven days of taking over as the Chief Minister.
19. The Governor administered the oath of office to Mr. Shinde and Mr.
Fadnavis on 30 June 2022 and they assumed the roles of Chief Minister and
Deputy Chief Minister of Maharashtra, respectively. On the same day, Mr.
Thackeray issued a letter to Mr. Shinde stating that he had been removed from the
post of ‘Shiv Sena Leader’ in the organisational structure of the party. Mr.
Thackeray similarly removed other MLAs of the Shiv Sena from their roles as
office-bearers of the party.
ii. The election of the Speaker
20. Later that week, the Principal Secretary of the Maharashtra Legislative
Assembly circulated the working order for the session which was scheduled to take
place on 3 July 2022. The fifth item on the agenda reflected that the election for
the post of the Speaker was to be conducted. An MLA belonging to the BJP
nominated Mr. Rahul Narwekar of the BJP for this position while an MLA of the
12
PART A
Shiv Sena (ostensibly from Mr. Thackeray’s faction) nominated Mr. Rajan Salvi of
the Shiv Sena. Further, a motion of confidence for the Council of Ministers headed
by the Chief Minister, Mr. Shinde, was scheduled to be moved in a session of the
Assembly on 4 July 2022.
21. In view of the agenda for the sessions of the Assembly, Mr. Sunil Prabhu
issued two whips on 2 July 2022. The first whip directed all MLAs of the Shiv Sena
to attend the session of the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly on 4 July 2022 and
vote against the motion of confidence for the Council of Ministers headed by the
Chief Minister, Mr. Shinde. The second whip directed all MLAs of the Shiv Sena to
attend the session of the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly on 3 July 2022 and
vote for the Shiv Sena’s candidate, Mr. Rajan Salvi, in the election for the post of
the Speaker.
22. The election for the post of the Speaker was conducted as scheduled and
Mr. Rahul Narwekar of the BJP emerged victorious, with a total of one hundred
and sixty-four votes cast in his favour. Thirty-nine MLAs of the Shiv Sena (led by
Mr. Shinde) voted in favour of Mr. Rahul Narwekar’s candidature. Consequently,
Mr. Sunil Prabhu instituted fresh disqualification proceedings against these MLAs
under Paragraph 2(1)(b) of the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution for violating the
whip issued by him.
23. After assuming office as the Speaker of the House, Mr. Rahul Narwekar
cancelled the approval granted to Mr. Ajay Choudhari as the Leader of the SSLP
and approved the appointment of Mr. Eknath Shinde in his place. Further, he
recognized Mr. Bharat Gogawale as the Chief Whip of the Shiv Sena in place of
13
PART A
Mr. Sunil Prabhu. These decisions of the Speaker were recorded in a
communication dated 3 July 2022 issued by the Deputy Secretary of the
Maharashtra Legislative Assembly, the relevant portion of which is extracted
below:
| “…after deliberation … Hon’ble Speaker, Maharashtra | |
|---|
| Legislative Assembly has cancelled the approval | |
| granted to Shri Ajay Choudhari as leader, Shiv Sena | |
| Legislative Party and approves & recognizes the | |
| nomination of Shri Eknath Shinde as Leader, Shiv Sena | |
| Legislative Party as per the letter dated 31st October | |
| 2019. Similarly, the proposal to nominate Shri Sunil | |
| Prabhu as Chief Whip of Shiv Sena Legislative Party is | |
| to be cancelled and to recognize the nomination of Shri | |
| Bharat Gogawale as Chief Whip of ShivSena | |
| Legislative Party has been approved and recorded in | |
| the registry.” | |
Mr. Bharat Gogawale issued a whip on 3 July 2022 directing all MLAs of the Shiv
Sena to attend the session of the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly on 4 July 2022
and vote in favour of the motion of confidence for the Council of Ministers headed
by the Chief Minister, Mr. Shinde.
24. To summarize – in June 2022, Mr. Thackeray was the Chief Minister, Mr.
Shinde was the Leader of the SSLP, and Mr. Sunil Prabhu was the Chief Whip of
the Shiv Sena. However, by 3 July 2022, Mr. Thackeray had resigned from the
position of Chief Minister and Mr. Shinde was the Chief Minister, Mr. Ajay
Choudhari was recognized as the Leader of the SSLP and subsequently replaced
by Mr. Shinde, and Mr. Bharat Gogawale was recognized as the Chief Whip in
place of Mr. Sunil Prabhu. Each faction continued to claim that the appointments
made by them and communicated to the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker, as the
case may be, were legal and valid, and that the appointments made by the opposite
14
PART A
faction were illegal and invalid. Time and again, the question of who the “real” Shiv
Sena was, arose.
25. Soon after the election of the Speaker, some MLAs of the Shiv Sena who
belonged to Mr. Thackeray’s faction issued (on two different occasions) notices of
intention to move a resolution for the removal of Mr. Rahul Narwekar from the office
of the Speaker under Article 179(c) of the Constitution read with Rule 11 of the
Maharashtra Legislative Assembly Rules 2019.
26. On 4 July 2022, a motion of confidence was moved on the floor of the
Maharashtra Legislative Assembly. The House expressed its confidence in Mr.
Shinde. As a consequence, Mr. Sunil Prabhu filed fresh petitions for the
disqualification of thirty-nine MLAs (led by Mr. Shinde) under Paragraph 2(1)(b) of
the Tenth Schedule for violating the whip issued by him on 2 July 2022. Similarly,
Mr. Bharat Gogawale filed petitions for the disqualification of fourteen MLAs of the
Shiv Sena (led by Mr. Thackeray) under Paragraphs 2(1)(a) and 2(1)(b) of the
Tenth Schedule for violating the whip issued by him on 3 July 2022. On 8 July
2022, Mr. Rahul Narwekar issued notices in the latter set of disqualification
petitions.
iii. The proceedings before the Election Commission of India
15
PART B
27. On 19 July 2022, Mr. Eknath Shinde filed a petition before the ECI under
8
Paragraph 15 of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order 1968
for the allotment of the symbol of the Shiv Sena, i.e., the ‘bow and arrow,’ to the
faction led by him. The ECI directed the groups led by Mr. Shinde and Mr.
Thackeray to furnish their written submissions and any documents in favour of their
claims.
28. Thereafter, the petitioners filed two interlocutory applications for the
impleadment of the ECI in WP(C) 493 of 2022 and for a stay on the proceedings
before the ECI. The first of these (for impleadment of the ECI) was allowed by this
Court by its order dated 27 September 2022. The interlocutory application seeking
a stay was dismissed by the same order.
29. On 17 October 2022, the ECI passed an order granting the ‘bow and arrow’
symbol to the group led by Mr. Shinde.
B. Overview of the reliefs sought in the present proceedings
30. These proceedings arise from six Writ Petitions filed by members of the
groups led by both Mr. Thackeray as well as Mr. Shinde. The reliefs sought in each
of these petitions are captured in the table below, for ease of reference:
| Case details | | | Relief sought | |
|---|
| WP(C) 493 of<br>2022 | | | a. Quash the decision of the Governor dated 30<br>June 2022 inviting Mr. Eknath Shinde to take | | |
8
“Symbols Order”
16
PART B
| oath as the Chief Minister of Maharashtra, and<br>form the Government; and/or<br>b. Quash the proceedings of the Maharashtra<br>Legislative Assembly held on 3 July 2022, and<br>consequently the election of the Speaker;<br>and/or<br>c. Quash the proceedings of the Maharashtra<br>Legislative Assembly held on 4 July 2022, and<br>consequently the Confidence Motion in favour of<br>Mr. Eknath Shinde; and/or<br>d. Call for the records of all pending<br>disqualification petitions filed against Eknath<br>Shinde and the other MLAs led by him pending<br>before the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker<br>under Paragraph 2(1)(a) and Paragraph 2(1)(b)<br>of the Tenth Schedule and transfer these<br>petitions to this Court under Article 142 of the<br>Constitution and decide them. |
|---|
| WP(C) 469 of<br>2022 | a. Direct the Deputy Speaker to not take any action<br>in the petition for disqualification of Mr. Eknath<br>Shinde under Paragraph 2(1)(a) of the Tenth |
17
PART B
| Schedule until the resolution for the removal of<br>the Deputy Speaker is decided;<br>b. In the interim, stay the effect and operation of<br>the notice dated 25 June 2022 issued by the<br>Deputy Speaker to Eknath Shinde;<br>c. Quash the letter / order dated 21 June 2022<br>passed by the Deputy Speaker accepting the<br>appointment of Mr. Ajay Choudhari as the<br>Leader of Shiv Sena Legislature Party;<br>d. In the interim, stay the effect and operation of<br>the letter/order dated 21 June 2022 passed by<br>the Deputy Speaker recognising the<br>appointment of Mr. Ajay Choudhari as the<br>Leader of the Shiv Sena Legislature Party;<br>e. Direct the Union of India and the Director<br>General of Police, Maharashtra to provide<br>security to the family of Mr. Eknath Shinde and<br>all his supporters within the Shiv Sena<br>Legislature Party. |
|---|
| WP(C) 468 of<br>2022 | a. Direct the Deputy Speaker to not take any action<br>in the petitions for disqualification of the<br>petitioners in this petition under Paragraph |
18
PART B
| 2(1)(a) of the Tenth Schedule until the resolution<br>for the removal of the Deputy Speaker is<br>decided;<br>b. In the interim, to stay the effect and operation of<br>the notice dated 25 June 2022 issued to the<br>Petitioners by the Deputy Speaker;<br>c. Direct the DGP, Maharashtra to ensure that<br>there shall be no hindrance to any of the MLAs<br>taking recourse to their rights and liberties as<br>citizens and arrange for security to be provided<br>to all the MLAs and their families. |
|---|
| WP(C) 479 of<br>2022 | a. Quash the communication dated 3 July 2022<br>issued by the Speaker of the Maharashtra<br>Legislative Assembly. |
| WP(C) 470 of<br>2022 | a. Set aside the communication dated 28 June<br>2022 sent by the Governor to Mr. Uddhav<br>Thackeray as well as to the Secretary,<br>Maharashtra Legislative Assembly. |
19
PART C
| WP(C) 538 of<br>2022 | a. Quash the summons dated 8 July 2022 issued<br>by the Speaker to the petitioners in this petition,<br>under the Tenth Schedule;<br>b. Quash the disqualification proceedings initiated<br>by Mr. Bharat Gogawale against the petitioners<br>in this petition. |
|---|
C. The reference
31. The Writ Petitions described in the previous segment of this judgment were
listed before a three-Judge Bench of this Court on 4 August 2022, when Mr. Kapil
Sibal and Dr. Abhishek Manu Singhvi, learned senior counsel appearing on behalf
of the petitioners and Mr. Harish Salve, learned senior counsel appearing on behalf
of the respondents advanced arguments on whether the issues raised in these
petitions required reference to a five-judge Bench of this Court.
32. By its order dated 23 August 2022, this Court accepted the submission that
this batch of Writ Petitions ought to be referred to a five-Judge Bench under Article
145(3) of the Constitution as substantial questions of law remained to be decided.
It accordingly referred the matter. The following questions were framed for
consideration:
a. Whether a notice for removal of a Speaker restricts them from continuing
with disqualification proceedings under Tenth Schedule of the
20
PART C
Constitution, as held by this Court in Nabam Rebia & Bamang Felix v.
9
;
Deputy Speaker, Arunachal Pradesh Legislative Assembly
b. Whether a petition under Article 226 or Article 32 lies, inviting a decision
on a disqualification petition by the High Courts or the Supreme Court,
as the case may be;
c. Can a court hold that a member is “deemed” to be disqualified, by virtue
of his/her actions, absent a decision by the Speaker;
d. What is the status of proceedings in the House during the pendency of
disqualification petitions against the members;
e. If the decision of a Speaker that a member has incurred disqualification
under the Tenth Schedule relates back to the date of the action
complained of, then what is the status of proceedings that took place
during the pendency of a disqualification petition;
f. What is the impact of the removal of Paragraph 3 of the Tenth Schedule;
g. What is the scope of the power of the Speaker to determine the Whip
and the leader of the house legislature party? What is the interplay of
the same with respect to the provisions of the Tenth Schedule;
h. Are intraparty decisions amenable to judicial review? What is the scope
of the same;
9
(2016) 8 SCC 1
21
PART D
i. What is the extent of discretion and power of the Governor to invite a
person to form the Government, and whether the same is amenable to
judicial review; and
j. What is the scope of the powers of the Election Commission of India with
respect to the determination of a split within a party.
D. Submissions
i. Submissions on whether Nabam Rebia’s case ought to be referred to a
larger Bench
33. Learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of the parties addressed this
Court on the first of the issues specified in the preceding paragraph, that is, on
whether a notice of intention to move a resolution for the removal of a Speaker
restricts them from continuing with disqualification proceedings under the Tenth
Schedule of the Constitution, as held by this Court in (supra).
Nabam Rebia
34. Mr. Kapil Sibal, Dr. Abhishek Manu Singhvi and Mr. Devadatt Kamat,
learned senior counsel advanced submissions on behalf of the petitioners. Their
submissions were opposed by Mr. Harish Salve, Mr. Neeraj Kishan Kaul, Mr.
Mahesh Jethmalani, Mr. Maninder Singh and Mr. Siddharth Bhatnagar, learned
senior counsel appearing for the respondents. Mr. Tushar Mehta, learned Solicitor
General, appeared on behalf of the Governor of the State of Maharashtra.
35. In Nabam Rebia (supra), a Constitution Bench of this Court inter alia ruled
that it is impermissible for a Speaker to adjudicate upon disqualification petitions
under the Tenth Schedule after a notice of intention to move a resolution for their
22
PART D
removal from the office of the Speaker is issued. The petitioners have urged that
this aspect of the decision in (supra) ought to be referred to a Bench
Nabam Rebia
of seven Judges of this Court because:
10
a. In Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu , a Constitution Bench of this Court held
that the Court cannot interfere in disqualification proceedings under
Paragraph 6 of the Tenth Schedule at an interlocutory stage save in
exceptional circumstances. In terms of the decision in Nabam Rebia
(supra), the proceedings under the Tenth Schedule would be interdicted
upon the issuance of a notice of intention to move a resolution for the
removal of the Speaker. This amounts to interference in disqualification
proceedings at the interlocutory stage. The decisions in Kihoto Hollohan
(supra) and Nabam Rebia (supra), therefore, conflict with one another;
b. The decision in (supra) is prone to be misused by
Nabam Rebia
defecting MLAs, whose consequent disqualification under the Tenth
Schedule can be avoided by disabling the Speaker from proceeding with
disqualification proceedings by issuing a notice of intention to move a
resolution for their removal under Article 179 of the Constitution. The
Speaker is left without a remedy in case of their improper removal, while
a disqualified member may access the remedy of judicial review if they
have been unlawfully disqualified;
10
(1992) Supp (2) SCC 651
23
PART D
c. By holding that the Speaker is disabled from proceeding with
disqualification proceedings under the Tenth Schedule when a notice of
intention to move a resolution for their removal is issued, Nabam Rebia
(supra) has the effect of:
i. Effacing the distinction between the role of the Speaker as a Tribunal under
the Tenth Schedule and the role of the Speaker as an Officer of the State
Legislature;
ii. Disrupting the continuity in the functioning of the Tribunal under Paragraph
6 of the Tenth Schedule; and
iii. Creating a constitutional hiatus in the operation of the Tenth Schedule.
d. The decision in Nabam Rebia (supra) is based on the interpretation of
the phrase “all the then Members of the Assembly” in Article 179(c) of
the Constitution to mean that the composition and strength of the House
cannot be altered once a notice of intention to move a resolution for the
removal of the Speaker is issued. This interpretation is contrary to:
i. The plain language of Article 179;
ii. The import of Article 181; and
iii. The deliberations in the Constituent Assembly Debates.
24
PART D
e. In terms of the decision of this Court in Rajendra Singh Rana v. Swami
11
, the disqualification of an MLA relates back to the date
Prasad Maurya
on which they engaged in the conduct proscribed under the Tenth
Schedule. The scheme of the Constitution does not envisage the
possibility of disqualified MLAs issuing a notice of intention to move a
resolution for the removal of the Speaker after the date on which they
engaged in the proscribed conduct.
36. The respondents opposed the submissions urged on behalf of the
petitioners. They submitted that the decision in Nabam Rebia (supra) is not
required to be referred to a Bench of seven Judges of this Court for the following
reasons:
a. The decision in Nabam Rebia (supra) is based on ethical and
constitutional considerations. If an MLA is unjustly disqualified by the
Speaker and their disqualification is set aside by the courts, they would
have been deprived of the opportunity to vote on the resolution for the
removal of the Speaker as well as the opportunity to participate in other
proceedings of the House. On the other hand, if the Speaker is unjustly
removed from office, they do not lose membership of the House and
consequently retain the right to participate in the proceedings of the
House. They may also be re-elected as the Speaker;
11
(2007) 4 SCC 270
25
PART D
b. The Speaker may act as a Tribunal under the Tenth Schedule only when
they enjoy the confidence of the House;
c. Article 181(1) provides that the Speaker cannot preside in the Legislative
Assembly when a motion for their removal is pending;
d. The decision in (supra) is an exception and not a general
Kihoto Hollohan
rule. Disabling the Speaker from deciding disqualification petitions upon
the issuance of a notice of intention to move a resolution for their removal
does not conflict with the ruling in Kihoto Hollohan (supra) because the
disablement of the Speaker does not amount to interference at the
interlocutory stage; and
e. In Nabam Rebia (supra), the Constitution Bench addressed the issue
pertaining to the role of the Speaker when disqualification proceedings are
initiated against MLAs. The issue has ceased to be a “substantial question
of law” and cannot be referred to a larger bench under Article 145(3) of the
Constitution.
37. Mr. Tushar Mehta, the learned Solicitor General, appeared for the Governor
of the State of Maharashtra and urged that Nabam Rebia (supra) did not warrant
a reference to a larger Bench for the following reasons:
a. It is not the case of the petitioners that Nabam Rebia (supra) is per incuriam .
It considers all the relevant aspects, precedent, and constitutional
provisions;
26
PART D
b. Nabam Rebia (supra) considers the possibility of the misuse of the
temporary disablement of the Speaker;
c. The assertion that Nabam Rebia (supra) protects a member of a House
from disqualification is incorrect because members can always be subjected
to disqualification proceedings by a Speaker whose majority in the House is
not under a cloud of suspicion;
d. Although the Speaker performs different functions as a “Tribunal” under the
Tenth Schedule and as an “officer of the State Legislature” under the rules
of the House, their authority to perform both functions is derived from the
same source which is the confidence of the majority of the House; and
e. Nabam Rebia (supra) does not conflict with Kihoto Hollohan (supra)
because the latter permits quia timet actions where there are “grave,
imminent and irreparable consequences.”
38. By its order dated 17 February 2023, this Court directed that the issue of
whether a reference of the decision in Nabam Rebia (supra) to a larger Bench was
warranted, would be determined together with the merits of the case. The order
reads thus:
| “8. The issue of whether a reference to a Bench of | |
|---|
| seven Judges should be made cannot be considered in | |
| the abstract; isolated or divorced from the facts of the | |
| case. Whether, the above principle which has been | |
| formulated in Nabam Rebia (supra) has an impact upon | |
| the factual position in the present case, needs | |
| deliberation. | |
9. In the above backdrop, the issue whether a reference
of the decision in Nabam Rebia (supra) to a larger
27
PART D
| Bench is warranted, would be determined together with | |
|---|
| the merits of the case.” | |
39. Learned counsel appearing for the parties were then heard on the merits of
the case.
ii. Submissions on the merits of the case
40. Mr. Kapil Sibal, learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of the petitioners
made the following submissions:
a. A constitutional court, by virtue of its power under Articles 32 and 226 of
the Constitution can decide whether an MLA is disqualified under the
provisions of the Tenth Schedule. This Court has recognised this
exceptional power in Rajendra Singh Rana (supra). The following
exceptional circumstances indicate that this Court must decide the
disqualification petitions in these proceedings:
i. The constitutionality of events which succeeded the filing of the
disqualification petitions, namely, the direction of the Governor on
28 June 2022 to the then Chief Minister Mr. Uddhav Thackeray to
face a floor test, the swearing in of Mr. Eknath Shinde as the Chief
Minister on 30 June 2022, the appointment of the Speaker on 3
July 2022, the floor test held on 4 July 2022, and the petition filed
by a faction led by Mr. Eknath Shinde under Paragraph 15 of the
Symbols Order, have been challenged before this court;
28
PART D
ii. The Speaker was appointed with the support of the faction of the
Shiv Sena legislators led by Mr. Eknath Shinde. The Speaker has
conducted himself in a biased and mala fide manner. In a
communication dated 3 July 2022, the Speaker de-recognised Mr.
Ajay Choudhari and Mr. Sunil Prabhu as the Leader of the SSLP
and the Chief Whip of the Shiv Sena respectively, and instead
recognised Mr. Eknath Shinde and Mr. Bharat Gogawale
respectively. The decision of the Speaker in the disqualification
proceedings would depend on who was recognized as the Chief
Whip which is also under challenge in the instant batch of
proceedings;
iii. A Constitutional Court while deciding disqualification petitions
must decide if a per se case of disqualification is made out against
the MLAs;
iv. In the facts of the present case, a per se case of disqualification is
made out under Paragraph 2(1)(a) of the Tenth Schedule against
the faction of legislators led by Mr. Eknath Shinde because:
I. They deliberately did not attend the SSLP meetings held on 21
June 2022 and 22 June 2022;
II. On 22 June 2022, they passed illegal resolutions appointing
Mr. Shinde as the Leader of the SSLP, and Mr. Gogawale as
the Chief Whip; and
29
PART D
III. The faction led by Mr. Shinde met the Governor along with Mr.
Devendra Fadnavis, the then Leader of Opposition. The
alliance of legislators of Mr. Shinde’s faction with the BJP was
against the wishes of the Shiv Sena political party.
v. In the facts of the present case, a per se case of disqualification is
made out under Paragraph 2(1)(b) of the Tenth Schedule against
the faction of legislators led by Mr. Eknath Shinde. On 2 July 2022,
Mr. Sunil Prabhu issued a whip for the election of the Speaker.
The faction of legislators led by Mr. Shinde violated the whip and
voted in favour of Mr. Rahul Narwekar, who was the candidate
nominated by the BJP.
vi. Disqualification under the Tenth Schedule relates back to the date
on which the MLA engaged in the act incurring disqualification.
Thus, the outcome of the proceedings on the floor of the House
which took place during the pendency of the disqualification
proceedings would depend on the decision of the Speaker on the
disqualification petitions. In the same vein, the outcome of the trust
vote would depend on the decision in the disqualification
proceedings. Additionally, this Court by its order dated 29 June
2022 while dismissing the writ petition filed by the petitioners
seeking a stay on the direction of the Governor to hold a trust vote,
observed that the proceedings of the trust vote shall be subject to
the final outcome of the writ petition;
30
PART D
vii. The faction of legislators led by Mr. Shinde have asserted that they
are the “real” Shiv Sena. They have also initiated proceedings
under Paragraph 15 of the Symbols Order. The defence of the
respondents in effect is that of a split. The defence of split having
been deleted from the Tenth Schedule by the Constitution (Ninety-
first Amendment) Act 2003 cannot be used by the respondents as
a defence for actions that incur disqualification;
b. The purported resolution dated 21 June 2022 passed by the
respondents appointing Mr. Gogawale as the Chief Whip, and the
communication of the Speaker dated 3 July 2022 recognising Mr.
Gogawale as the Chief Whip are illegal and must be set aside. The Chief
Whip and the Leader of the legislature party must be appointed by the
political party and not the legislature party because:
i. Paragraph 2(1)(b) of the Tenth Schedule stipulates that the
whip must be issued by the political party (and not the
legislature party) or by an authority authorised by the political
party. Thus, the whip cannot be issued or altered by a majority
of the legislature party. Paragraphs 1(b) and 1(c) differentiate
between a legislature party and a political party for the
purposes of the Tenth Schedule. This reading of the Tenth
31
PART D
Schedule has been affirmed by Srinivasan, J. in his separate
12
opinion in v. ;
Mayawati Markandeya Chand
ii. A majority faction of the legislature party cannot be construed
as the political party for the purposes of the Tenth Schedule;
iii. The explanation to Section 23 of the Maharashtra Legislature
13
Members (Removal of Disqualification) Act 1956 provides
that the Chief Whip in relation to the Maharashtra Legislative
Assembly means a member of the House who has been
declared as the Whip by the party forming the government;
iv. The Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act 1985, by
introducing disqualification of legislators on the ground of
defection, recognised the role of political parties in
parliamentary democracy;
v. The decision of the Speaker ought to be set aside on the
ground of procedural irregularity. The Speaker did not provide
the political party with an opportunity of being heard before
issuing the communication dated 3 July 2022 recognising Mr.
Gogawale as the Chief Whip;
vi. The decision of the Speaker recognising a whip is not excluded
from judicial review by the provisions of Article 212 of the
12
(1998) 7 SCC 517
13
“Act of 1956”
32
PART D
Constitution. Article 212 only precludes judicial review of
‘proceedings in the Legislature of the State’ on the ground of
procedural irregularity . This Court in Raja Ram Pal v. Hon’ble
14
Speaker, Lok Sabha has held that Article 212 does not
exclude judicial review on the grounds of substantive or gross
illegality; and
vii. The Leader of the legislature party must be appointed only by
the political party. The link between the political party and the
legislature party would be severed if the legislature party is
permitted to appoint a Leader different from the candidate
selected by the political party.
c. An MLA who the Speaker holds to have voluntarily given up membership
for the purpose of the Tenth Schedule cannot initiate proceedings under
Paragraph 15 of the Symbols Order because they will no longer be a
part of the political party. Thus, members of a splinter faction who have
been disqualified cannot be permitted to stake a claim under the
Symbols Order as the political party;
d. The decision of the ECI does not have any bearing on proceedings
under the Tenth Schedule because: (i) Disqualification relates back to
the date of the actions which led to the incurring of disqualification; and
(ii) The decision of the ECI will only have a prospective effect either from
14
(2007) 3 SCC 184
33
PART D
the date on which proceedings were instituted under Paragraph 15 of
the Symbols Order or the decision of the ECI in those proceedings;
e. The communication of the Governor dated 28 June 2022 calling for a
trust vote is illegal. The Governor’s power to call for a trust vote is not
unrestrained. The Governor’s decision to call for a floor test is subject to
judicial review and is liable to be quashed if it is based on extraneous
considerations. The Governor’s decision to call for a floor test on 28 June
2022 was illegal because:
i. The resolution of thirty-four members of the SSLP which is
relied upon by the Governor does not state that they intend to
exit the MVA; and
ii. The Governor cannot base his satisfaction on a claim of a
majority of the SSLP against the government formed by their
own political party;
f. The communication of the Governor dated 30 June 2022 calling Mr.
Eknath Shinde to take oath as the Chief Minister is unconstitutional and
ought to be set aside for the following reasons:
i. The Governor calling Mr. Shinde to take oath amounts to a
recognition of a split in the Shiv Sena;
ii. The Governor could not have called Mr. Shinde to form the
Government when a disqualification petition was pending against
him;
34
PART D
iii. The recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission on the order of
preference in which the Governor ought to call for the formation of
the government were approved by this Court in Rameshwar
15
Prasad v. Union of India . The Governor did not follow this order
of precedence
;
iv. The decision of the Speaker disqualifying a member is ex post
facto. The Speaker must decide as on facts that existed on the
date the alleged action incurring disqualification had taken place.
A disqualified member of the Assembly cannot be appointed as a
Minister in view of the bar in Article 164(1-B) of the Constitution.
g. The order of this Court dated 27 June 2022 created a hiatus in the
operation of the Tenth Schedule.
41. Dr. Abhishek Manu Singhvi, learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of
the petitioners made the following submissions:
a. The status quo ante as on 27 June 2022 ought to be restored for the
following reasons:
i. The order of this Court on 27 June 2022 extending the time
granted to the respondents to respond to the disqualification
petitions created a negative injunction on the functioning of the
Speaker. The order of this Court on 29 June 2022 declining to stay
15
(2006) 2 SCC 1
35
PART D
the trust vote was a positive order. The Government in the State
of Maharashtra would not have changed ‘but for’ the above orders
of this Court (relied on Indore Development Authority v.
16
Manohar Lal ;
ii. The order of this Court on 27 June 2022 is contrary to the judgment
of the Constitution Bench in Kihoto Hollohan (supra) where it was
held that judicial review cannot be made available at a stage prior
to the decision of the Speaker under the Tenth Schedule. By this
order, the court tilted the delicate balance of unfettered functioning
of different constitutional functionaries in their respective spheres;
iii. The order of this Court on 29 June 2022 held that the trust vote
would be “subject to the final outcome of the instant writ petition
as well as the writ petitions referred above.” Thus, the
consequences and the new status quo created must be subject to
the final outcome of the instant proceedings. Status quo ante
ought to be restored as on 27 June 2022. The power of the court
to restore status quo ante is not unheard of. This Court directed
status quo ante in (supra); and
Nabam Rebia
iv. This Court must direct status quo ante to give effect to the object
behind the introduction of the Tenth Schedule, which is to curb the
evil of political defections;
16
(2020) 8 SCC 129
36
PART D
b. Immediately after his appointment as the Speaker on the evening of 3
July 2022, Mr. Rahul Narwekar recalled the order of the Deputy Speaker
dated 21 June 2022 recognising Mr. Ajay Choudhari as the Leader of
SSLP and Mr. Bharat Gogawale as the Chief Whip of the SSLP. The
validity of the order of the Deputy Speaker dated 21 June 2022 was sub
judice before this Court. Further, upon his appointment, the Speaker
issued notice only on the disqualification petitions instituted by the
respondents. The Speaker has behaved contrary to the spirit of
neutrality and independence. Allowing the Speaker to decide the
disqualification petition would amount to incentivising defection. Thus,
this Court and not the Speaker must decide the disqualification petitions;
c. The Governor could not have directed a trust vote when the legality of
the disqualification petitions was pending consideration;
d. The letter of the Governor dated 28 June 2022 recognises a split in the
Shiv Sena. He does not have the authority to recognise a split;
17
held that it would be
e. The majority in S R Bommai v. Union of India
open to the Court to restore status quo ante before the issuance of the
proclamation if the presidential proclamation was invalid. It was held that
status quo ante could be restored even if the proclamation is approved
by both the Houses of Parliament. It was also held that it would be open
to the court to mould the relief while restoring status quo ante. Thus, this
17
(1994) 3 SCC 1
37
PART D
Court has the power to mould relief by holding that legislations passed
in the intervening period would not be invalid but other actions during the
pendency of the disqualification proceedings such as the election of the
Speaker would be invalid if those who voted for the Speaker are held to
have incurred disqualification;
f. Article 189(2) extends only to situations where there is a challenge to
the proceedings solely because of the eligibility of the members and
there is no per se challenge to the validity of the proceedings. However,
in the instant case, there is a prior challenge to the decision of the
Governor to direct a trust vote. This action of the Governor cannot be
immunised from judicial review by virtue of Article 189(2);
g. The resignation of Mr. Uddhav Thackeray on 29 June 2022 cannot dilute
the illegality of the action of the Governor in directing a trust vote;
h. The decision of the ECI under Paragraph 15 of the Symbols Order will
have prospective effect. The decision of the ECI recognising one of the
factions as the Shiv Sena for the purposes of the Symbols Order cannot
be applied retrospectively to the pending disqualification petitions. Such
an interpretation would also be contrary to settled law that
disqualification relates back to the date when the actions constituting
defection were committed; and
i. MLAs who are dissatisfied with the status quo of the political party are
entitled to resort to a merger under paragraph 4, or resign and re-contest
elections, or apply to the ECI under Paragraph 15 of the Symbols Order
38
PART D
for recognition of their faction as the political party and await the decision
of the ECI. The members ought to be disqualified if they have chosen to
act in a manner that is prohibited under the Tenth Schedule.
42. Mr. Devdatt Kamat, learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of the
petitioners made the following submissions:
a. The term ‘political party’ as it occurs in the Tenth Schedule relates to the
association of persons registered under Section 29A of the Representation
of the People Act 1951. ‘Political party’ refers to the leadership structure
subsisting on the date of the alleged prohibited conduct until the
recognition of the political party and its leadership structure is altered
under the law;
b. The members of the legislature party cannot claim that they represent the
political party as a defence to the disqualification petitions instituted
against them. Any such faction is only entitled to advance such a claim
before the ECI in proceedings under the Symbols Order. The members
cannot indulge in conduct that is prohibited under the Tenth Schedule until
their claim is settled under the Symbols Order;
c. The Tenth Schedule will be put on a hiatus if the contention of the
respondents that the disqualification petitions depend on the
adjudication of their claim under Paragraph 15 of the Symbols Order is
accepted; and
39
PART D
d. The respondents could not have initiated proceedings under Paragraph
15 of the Symbols Order when disqualification petitions are pending
against them since the factor of legislative majority laid down in Sadiq
18
Ali v. Election Commission of India may be altered based on the
adjudication of the disqualification proceedings.
43. Mr. Neeraj Kishan Kaul, learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of the
respondents, made the following submissions:
a. In terms of Paragraph 6 of the Tenth Schedule, the Speaker is the sole
constitutional authority to adjudicate upon the issue of disqualification.
Moreover, Article 212(1) of the Constitution provides that the validity of
proceedings of the state legislature cannot be called into question before
courts. The petitioners are attempting to surpass the constitutional authority
of the Speaker to adjudicate upon the disqualification petitions;
b. The concept of per se disqualification is unknown to the Constitution. Any
decision as to the disqualification proceedings under the Tenth Schedule
must be taken after following the due process of law and the principles of
natural justice. A member incurs disqualification only after adjudication by
the Speaker. The procedure for the adjudication of disqualification petitions
is prescribed under the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly (Disqualification
19
on Ground of Defection) Rules 1986;
18
(1972) 4 SCC 664
19
“1986 Rules”
40
PART D
c. The MLAs facing disqualification retain the right to participate in the
proceedings of the House and vote on resolutions. Article 189(2) of the
Constitution provides that any proceedings of the House are not invalid even
if it is subsequently discovered that persons who were not entitled to
participate or vote or otherwise take part in the proceedings, did so. In
20
Pratap Gouda Patil v. State of Karnataka and Speaker, Haryana
21
Vidhan Sabha v. Kuldeep Bishnoi , this Court observed that members
should not be stopped from taking part in the proceedings of the House
merely because disqualification proceedings were pending against them;
d. Prior to the deletion of Paragraph 3 of the Tenth Schedule, the Speaker’s
enquiry as to the existence of a split within a political party was limited to a
prima facie determination for deciding the disqualification proceedings. As a
result of the deletion of Paragraph 3, the authority of the Speaker to form
even a prima facie opinion regarding a split within a political party has been
removed. Upon the deletion of Paragraph 3, the only defence for
disqualification proceedings under the Tenth Schedule is that of a merger
under Paragraph 4. The ECI is the sole authority empowered to decide
disputes between rival factions of a political party according to the provisions
of the Symbols Order;
e. A majority of a legislature party may appoint the Leader and the Chief Whip
of the legislature party. The 1986 Rules provide that only the members of
20
(2019) 7 SCC 463
21
(2015) 12 SCC 381
41
PART D
the legislature party shall choose their Leader. When the Leader and the
Chief Whip are elected by the majority of the legislature party, the Speaker
must take a prima facie view and grant recognition to such Leader and Chief
Whip for the purposes of the Tenth Schedule. The Speaker has no choice
but to appoint a Leader and a Chief Whip elected by a majority of the
members of the legislature party; and
f. The decision of the Governor calling Mr. Eknath Shinde to form the
Government is valid and cannot be called into question because:
i. Mr. Thackeray resigned on 29 June 2022 without facing the floor
test;
ii. On the resignation of Mr. Thackeray, it was the constitutional duty
of the Governor to call upon another person who commanded the
majority in the Legislative Assembly to form the government; and
iii. Mr. Shinde staked his claim to form the government and
subsequently proved his majority on the floor of the Legislative
Assembly.
44. Mr. Tushar Mehta, learned Solicitor General, appearing on behalf of the
Governor, made the following submissions:
a. The decision of the Governor calling upon Mr. Thackeray to prove his
majority on the floor of the House was justified because:
42
PART D
i. The Governor has a constitutional obligation to ensure that the
Council of Ministers led by the Chief Minister enjoys the
support of the majority of the House. The Governor directed
Mr. Thackeray to face the floor test based on the prevailing
circumstances and the material before him;
ii. In directing the floor test, the Governor did not decide who
enjoys the majority in the Legislative Assembly. Further, he did
not decide any matter pertaining to the disqualification petitions
or the split within the Shiv Sena;
iii. The Governor is not precluded from exercising their
discretionary power to call for a floor test. Constitutional
propriety requires the Governor to act independently and call
for an immediate floor test when serious doubts have been
raised about the majority enjoyed by the incumbent
government in the Legislative Assembly. In the present case,
the Governor called for the floor test based on the following
objective facts:
I. The letter dated 21 June 2022 along with the resolution
signed by thirty-four MLAs of the SSLP reaffirming
support to Mr. Shinde as the Leader of the SSLP;
II. The letter dated 25 June 2022 addressed by thirty-eight
MLAs of the SSLP claiming that the lives of the MLAs
43
PART D
and their family members were under threat, as was
their property; and
III. The letter dated 28 June 2022 by the Leader of
Opposition requesting him to call upon the then-Chief
Minister to prove his majority on the floor of the
Legislative Assembly.
b. The Supreme Court in S R Bommai (supra) and Shivraj Singh
22
Chouhan v. Union of India held that calling for an immediate floor
test is the most appropriate measure in case any doubt arises as to
whether the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers enjoy the
confidence of the House;
c. The issue of the propriety of the Governor’s action calling Mr.
Thackeray to prove his majority on the floor of the House has become
infructuous because the latter did not face the floor test and instead
resigned from the post of Chief Minister; and
d. The decision of the Governor to administer the oath of office to Mr.
Shinde cannot be called into question as it was based on the following
objective facts:
22
(2020) 17 SCC 1
44
PART D
i. The letter dated 30 June 2022 by Mr. Devendra Fadnavis
extending support to Mr. Eknath Shinde for the formation of the
government by the latter;
ii. The letter dated 30 June 2022 by Mr. Eknath Shinde informing
the Governor that he enjoys the support of a majority of the
MLAs and requesting the Governor to invite him to take oath
as Chief Minister; and
iii. The letters dated 30 June 2022 by seventeen independent
MLAs and MLAs from other parties supporting Mr. Eknath
Shinde.
45. Mr. Maninder Singh, learned senior counsel for the respondents made the
following submissions:
a. The disqualification petitions under the Tenth Schedule must be decided by
the Speaker. Reliance by the petitioners on Rajendra Singh Rana (supra)
is erroneous because in that case, the disqualification petitions were already
decided by the Speaker. It was only in appeal that this Court decided the
issue of disqualification instead of remanding the matter back to the
Speaker;
b. The disqualification of a member by the Speaker under the Tenth Schedule
has drastic consequences. There can never be an automatic or deemed
disqualification of an elected representative without affording any
45
PART D
opportunity of hearing (relied on Kshetrimayum Biren Singh v. Hon’ble
23
);
Speaker, Manipur Legislative Assembly
c. The Tenth Schedule cannot be used to stifle intra-party dissent amongst
members of the same political party. Intra-party dissent cannot be termed
as defection. Therefore, the respondents did not indulge in prohibitory
conduct under Paragraph 2(1)(a) of the Tenth Schedule. Any act of
expression of dissent against the leadership of the party does not constitute
‘voluntarily giving up membership of the party’ under Paragraph 2(1)(a).
Paragraph 2(1)(b) also has no applicability in the facts of the present case;
d. After the deletion of Paragraph 3 from the Tenth Schedule, the Speaker has
no jurisdiction to take cognizance of a split in a political party. The ECI has
the exclusive jurisdiction to decide a split in a political party under Paragraph
15 of the Symbols Order; and
e. The order of this Court on 27 June 2022 granting additional time to the
respondents to reply to the disqualification petitions was in accordance with
the principles of natural justice.
46. Mr. Mahesh Jethmalani, learned senior counsel appearing for the
respondents made the following submissions:
a. The concept of ‘deemed disqualification’ does not exist under the
Constitution. Disqualification must be actual and there is a mandated
23
(2022) 2 SCC 759
46
PART D
procedure for disqualification proceedings under Rule 7(7) of the 1986
Rules;
b. The Speaker decides disqualification proceedings with reference to the date
of on which action due to which the MLA is alleged to have incurred
disqualification, is committed. However, in view of Articles 189(2) and 191(2)
of the Constitution, the order of disqualification only has prospective effect;
and
c. The petitioners instituted disqualification petitions against sixteen out of the
thirty-nine MLAs who were part of Mr. Shinde’s faction to entice those
against whom petitions were not filed to gravitate towards Mr. Thackeray’s
faction. The petitioners knew that if all thirty-nine MLAs were disqualified,
the MVA government would fall. Later, on 27 June 2022, a second
disqualification petition was filed against the remaining twenty-three MLAs.
47. Mr. Harish Salve, learned senior counsel for the respondents made the
following submissions:
a. During the pendency of the disqualification petitions, MLAs are entitled to
participate in the proceedings of the House. Article 189(2) of the Constitution
indicates that the subsequent disqualification of a member does not vitiate
any actions in the House; and
b. The petitioners argued that but for the interim order of the Supreme Court,
the disqualification would have followed, that Mr. Thackeray would not have
resigned, and that he would have survived the trust vote. This Court should
47
PART E
not enter into the realm of speculation while deciding constitutional matters.
In the eventuality that Mr. Thackeray faced the floor test, he would not have
had the support of the majority of the legislators. Mr. Thackeray’s resignation
on the eve of the trust vote is a testament to the fact that he had lost the
confidence of the House.
E. Analysis
i. Reference of Nabam Rebia’s case to a larger Bench
48. Article 179 stipulates that a Speaker (or a Deputy Speaker) may be removed
from their office by a resolution passed by a majority of “all the then members of
the Assembly.” Article 179 of the Constitution reads as follows:
| “179. A member holding office as Speaker or Deputy | |
|---|
| Speaker of an Assembly— | |
…
| (c) may be removed from his office by a resolution of | |
|---|
| the Assembly passed by a majority of all the then | |
| members of the Assembly: | |
| Provided that no resolution for the purpose of clause (c) | |
|---|
| shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has | |
| been given of the intention to move the resolution: | |
| Provided further that, whenever the Assembly is | |
|---|
| dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until | |
| immediately before the first meeting of the Assembly | |
| after the dissolution.” | |
49. In Nabam Rebia (supra), the INC formed the government in Arunachal
Pradesh under the leadership of Mr. Nabam Tuki. Mr. Nabam Rebia was elected
as the Speaker of the Arunachal Pradesh Legislative Assembly. In October 2015,
48
PART E
a section of the MLAs of the INC formed a separate group and opposed the
leadership of the Chief Minister. Twenty MLAs of the INC along with two
independent MLAs wrote to the Governor claiming that the Chief Minister has lost
the trust and confidence of the House. Later, certain MLAs from the opposition
parties issued a notice of intention to move a resolution for the removal of the
Speaker of the Assembly under Article 179(c) of the Constitution. Thereafter, the
Chief Whip of the Congress Legislature Party filed disqualification petitions under
Paragraph 2(1)(a) of the Tenth Schedule against fourteen MLAs of the INC for
breaching party directions. The Speaker then issued notices in the disqualification
petitions to the MLAs.
50. On 9 December 2015, the Governor issued an order advancing the session
of the Assembly originally scheduled to be held on 14 January 2016 to 16
December 2015. On the same day, the Governor also issued a message under
Article 175(2). In the message, he fixed the resolution for the removal of the
Speaker as the first item on the agenda of the House and tasked the Deputy
Speaker with conducting the proceedings of the House. The Governor also
directed that the Presiding Officer shall not alter the party composition in the House
till the session was prorogued. On 17 December 2015, the Government headed by
the Chief Minister Mr. Nabam Tuki was declared to have lost the confidence of the
House.
51. It was in this context that (supra) came to be decided. A
Nabam Rebia
Constitution Bench of this Court in that case (speaking through the majority opinion
authored by Khehar, J. and the concurring opinion by Misra, J., as the learned
49
PART E
Chief Justices then were) inter alia ruled that it was impermissible for a Speaker to
adjudicate upon disqualification petitions under the Tenth Schedule after a notice
of intention to move a resolution for their removal from the office of the Speaker
was issued.
52. Khehar, J. grounded his opinion on constitutional and moral reasoning. The
learned Judge observed that when the position of the Speaker is under challenge,
it would “seem” just and proper for the Speaker to establish their right to continue
before adjudicating on the disqualification petition(s) pending before them:
| “189. When the position of a Speaker is under | |
|---|
| challenge, through a notice of resolution for his removal, | |
| it would “seem” just and appropriate, that the Speaker | |
| first demonstrates his right to continue as such, by | |
| winning support of the majority in the State Legislature. | |
| The action of the Speaker in continuing, with one or | |
| more disqualification petitions under the Tenth | |
| Schedule, whilst a notice of resolution for his own | |
| removal, from the Office of the Speaker is pending, | |
| would “appear” to be unfair. Why would a Speaker who | |
| is confident of his majority, fear a floor test? After his | |
| position as the Speaker is affirmed, he would assuredly | |
| and with conviction, deal with the disqualification | |
| petitions, under the Tenth Schedule. And, why should a | |
| Speaker who is not confident of facing a motion, for his | |
| removal, have the right to adjudicate upon | |
| disqualification petitions, under the Tenth Schedule? | |
| The manner in which the matter has been examined | |
| hereinabove, is on ethical considerations. A | |
| constitutional issue, however, must have a | |
| constitutional answer. We shall endeavour to deal with | |
| the constitutional connotation of the instant issue, in the | |
| following paragraphs.” | |
53. Khehar, J. referred to the Constituent Assembly Debates to elucidate the
meaning of the phrase “all the then members of the Assembly” as it appears in
Article 179(c) (draft Article 158). In the course of the debates in the Constituent
50
PART E
Assembly, Mr. Mohd. Tahir proposed to substitute the phrase “all the then
members of the Assembly” with the phrase “the members of the Assembly present
and voting”. However, the proposed amendment was negatived. Justice Khehar
observed that the Constituent Assembly Debates do not appear to have recorded
any discussion on this proposed amendment. Khehar, J. noted that this meant that
the members of the Constituent Assembly used the phrase to indicate definiteness
and that any change in the composition of the Assembly when the notice of
intention to move a resolution for the removal of the Speaker was pending would
conflict with the express mandate of Article 179(c):
| “191. […] We are satisfied that the words “passed by a | |
|---|
| majority of all the then Members of the Assembly”, | |
| would prohibit the Speaker from going ahead with the | |
| disqualification proceedings under the Tenth Schedule, | |
| as the same would negate the effect of the words “all | |
| the then Members”, after the disqualification of one or | |
| more MLAs from the House. The words “all the then | |
| Members”, demonstrate an expression of definiteness. | |
| Any change in the strength and composition of the | |
| Assembly, by disqualifying sitting MLAs, for the period | |
| during which the notice of resolution for the removal of | |
| the Speaker (or the Deputy Speaker) is pending, would | |
| conflict with the express mandate of Article 179(c), | |
| requiring all “the then Members” to determine the right | |
| of the Speaker to continue.” | |
54. The opinion of the majority further noted that the purpose sought to be
achieved through the Tenth Schedule is clear and unambiguous, and that it is
distinct from the purpose sought to be achieved by Article 179(c):
“192. The purpose sought to be achieved through the
Tenth Schedule, is clear and unambiguous. The same
is unrelated to, and distinct from, the purpose sought to
be achieved through Article 179(c). Neither of the above
provisions, can be seen as conflicting with the other.
51
PART E
| Both, must, therefore, freely operate within their | |
|---|
| individual constitutional space. Each of them will have | |
| to be interpreted, in a manner as would serve the object | |
| sought to be achieved, without treading into the | |
| constitutional expanse of the other. The interpretation | |
| would have to be such, as would maintain constitutional | |
| purpose and harmony.” | |
55. Khehar, J. observed that if the Speaker decided a disqualification petition
before surviving the vote, it would prejudice the MLAs facing disqualification but
not the Speaker. The disqualified MLAs would not have a right to participate in the
motion moved against the Speaker even if the order of disqualification was set
aside. They would, in his view, have been effectively deprived of the opportunity to
participate in the motion against the Speaker. However, the MLAs would not lose
their right to participate if the disqualification petition was taken up after the motion
against the Speaker was put to vote.
56. Referring to the first proviso to Article 179, Misra, J. observed that the
Speaker would gain an advantage if they were allowed to change the composition
of the Assembly by adjudicating the disqualification petitions in the fourteen days
when the notice was pending. This, he observed, would result in a constitutional
conflict between the role of the Speaker as the presiding member of the Assembly
and the role of the Speaker as a Tribunal under the Tenth Schedule. Misra, J. also
referred to the amendment to Article 179(c) (draft Article 158) that was negatived
by the Constituent Assembly, to reach the same conclusion as Khehar, J. Article
181(2) of the Constitution provides that the Speaker shall have the right to speak
in and take part in the proceedings of the Legislative Assembly while a resolution
for their removal from office is under consideration but shall not be entitled to vote
in case of an equality of votes. The learned Judge held that the requirement under
52
PART E
Article 181(2) when contradistinguished with Article 189 restricts the power of the
Speaker to participate in the proceedings seeking their removal since the Speaker
has been given the power to vote in the event of an equality of votes under the
latter provision. This constitutional design indicated, in the view of the Judge, that
the Speaker cannot be given the power to interfere with the resolution for their
removal.
57. Madan Lokur, J. held that the Court was not called upon to decide this
issue:
| “401. In the view that I have taken, I am of the opinion | |
|---|
| that the view expressed by my learned Brothers relating | |
| to the power or propriety of the Speaker taking a | |
| decision under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution | |
| with regard to the fourteen Members of the Legislative | |
| Assembly does not at all arise in these appeals.” | |
58. As noticed in the previous segment of this judgment, this Court deferred
taking a view on the question of whether the decision in Nabam Rebia (supra)
ought to be referred to a larger Bench until the hearing on the merits of the case
was concluded.
59. Having considered the submissions advanced by counsel for all the parties,
we are of the view that the ruling in (supra) does not apply to the
Nabam Rebia
factual scenario of the present case.
60. In terms of Article 180 of the Constitution, the Deputy Speaker performs the
duties of the Speaker while the office of the Speaker is vacant. The functions of
the Speaker include the adjudication of disqualification petitions. In the present
case, the office of the Speaker of the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly was
53
PART E
vacant and the Deputy Speaker Mr. Narhari Zirwal was discharging the functions
of the Speaker. A notice of intention to move a resolution for his removal under
Article 179 is stated to have been issued on 22 June 2022. Mr. Sunil Prabhu filed
disqualification petitions against some of the MLAs led by Mr. Shinde on 23 June
2022.
61. The first circumstance commences with the notice dated 21 June 2022,
under Article 179(c) asking the Deputy Speaker to refrain from discharging his
functions. The reply of the Deputy Speaker is crucial. The relevant portion is as
under:
| “In view of the gravity of the subject matter of the said | |
|---|
| communication, it is imperative that the genuineness of | |
| the communication be verified and ascertained before | |
| taking the same on record. Therefore, unless and until | |
| the persons who have purportedly signed the aforesaid | |
| communication satisfy the undersigned about the | |
| authenticity of any such notice, such communication is | |
| not liable to be taken on record or acted upon. | |
| In view of the same and in my capacity as the Master of | |
|---|
| House, unless and until the genuineness and the | |
| veracity of any such communication and its signatories | |
| is ascertained, no further action can be taken and said | |
| communication dated 22.06.2022 is therefore not being | |
| taken on record. Any such notice will only be taken on | |
| record after I am satisfied of its genuineness and | |
| authenticity.” | |
62. It is evident from the above that the Deputy Speaker decided not to take
cognizance of the notice under Article 179(c). We believe that the Speaker being
the adjudicator, their understanding of the jurisdiction that they may or may not
exercise is of utmost importance. The Deputy Speaker proceeded to issue notices
54
PART E
to the respondents on 25 June 2022, requiring them to file written submissions by
27 June 2022. The notice was as follows:
| “Whereas the Applicant has filed Application Number 1 | |
|---|
| of 2022 for disqualification of you Non-Applicant before | |
| Deputy Speaker, Maharashtra Legislative Assembly, | |
| we hereby along with all the annexed documents issue | |
| summons as under. You are instructed to submit written | |
| submissions as per the procedure laid in the members | |
| of Maharashtra Legislative Assembly (Disqualification | |
| on ground of defections) Rules 1986) by Monday, 27th | |
| June 2022 by 5.30 pm to Deputy Speaker. You are also | |
| instructed to submit all the relevant documents you are | |
| going to rely or dependent to be submitted along with | |
| this reply. You also note that, if these written | |
| submissions not given within stipulated time, it will be | |
| assumed that you have nothing to say on this | |
| Application & decision will be taken accordingly.” | |
63. As is evident from the above, the Deputy Speaker did not consider the
decision in (supra) as an impediment, from proceeding to adjudicate
Nabam Rebia
upon the complaint made under the Tenth Schedule.
64. The sixteen MLAs filed a Writ Petition under Article 32 before this Court
being W.P. (C) Nos. 468-469 of 2022 raising two grounds. The first relates to the
disability of the Speaker in proceeding with the hearing in view of the decision in
(supra). The second ground relates to the legality of the summons
Nabam Rebia
issued by the Deputy Speaker granting only forty-eight hours for filing a written
statement. What is important is the order passed by this Court on 27 June 2022
which is as under:
| “Meanwhile as an interim measure, the time granted by | |
|---|
| the Deputy Speaker of the Assembly to the petitioners | |
| or other similarly placed Members of the Legislative | |
| Assembly to submit their written submissions upto | |
| today by 5.30P.M., is extended till 12.07.2022.” | |
55
PART E
65. It is clear that this Court did not injunct the Deputy Speaker from proceeding
with the hearing of the cases under the Tenth Schedule. In fact, this Court merely
extended the time for filing a written statement till 12 July 2022, which goes to show
that this Court intended that the proceedings must go on.
66. The petitioners urge that that the order of this Court dated 27 June 2022
relied on the decision in Nabam Rebia (supra) to injunct the Deputy Speaker from
adjudicating the disqualification petitions. This submission cannot be accepted.
Although the parties may have addressed this Court on the applicability of Nabam
Rebia (supra), the order dated 27 June 2022 did not rely on Nabam Rebia (supra)
to injunct the Deputy Speaker from adjudicating the disqualification petitions on the
ground that a notice of intention to move a resolution for his removal had been
issued. This Court instead granted an extension of time to the persons against
whom disqualification petitions were filed, to file their written submissions, in view
of the principles of natural justice.
67. The election of the Speaker was conducted shortly thereafter, and Mr. Rahul
Narwekar was appointed as the Speaker. As a consequence, the Deputy Speaker
was no longer required to discharge the functions of the Speaker. It fell to the
Speaker to adjudicate any disqualification petitions that were pending. This being
the case, Nabam Rebia (supra) does not apply to the lis before us. We will
therefore render a verdict on the merits of the matter.
68. The reason why the Deputy Speaker did not proceed with the hearing is
completely attributable to events that happened thereafter. After the notice of
56
PART E
intention to move a resolution for the removal of the Deputy Speaker was issued,
the subsequent events such as the Governor calling upon the then Chief Minister
to prove the majority on the floor of the House, followed by the resignation of the
then Chief Minister, formation of the new government, election of the new Speaker
and passing of the trust vote, all in quick succession, happening within a fortnight
relegated the issue now referred to seven Judges to the backseat. These events
brought about a dramatic change in the power structure and the reasons for such
change became the main challenge and more fundamental to the present
proceedings. The case of the petitioners now rests on their challenges to the
decisions of, (i) the Governor calling upon the then Chief Minister to prove his
majority; (ii) swearing in Mr. Ekanth Shinde as the Chief Minister; (iii) election of
the Speaker by the House which included the thirty-four MLAs who are facing
disqualification notices; and (iv) legality of the trust vote dated 4 July 2022.
69. Although the decision in Nabam Rebia (supra) is not applicable to the
factual scenario before us, we are alive to the competing considerations which
animated this Court in its order dated 23 August 2022 by which the decision in
Nabam Rebia (supra) was referred to a Constitution Bench. In that order, this
Court formed a prima facie opinion that the proposition of law laid down in
Nabam
Rebia (supra) was based on “contradictory reasoning.” The order of reference
notes:
| “4. We may prima facie observe that the proposition of | |
|---|
| law laid down by the Constitution bench in Nabam | |
| Rebia (supra), stands on contradictory reasoning, | |
| which requires gap filling to uphold the constitutional | |
| morality. As such, this question needs a reference to a | |
| Constitution bench for the requisite gap filling exercise | |
| to be conducted.” | |
57
PART E
70. Based on the submissions which have been canvassed before us, we are
of the view that the decision in (supra) merits reference to a larger
Nabam Rebia
Bench because a substantial question of law remains to be settled. The following
are our prima facie reasons for reaching this conclusion:
a. (supra) is in conflict with the judgement in
Nabam Rebia Kihoto Hollohan
(supra) because the decision in Kihoto Hollohan (supra) holds that there is
no reason to doubt the independence and impartiality of the Speaker when
adjudicating on proceedings under the Tenth Schedule. In contrast, in
Nabam Rebia (supra), this Court doubted the ability of the Speaker to
remain neutral while deciding disqualification petitions after a notice of
intention to move a resolution for the removal of the Speaker has been
issued.
b. In (supra), this Court referred to the Constituent Assembly
Nabam Rebia
Debates to interpret the phrase “all the then members” in Article 179(c). This
Court noticed the amendment moved by Mr. Mohd Tahir, proposing that the
term “all the then members of the Assembly” in Article 179(c) (draft Article
158(c)) be replaced with the term “all the members of the Assembly present
and voting.” In (supra), this Court noticed that this proposal
Nabam Rebia
was rejected and observed that the “Constituent Assembly Debates do not
appear to have recorded any discussion on the above amendment.” It was
inter alia on this basis that this Court held that the phrase “all the then
members of the Assembly” meant that the composition of the Assembly
ought not to be changed after the notice of intention to move a resolution for
58
PART E
the removal of the Speaker (or the Deputy Speaker) was issued. However,
the members of the Constituent Assembly discussed the import of the
phrase “all the then members” occurring in other provisions of the
Constitution. Dr. BR Ambedkar clarified that the phrase “all the then
members” has been used to indicate all members who are members of
Parliament and whose seats are not vacant, and it does not mean members
sitting or present and voting. This Court appears not to have noticed the
entirety of the discussion in the Constituent Assembly regarding the phrase
“all the then members” while using the Constituent Assembly Debates as an
internal aid of interpretation;
c. Article 181 of the Constitution provides that the Speaker shall not preside
over a sitting of the Legislative Assembly while a resolution for their removal
is under consideration. It appears that the majority in (supra)
Nabam Rebia
did not consider the effect and import of Article 181, and whether the
Constitution envisages the imposition of any restriction on the functions of
the Speaker beyond the limited restriction imposed by Article 181;
d. The second proviso to Article 179 provides that whenever the Assembly is
dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate their office until immediately before
the first meeting of the Assembly after the dissolution. This Court did not
consider if the Constitution envisages a restriction on the continuous
performance of the functions of the Speaker under the Tenth Schedule in
view of this provision;
59
PART E
e. Rule 11 of the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly Rules stipulates that upon
the expiry of the period of fourteen days provided under the proviso to Article
178, leave is granted to move the motion only when twenty-nine members
vote in favour of it. This Court did not consider the possibility that a notice of
intention to move a resolution for the removal of the Speaker may not
culminate in such a motion being moved. The Speaker may be effectively
barred from adjudicating disqualification petitions based on the mere
issuance of a notice of intention to move a resolution by one member of the
House;
f. It appears that the following aspects were not considered in
Nabam Rebia
(supra):
i. Whether the temporary disablement of the functions of the Speaker under
the Tenth Schedule is prone to misuse by MLAs who anticipate that
disqualification petitions will be instituted against them or by MLAs against
whom disqualification petitions have already been instituted; and
ii. Whether a “constitutional hiatus” in the operation of the Tenth Schedule
ensues because of the temporary disablement of the Speaker.
71. To give quietus to the issue, we refer the following question (and any allied
issues which may arise) to a larger Bench: whether the issuance of a notice of
intention to move a resolution for the removal of the Speaker restrains them from
adjudicating disqualification petitions under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution.
The matter may be placed before the Chief Justice for appropriate orders. We
60
PART E
accordingly answer the question referred to us as noted in Paragraph 32(a) of this
judgment.
72. Pending the decision of the larger Bench, as an interim measure, adoption
of the following procedure may subserve the objective of the Tenth Schedule,
Symbols Order as well as Article 179(c). It may also provide some amount of clarity
and certainty.
a. The investiture of exclusive adjudicatory jurisdiction upon the Speaker to
determine the complaints under the Tenth Schedule will entitle the Speaker
to rule upon and decide applications questioning their jurisdiction; and
b. (i) The Speaker is entitled to rule on applications which require them to
refrain from adjudicating proceedings under the Tenth Schedule on
the ground of initiation of a motion for their removal under Article
179(c). A Speaker can examine if the application is bonafide or
intended only to evade adjudication;
(ii) If the Speaker believes that the motion is well founded, they may adjourn
the proceedings under the Tenth Schedule till the decision for their
removal is concluded. On the other hand, if they believe that the motion
is not as per the procedure contemplated under the Constitution, read
with the relevant rules, they are entitled to reject the plea and proceed
with the hearing; and
(iii) The decision of the Speaker, either to adjourn the proceedings under the
Tenth Schedule in view of the pending proceedings under Article 179(c)
or to proceed with the hearing will be subject to judicial review. As the
61
PART E
decision of the Speaker relates to their jurisdiction, the bar of a qua timet
action, as contemplated in (supra) will not apply.
Kihoto Hollohan
ii. The power of this Court to decide disqualification petitions at the first
instance
73. The petitioners have urged that the Speaker cannot be entrusted with the
adjudication of disqualification petitions because is biased and partial as he was
appointed with the support of the MLAs against whom disqualification petitions
have been filed. They have relied on Rajendra Singh Rana (supra) to argue that
this Court should decide the disqualification petitions against the respondents.
74. Article 191(2) of the Constitution stipulates that an MLA disqualified under
the Tenth Schedule shall be disqualified for being a member of the House. Under
Paragraph 6 of the Tenth Schedule, the Speaker has the exclusive jurisdiction to
decide the question of disqualification. Paragraph 8 empowers the Chairman or
Speaker of the House to make rules on the procedure for deciding any question
referred to in Paragraph 6 including the procedure for any inquiry which may be
made for the purpose of deciding such question. In exercise of the powers
conferred under Paragraph 8, the Speaker of the Maharashtra Legislative
Assembly notified the 1986 Rules.
75. Rule 6 of the 1986 Rules lays down the procedure for the filing of
disqualification petitions against a member of the House before the Speaker. Rule
7 provides that the Speaker may either dismiss the petition for non-compliance with
62
PART E
the requirements laid down under Rule 6 or proceed to determine the question of
disqualification against a member of the House. According to Rule 7(7), the
Speaker must grant a reasonable opportunity to such member to represent their
case. Rule 8 provides that the Speaker shall after due consideration of the merits
of the case either dismiss the disqualification petition or declare that the member
has become subject to disqualification under the Tenth Schedule by an order in
writing. Thus, the Tenth Schedule (read together with the 1986 Rules for
Maharashtra) provides a detailed procedure guiding the exercise of power by the
Speaker under the Tenth Schedule. The Speaker must decide disqualification
petitions by following this procedure.
76. In Kihoto Hollohan (supra), this Court held that the Speaker is a Tribunal
for the purposes of the Tenth Schedule. Therefore, the exercise of power under
the Tenth Schedule is subject to the jurisdiction of Courts under Articles 136, 226,
and 227 of the Constitution. This Court further observed that the finality clause
contained in Paragraph 6(2) did not completely exclude the jurisdiction of Courts.
However, it was held that such a clause limits the scope of judicial review because
the Constitution intended the Speaker or the Chairman to be “the repository of
adjudicatory powers” under the Tenth Schedule. This Court held that judicial review
is not available at a stage prior to the decision of the Speaker or Chairman, save
in certain exceptional circumstances detailed in that case. Thus, Kihoto Hollohan
(supra) makes it evident that the exclusive power to decide the question of
disqualification under the Tenth Schedule vests with the Speaker or Chairman of
the House.
63
PART E
77. The petitioners have relied on Rajendra Singh Rana (supra) to urge that
this Court should invoke its extraordinary jurisdiction and itself decide the question
of disqualification against the respondent MLAs. Alternatively, it is urged that this
Court should direct the Deputy Speaker, Mr. Zirwal, who was performing the
functions of Speaker prior to 3 July 2022, to decide the disqualification petitions.
78. In Rajendra Singh Rana (supra), disqualification petitions were filed against
24
thirteen MLAs of the Bahujan Samaj Party on 4 September 2003. On 26 August
2003, the Speaker accepted a split in the BSP and recognized a separate group
by the name of Lok Tantrik Bahujan Dal. The thirteen MLAs against whom
disqualification petitions were instituted were also part of the Lok Tantrik Bahujan
Dal. On 6 September 2003, the Speaker accepted the merger of the Lok Tantrik
Bahujan Dal with the Samajwadi Party without deciding the disqualification
petitions against the thirteen MLAs. On 7 September 2005, the Speaker rejected
the disqualification petitions against the MLAs. By its judgment dated 28 February
2006, the High Court quashed the order of the Speaker rejecting the
disqualification petitions against the MLAs and directed him to reconsider the
petitions.
79. On appeal, this Court observed that it would not be appropriate for it to
decide the disqualification petitions for the first time when the concerned authority
had not taken a decision. It observed that this Court would normally remit the matter
to the Speaker or Chairman to take a proper decision in accordance with law.
However, this Court decided to adjudicate the disqualification petitions in view of
24
“BSP”
64
PART E
the following peculiar facts and circumstances: (i) the Speaker of the Legislative
Assembly in that case failed to decide the question of disqualification in a time-
bound manner; (ii) the Speaker decided the issue of whether there was a split in
the party without deciding whether the MLAs in question were disqualified; and (iii)
the necessity of an expeditious decision in view of the fact that the disqualification
petitions were not decided by the Speaker for more than three years and the term
of the Assembly was coming to an end. In view of the above facts and
circumstances, this Court was of the opinion that remanding the disqualification
proceedings to the Speaker would lead to them becoming infructuous.
80. This Court should normally refrain from deciding disqualification petitions at
the first instance, having due regard to constitutional intendment. The question of
disqualification ought to be adjudicated by the constitutional authority concerned,
namely the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly, by following the procedure
prescribed. Disqualification of a person for being a member of the House has
drastic consequences for the member concerned and by extension, for the citizens
of that constituency. Therefore, any question of disqualification ought to be decided
by following the procedure established by law. In Kshetrimayum Biren Singh
(supra), a three-Judge Bench of this Court set aside the order of the Speaker
disqualifying MLAs under Paragraph 2(1)(a) for not granting an opportunity to them
to lead evidence and present their case. The Speaker was directed to decide the
disqualification petitions afresh by complying with the principles of natural justice.
Even in cases where the Speaker decides disqualification petitions without
following the procedure established by law, this Court normally remands the
disqualification petitions to the Speaker. Therefore, absent exceptional
65
PART E
circumstances, the Speaker is the appropriate authority to adjudicate petitions for
disqualification under the Tenth Schedule.
81. The petitioners have urged that in view of the facts and circumstances, this
Court should not remand the disqualification proceedings to the Speaker of the
Maharashtra Legislative Assembly, on the ground that he has demonstrated
himself to be incapable of acting fairly and impartially. Before addressing the
petitioner’s submission, it is necessary to refer to the status of the Speaker under
the Constitution. Article 178 provides that the Legislative Assembly shall, as soon
as may be, choose two members of the Assembly to be the Speaker and Deputy
Speaker. The procedure for the election of Speaker and the Deputy Speaker is
generally provided by the relevant rules of the Legislative Assembly.
82. In a parliamentary democracy, the Speaker is an officer of the Assembly.
The Speaker performs the function of presiding over the proceedings of the House
and representing the House for all intents and purposes. In Kihoto Hollohan
(supra), it was contended that the Speaker does not represent an independent
adjudicatory machinery since they are elected by the majority of the Assembly.
Rejecting the argument, this Court emphasized that the office of the Speaker is
held in high respect in parliamentary tradition. The Court held that the Speaker
embodies propriety and impartiality and that it was therefore inappropriate to
express distrust in the office of the Speaker:
“ 118. It would, indeed, be unfair to the high traditions of
that great office to say that the investiture in it of this
jurisdiction would be vitiated for violation of a basic feature
of democracy. It is inappropriate to express distrust in
the high office of the Speaker, merely because some
of the Speakers are alleged, or even found, to have
66
PART E
| discharged their functions not in keeping with the | |
|---|
| great traditions of that high office. The robes of the | |
| Speaker do change and elevate the man inside.” | |
(emphasis supplied)
83. The petitioners have relied upon the judgment in Shrimanth Balasaheb
25
Patil v. Speaker, Karnataka Legislative Assembly , where it was observed that
the Speaker does not deserve to be reposed with public trust and confidence if
they are not able to dissociate from their political party and if they act contrary to
the spirit of neutrality and independence. In Shrimanth Balasaheb Patil (supra),
the Speaker issued orders disqualifying certain MLAs, prohibiting them from
contesting elections and becoming members for the remaining term of the
Legislative Assembly. This Court upheld the decision of the Speaker on the
question of disqualification. However, it held that the Speaker does not have the
power to specify the period of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule. It was in
view of the unconstitutional exercise of power by the Speaker that this Court
expounded on the general principles that a Speaker is expected to follow while
adjudicating questions of disqualification.
84. A similar submission was made before this Court in the case of Keisham
26
Meghachandra Singh v. Hon’ble Speaker Manipur Legislative Assembly ,
where it was submitted that this Court should issue a writ of quo-warranto against
the appointment of an MLA as a minister when disqualifications petitions are
pending. Rejecting the submission, this Court held as under:
“ 8. Shri Kapil Sibal, learned Senior Advocate appearing
on behalf of the Appellant, in the Civil Appeal arising out
25
(2020) 2 SCC 595
26
(2020) SCC OnLine SC 55
67
PART E
| of SLP(C) No. 18659 of 2017, has argued that the | |
|---|
| Speaker in the present case has deliberately refused to | |
| decide the disqualification petitions before him…… In | |
| these circumstances, he has exhorted us to issue a writ | |
| of quo warranto against Respondent No. 3 stating that | |
| he has usurped a constitutional office, and to declare | |
| that he cannot do so… | |
| 32. It is not possible to accede to Shri Sibal's | |
|---|
| submission that this Court issue a writ of quo | |
| warranto quashing the appointment of the Respondent | |
| No. 3 as a minister of a cabinet led by a BJP | |
| government. Mrs. Madhavi Divan is right in stating that | |
| a disqualification under the Tenth Schedule from being | |
| an MLA and consequently minister must first be decided | |
| by the exclusive authority in this behalf, namely, the | |
| Speaker of the Manipur Legislative Assembly. It is also | |
| not possible to accede to the argument of Shri Sibal that | |
| the disqualification petition be decided by this Court in | |
| these appeals given the inaction of the Speaker. It | |
| cannot be said that the facts in the present case are | |
| similar to the facts in Rajinder Singh Rana (supra). In | |
| the present case, the life of the legislative assembly | |
| comes to an end only in March, 2022 unlike in Rajinder | |
| Singh Rana (supra) where, but for this Court deciding | |
| the disqualification petition in effect, no relief could have | |
| been given to the petitioner in that case as the life of the | |
| legislative assembly was about to come to an end. The | |
| only relief that can be given in these appeals is that the | |
| Speaker of the Manipur Legislative Assembly be | |
| directed to decide the disqualification petitions pending | |
| before him within a period of four weeks from the date | |
| on which this judgment is intimated to him. In case no | |
| decision is forthcoming even after a period of four | |
| weeks, it will be open to any party to the proceedings to | |
| apply to this Court for further directions/reliefs in the | |
| matter.” | |
85. The incumbent Speaker of the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly has been
duly elected by the MLAs in terms of the procedure laid down under the
Maharashtra Assembly Rules 1960. The petitioners have referred to the decision
of the Speaker to cancel the recognition of Mr. Sunil Prabhu as the Chief Whip of
the Shiv Sena on 3 July 2022 to argue that the Speaker is biased and impartial.
The decision of the Speaker to cancel the recognition of Mr. Prabhu has also been
68
PART E
challenged in the instant proceedings. Even if this Court sets aside the decision of
the Speaker cancelling the recognition of Mr. Prabhu on merits, it would not be a
sufficient reason for this Court to decide the disqualification petitions. We are also
unable to accept the alternative submission of the petitioners to direct the Deputy
Speaker to adjudicate the question of disqualification for the simple reason that the
Maharashtra Legislative Assembly has duly elected the Speaker, who has been
entrusted with the authority to decide disqualification petitions under the
Constitution. The Deputy Speaker can perform the duties of the Speaker only when
27
the office of the Speaker is vacant. As observed in Kihoto Hollohan (supra) and
(supra), the Speaker is expected to act fairly,
Shrimanth Balasaheb Patil
independently, and impartially while adjudicating the disqualification petitions
under the Tenth Schedule. Ultimately, the decision of the Speaker on the question
of disqualification is subject to judicial review. Therefore, this Court is of the opinion
that the Speaker of the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly is the appropriate
constitutional authority to decide the question of disqualification under the Tenth
Schedule.
iii. Validity of the proceedings of the House between the prohibitory conduct
and the decision in the disqualification petitions
86. In Rajendra Singh Rana (supra), a Constitution Bench of this Court
observed that disqualification is incurred at the point when the MLA indulges in
conduct prohibited under the Tenth Schedule. The petitioners rely on this
observation to contend that the validity of the proceedings in the House during the
27
Article 180 of the Constitution
69
PART E
pendency of the disqualification petitions depends on the outcome of the
disqualification petitions. The petitioners urge that though the MLAs cannot be
barred from participating in the proceedings of the House merely on the initiation
of disqualification petitions against them, the outcome of such proceedings will be
subject to the decision of the Speaker in the pending disqualification petitions. It is
important to understand the context in which this Court decided Rajendra Singh
Rana (supra) to appreciate the gamut of its observations.
87. A coalition Government, headed by the leader of the BSP, Ms. Mayawati,
th
was formed in May 2002 pursuant to the elections to the 14 Legislative Assembly
of Uttar Pradesh. On 27 August 2003, thirteen MLAs of the BSP wrote to the
Governor requesting him to invite the Leader of the Samajwadi Party to form the
Government. On 4 September 2003, the leader of the BSP filed disqualification
petitions against the thirteen MLAs under the provisions of Paragraph 2(1)(a) of
the Tenth Schedule. On 6 September 2003, thirty-seven MLAs of the BSP filed a
claim before the Speaker for recognition of a split in the party. They claimed that
pursuant to a meeting in Lucknow on 26 August 2003, the BSP split and that they
constituted the group representing a faction which had arisen as a result of the
split, namely the Lok Tantrik Bahujan Dal. On the very same day, the Speaker
accepted the claim of a split and recognized a separate group by the name Lok
Tantrik Bahujan Dal while the disqualification petitions were kept pending.
Proceedings under Article 226 of the Constitution were instituted before the High
Court challenging the order of the Speaker recognizing the split. The High Court
set aside the order of the Speaker and directed the Speaker to consider the
disqualification petitions instituted against the thirteen MLAs. The appeal against
70
PART E
the order of the High Court was disposed by the Constitution Bench in Rajendra
(supra).
Singh Rana
88. This Court held that the Speaker could not have decided whether a split
existed de hors the disqualification petitions. The Court considered the issue of the
point in time when the defence of a split must have existed. The respondents in
that case contended that the defence of a split in terms of Paragraph 3 must have
existed on the day on which the MLAs indulged in prohibitory conduct. In response,
the petitioners contended that it is sufficient for the MLAs to prove a split in terms
of Paragraph 3 as on the day when the disqualification petitions are decided by the
Speaker. It was in this context that this Court observed that the MLAs incurred
disqualification when they indulged in prohibitory conduct and therefore, the
defence to disqualification (in this case, a split) must also have existed when the
MLAs indulged in prohibitory conduct. The relevant observations are extracted
below:
“34. As we see it, the act of disqualification occurs on a
member voluntarily giving up his membership of a
political party or at the point of defiance of the whip
issued to him. Therefore, the act that constitutes
disqualification in terms of para 2 of the Tenth Schedule
is the act of giving up or defiance of the whip. The fact
that a decision in that regard may be taken in the
case of voluntary giving up, by the Speaker at a
subsequent point of time cannot and does not
postpone the incurring of disqualification by the act
Similarly, the fact that the party could
of the legislator.
condone the defiance of a whip within 15 days or that
the Speaker takes the decision only thereafter in those
cases, cannot also pitch the time of disqualification as
anything other than the point at which the whip is defied.
Therefore in the background of the object sought to be
achieved by the Fifty-second Amendment of the
Constitution and on a true understanding of para 2 of
the Tenth Schedule, with reference to the other
71
PART E
| paragraphs of the Tenth Schedule, the position that | |
|---|
| emerges is that the Speaker has to decide the | |
| question of disqualification with reference to the | |
| date on which the member voluntarily gives up his | |
| membership or defies the whip. It is really a | |
| decision ex post facto. The fact that in terms of para | |
| 6 a decision on the question has to be taken by the | |
| Speaker or the Chairman, cannot lead to a conclusion | |
| that the question has to be determined only with | |
| reference to the date of the decision of the Speaker. An | |
| interpretation of that nature would leave the | |
| disqualification to an indeterminate point of time and to | |
| the whims of the decision-making authority. The same | |
| would defeat the very object of enacting the law. Such | |
| an interpretation should be avoided to the extent | |
| possible. We are, therefore, of the view that the | |
| contention that (sic it is) only on a decision of the | |
| Speaker that the disqualification is incurred, cannot be | |
| accepted. This would mean that what the learned Chief | |
| Justice has called the snowballing effect, will also have | |
| to be ignored and the question will have to be decided | |
| with reference to the date on which the membership of | |
| the legislature party is alleged to have been voluntarily | |
| given up.” | |
89. The observations that are sought to be relied upon by the petitioners were
made in the context of deciding the relevant point of time at which the defence to
disqualification must have existed.
90. In (supra), five MLAs from Haryana Janhit Congress
Kuldeep Bishnoi
wrote to the Speaker of their intention to merge with the INC which formed the
Government in Haryana. The Speaker accepted the merger. Disqualification
petitions under Paragraph 2(1)(a) of the Tenth Schedule were instituted. The
Speaker incessantly adjourned the proceedings and did not decide on the
disqualification petitions for more than seven months. One of the orders of
adjournment was challenged before the High Court. The High Court directed the
72
PART E
Speaker to decide the petitions within four months, stayed the order recognizing
the merger, and declared the five MLAs to be unattached members. The High
Court directed that the five MLAs would neither be treated as a part of the INC nor
the Haryana Janhit Congress, and they would only have a right to attend the
session. On appeal, a two-Judge Bench of this Court set aside the direction
declaring the five MLAs as unattached members. In Kuldeep Bishnoi (supra), the
issue before this Court was whether the High Court could have passed an interim
order declaring members of the House as unattached members when
disqualification petitions were pending against them. This Court answered in the
negative. It observed that the MLAs were entitled to function without any
restrictions. This Court in Kuldeep Bishnoi (supra) did not address the argument
of whether the outcome of the proceedings of the House in the period intervening
the prohibitory act and decision in the disqualification petition, would be subject to
the decision. Thus, the contention that has been raised by the petitioners needs to
be considered afresh by this Court.
91. Article 191(2) provides that a person shall be disqualified for being a
member of the Legislative Assembly if they are so disqualified under the Tenth
Schedule. Article 190(3) stipulates that if an MLA incurs a disqualification under
the provisions of Article 191(2) read with Tenth Schedule, their seat shall thereupon
become vacant:
“190. […]
| (3) If a member of a House of the Legislature of a State | |
|---|
| – | |
| (a) becomes subject to any of the disqualifications | |
|---|
| mentioned in clause (1) or clause (2) of Article 191; or | |
73
PART E
| (b) resigns his seat by writing under his hand addressed | |
|---|
| to the Speaker or the Chairman, as the case may be, | |
| and his resignation is accepted by the Speaker or the | |
| Chairman, as the case may be, | |
his seat shall thereupon become vacant”
The term ‘ thereupon ’ denotes that the seat becomes vacant only from such date
when the Speaker decides the disqualification petition. An MLA has the right to
28
participate in the proceedings of the House until they are disqualified.
92. Articles 189(2) and 100(2) (the corresponding provisions for Parliament)
stipulate that the validity of any proceedings of the legislature shall not be
questioned on the ground that it was discovered subsequently that a legislator who
was not entitled to vote or sit, took part in the proceedings. Article 189(2) is
extracted below:
| “(2) A House of the Legislature of the State shall have | |
|---|
| power to act notwithstanding any vacancy in the | |
| membership thereof, and any proceedings in the | |
| Legislature of a State shall be valid notwithstanding that | |
| it was discovered subsequently that some person who | |
| was not entitled so to do sat or voted or otherwise took | |
| part in the proceedings.” | |
The provisions of Article 189(2) will have no bearing on the determination of this
issue because members of the House lose their right to participate in the
proceedings of the House only upon their disqualification. The decision of the
Speaker does not relate back to the date when the MLA indulged in prohibitory
28
See Shivraj Singh Chouhan (supra) and Pratap Gouda Patil (supra) where this Court observed that MLAs will
be reflected in the strength of the House until they are disqualified and will have the right to participate in the
proceedings.
74
PART E
conduct. The decision of the Speaker and the consequences of disqualification are
prospective.
93. Article 189(2) would only apply where it is subsequently discovered that an
MLA was not entitled to have voted. That situation does not arise here. Therefore,
it was not necessary for the respondents to take recourse to Article 189(2). The
proceedings of the House cannot be subject to the decision in the disqualification
petitions when the decision is prospective. Moreover, the interpretation advanced
by the petitioners would render the parliamentary system of governance
unworkable. Parliament undertakes innumerable functions on the floor of the
House, including passing legislations and approving the annual budget. These
actions of the legislators are irrevocable except in accordance with law. The
constitutional sanctity of the proceedings in Parliament or the state legislatures
cannot be set in a state of uncertainty. To allow the validity of such proceedings
to be subject to a future decision would lead to chaos. For the above reasons, the
action of the House in electing the Speaker, Mr. Rahul Narwekar, on 3 July 2022
is not invalid merely because some MLAs who participated in the election faced
disqualification proceedings. We accordingly answer the question referred to us as
noted in Paragraphs 32(d) and 32(e) of this judgment.
iv. The power to appoint the Whip and the Leader of the Legislature Party
94. The respondents have challenged the communication of the Deputy
Speaker dated 21 June 2022 appointing Mr. Ajay Choudhari as the Leader of the
SSLP. The petitioners have challenged the communication of the Speaker dated 3
July 2022 by which (i) the appointment of Mr. Ajay Choudhari was cancelled and
75
PART E
Mr. Shinde was appointed as the Leader of the SSLP; and (ii) Mr. Gogawale was
appointed as the Chief Whip in place of Mr. Sunil Prabhu. Before adjudicating on
the validity of the impugned communications, it is necessary to answer the
preliminary objection that the courts cannot inquire into communications
recognizing the Whip and the Leader of a legislature party because of the bar under
Article 212 of the Constitution.
a. The bar under Article 212: justiciability of legislative proceedings
95. Article 212(1) stipulates that the Court shall not inquire into the validity of the
proceedings of the Legislature of a State on the ground of any alleged irregularity
of procedure:
| “212. Courts not to inquire into proceedings of the | |
|---|
| Legislature.- (1) The validity of any proceedings in the | |
| Legislature of a State shall not be called in question on | |
| the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure.” | |
96. This Court has on earlier occasions construed the scope of the restriction
on judicial review of proceedings of the Legislature under Article 212 (and the
corresponding provision for Parliament, Article 122). In Special Reference No. 1
29
, a seven-
of 1964 (Powers, Privileges and Immunities of State Legislatures)
Judge Bench observed that Article 212 only restricts judicial review on the ground
of ‘irregularity of procedure’ and that proceedings of the legislature can still be
challenged if the ‘procedure is illegal and unconstitutional.’ In Raja Ram Pal
(supra), a Constitution Bench held that legislative proceedings can be challenged
29
AIR 1965 SC 745
76
PART E
on the grounds of ‘substantive illegality or unconstitutionality’. In Justice KS
30
v. , one of the issues before this Court
Puttaswamy Union of India (Aadhar 5J)
was whether Article 212 precluded judicial review of the Speaker’s authorization of
a Money Bill. Sikri, J. writing for the majority observed that Article 212 only limited
challenges on the ground of ‘irregularity of procedure’ and not ‘substantive
illegality’. One of us (D Y Chandrachud, J.) observed in his dissenting opinion that
Article 212 does not preclude judicial review of proceedings of a Legislature if the
decision of the Speaker suffers from “illegality or a violation of constitutional
31
provisions.” In Rojer Mathew v. South Indian Bank Ltd. , this Court observed
that a “gross violation of the constitutional scheme” cannot be considered a
procedural irregularity. This Court has consistently held that a substantive illegality
or a violation of a constitutional provision is distinct from a mere irregularity of
procedure and is amenable to judicial review.
97. Similar provisions barring Courts from interfering on the ground of
32
irregularity of procedure occur in the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973. Section
465 of the CrPC provides that a finding or a sentence cannot be reversed solely
on the ground of irregularity of proceedings unless, in the opinion of the Court,
33
there has been a failure of justice. The concept of irregularity of procedure is also
common in service jurisprudence. In the context of regularisation of employment,
this Court has held that while employees who were irregularly appointed can be
34
regularised, those appointed illegally cannot. In v. , this
State of UP Desh Raj
30
( 2019) 1 SCC 1
31
(2020) 6 SCC 1
32
“CrPC”
33
See Pradeep S Wodeyar v. State of Karnataka, 2021 SCC OnLine SC 1140
34
(2007) 1 SCC 257
77
PART E
Court held that “an appointment which was made throwing all constitutional
obligations and statutory rules to the winds would render the same illegal whereas
irregularity presupposes substantial compliance with the rules.” Thus, the issue of
whether the action violating a procedure would render the proceedings irregular or
illegal is specific to context of each case. It depends on the purpose of the
prescribed procedure and the consequence of non-compliance with such
procedure. This is true across diverse areas of law.
98. The House of the People and the Legislative Assemblies of States are
constituted of members directly elected by the electorate. The candidate who
secures the highest number of votes is returned to the Assembly. The political party
which reaches the half-way mark forms the government. A coalition of political
parties may form the government if no single political party reaches the half-way
mark. Articles 75 and 164 provide that the Council of Ministers is collectively
responsible to the House of the People and Legislative Assembly of the State
respectively. The legislators who are directly elected by the people have a duty to
hold the executive accountable on the floor of the House. Legislative procedures
serve two objectives - first , they enable deliberation and discussion on the floor of
the House to hold the executive accountable, and such deliberation also produces
better constitutional outcomes; and second , they create a system to place a check
on the exercise of power by the incumbent government. Certain procedural
requirements prescribed by the Constitution safeguard constitutional values. This
is reflected in Article 368 which prescribes a special majority to amend certain
constitutional provisions, which according to the members of the Constituent
Assembly hold a higher constitutional (and democratic) value. Certain other
78
PART E
legislative procedures further democratic processes and accountability, and
prevent the concentration of power in the hands of the incumbent government.
Article 212 cannot be interpreted as placing all procedural infringements beyond
the pale of judicial review. Such an interpretation would completely disregard the
importance of legislative processes in a constitutional democracy.
99. The distinction between irregular procedure and illegal procedure must be
drawn based on the nature of the procedure which was violated, and the impact of
such a violation on democratic ideals. An infringement of a procedure would be
irregular if the purpose of such procedure is unrelated to democratic ideals and its
violation does not go to the root of democratic processes.
100. The observations of this Court on the interpretation of Article 212 highlighted
above do not make a distinction between irregularity and illegality solely based on
the source of law. The distinction is not based on whether the procedure is
entrenched in the Constitution but whether it is crucial for the sustenance of
democracy. A violation of a procedure that fulfils the twin objectives highlighted
above and which is necessary for the sustenance of parliamentary democracy
would render the action illegal. On the other hand, a violation of a procedure that
establishes orderliness may only be irregular.
35
101. In Ramdas Athawale v. Union of India , a member of the Lok Sabha
challenged the validity of the proceedings in the Lok Sabha on the ground that the
President had not addressed both Houses of Parliament under Article 87 when the
35
(2010) 4 SCC 1
79
PART E
session commenced on 29 January 2004 which was the first session of the year.
The Speaker ruled that the sitting on 29 January 2004 could not be deemed to be
the first session of the year merely because it was the first session of the calendar
year, and that at best, it could be treated as the second part of the fourteenth
session of the Thirteenth Lok Sabha. This Court held that in view of the bar under
Article 122, the issue of whether the sitting on 29 January 2004 was a new session
or a second part of the same session was a “matter relating purely to the procedure
of Parliament”:
| “37. […] The Speaker’s decision adjourning the House | |
|---|
| sine die on 23-12-2003 and direction to resume its | |
| sittings in part two essentially relates to proceedings in | |
| Parliament and is procedural in nature. The business | |
| transacted and the validity of proceedings after the | |
| resumption of its sittings pursuant to the directions of | |
| the Speaker cannot be inquired into by the courts.” | |
The observations in Ramdas Athawale (supra) that it was purely a matter of
procedure cannot be interpreted to mean that procedural infringements are not subject
to judicial review. This Court observed that the procedure that was alleged to have
been violated would only render the proceedings irregular and that it would not vitiate
the proceedings themselves. The observations in (supra) must be
Ramdas Athawale
read in light of our analysis above that procedural infringements would vitiate the
proceedings based on their purpose and the impact of their infringement on the
democratic functioning of Parliament.
b. The power to appoint the Whip and the Leader of the legislature party
I. ‘Political party’ and ‘legislature party’ are distinguishable concepts.
102. Paragraph 1(b) of the Tenth Schedule defines “legislature party” as follows:
80
PART E
| “legislature party, in relation to a member of a House | |
|---|
| belonging to any political party in accordance with the | |
| provisions of paragraph 2 or paragraph 4, means the | |
| group consisting of all the members of that House for | |
| the time being belonging to that political party in | |
| accordance with the same provisions” | |
Paragraph 1(c) defines “original political party” as the political party to which the
member belongs for the purposes of Paragraph 2(1). Paragraph 2 stipulates that
a member belonging to ‘any political party’ shall be disqualified from being a
member of the House if they have voluntarily given up membership of such political
party, or if they vote contrary to the direction issued by the political party to which
they belong or by any person or authority authorised by it. A member who has
voted contrary to the direction of the political party would not incur disqualification
if such a vote is condoned by the political party or if the prior permission of the
political party is secured:
| “2. Disqualification on ground of defection.—(1) Subject | |
|---|
| to the provisions of 3 [paragraphs 4 and 5], a member of | |
| a House belonging to any political party shall be | |
| disqualified for being a member of the House— | |
| (a) if he has voluntarily given up his membership of such | |
|---|
| political party; or | |
| (b) if he votes or abstains from voting in such House | |
|---|
| contrary to any direction issued by the political party | |
| to which he belongs or by any person or authority | |
| authorised by it in this behalf, without obtaining, in | |
| either case, the prior permission of such political party, | |
| person or authority and such voting or abstention has not | |
| been condoned by such political party, person or | |
| authority within fifteen days from the date of such voting | |
| or abstention. | |
| Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-paragraph,— | |
|---|
| (a) an elected member of a House shall be deemed to | |
| belong to the political party, if any, by which he was set | |
| up as a candidate for election as such member;” | |
81
PART E
(emphasis supplied)
103. The petitioners contend that the Whip and the Leader must be appointed by
the political party because Paragraph 2(1)(b) requires that the direction to vote in
a particular manner in the House must be from the political party or a person
authorised by it , meaning the political party. The respondents submit that the
distinction between political party and legislature party is artificial and that they are
intertwined concepts. For this purpose, reference was made to Paragraph 4(2) of
the Tenth Schedule and Paragraph 6A of the Symbols Order. The term ‘political
party’ is not defined in the Tenth Schedule. However, the explanation to Paragraph
2 creates a deeming fiction while referring to political parties. The explanation to
Paragraph 2 provides that an elected member of a House shall be deemed to
belong to the political party by which they were set up as a candidate for election.
Paragraph 4 creates another deeming fiction. The provision provides that if the
“original political party” merges with another political party and they become
members of such other political party or a new political party, then such other
political party or the new political party shall be deemed to be the political party of
the member for the purposes of Paragraph 2. To illustrate, Ms. Z belonging to
party A shall not be disqualified for voting against the direction of party A if party A
merges with party B to form party C or if party A is subsumed by party B. This is
because for the purposes of Tenth Schedule, Party B or Party C shall be deemed
to be their original political party. Paragraph 4(2) stipulates that a merger is deemed
to have taken place only if not less than two-third of the members of the legislature
party have agreed to the merger:
“4. […]
82
PART E
| (2) For the purposes of sub-paragraph (1) of this | |
|---|
| paragraph, the merger of the original political party of a | |
| member of a House shall be deemed to have taken | |
| place if, and only if, not less than two-thirds of the | |
| members of the legislature party concerned have | |
| agreed to such merger.” | |
Paragraph 3 which was omitted by the Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act 2003
stipulated that a member would not be disqualified for their prohibitory conduct if there
is a split in the original political party and the legislature party.
104. Paragraph 6A of the Symbols Order lays down conditions for the recognition
of a political party as a recognized State party for the purposes of the Symbols
Order. The provision provides that the political party must have secured a certain
percentage of votes and should have returned a certain number of candidates to
the assembly to be recognized as a State party:
| “6A. Conditions for recognition as a State Party – A | |
|---|
| political party shall be eligible for recognition as a State | |
| party in a State, if, and only if, any of the following | |
| conditions is fulfilled: | |
| (i)At the last general election to the Legislative | |
|---|
| Assembly of the State, the candidates set up by the | |
| party have secured not less than six percent of the total | |
| valid votes polled in the State; and, in addition, the party | |
| has returned at least two members to the Legislative | |
| Assembly of that State at such general election; or | |
| (ii)At the last general election to the House of the | |
|---|
| People from that State, the candidates set up by the | |
| party have secured not less than six percent of the total | |
| valid votes polled in the State; and, in addition, the party | |
| has returned at least one member to the House of the | |
| People from that State at such general election; or | |
(iii)At the last general election to the Legislative
Assembly of the State, the party has won at least three
percent of the total number of seats in the Legislative
Assembly, (any fraction exceeding half being counted
83
PART E
| as one), or at least three seats in the Assembly, | |
|---|
| whichever is more; or | |
| (iv)At the last general election to the House of the | |
|---|
| People from the State, the party has returned at least | |
| one member to the House of the People for every 25 | |
| members or any fraction thereof allotted to that State;] | |
| or | |
| (v)At the last general election to the House of the | |
|---|
| People from the State, or at the last general election to | |
| the Legislative Assembly of the State, the candidates | |
| set up by the Party have secured not less than eight | |
| percent of the total valid votes polled in the State.” | |
105. ‘Political party’ and ‘legislature party’ cannot be conflated. The contention of
the respondents that political party and legislature party is inextricably intertwined
is erroneous for the following reasons:
a. Parliament in its constituent capacity was conscious of the necessity of
not allowing anti-defection laws to stifle intra-party dissent and the
freedom of expression of legislators. It was with this objective that the
defences of merger, and split (which was later omitted) were introduced.
The Tenth Schedule confers legitimacy to the actions of the legislators
which would otherwise lead to disqualification if a substantial number of
legislators (two-third in the case of a merger, and one-third in the case
of the erstwhile provision for a split) disagree with the political party. The
Tenth Schedule recognizes the independent existence of the legislature
party to the limited extent of presenting a defence to the actions of the
legislators which would otherwise have amounted to defection; and
b. Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act 1951 requires an
association of individuals calling itself a political party to be registered
84
PART E
with the ECI. The party need not have returned candidates to the
assembly to be registered as a political party. Under the Symbols Order,
a political party receives recognition as a State Party or a National Party
based on the total number of candidates returned to the assembly by the
political party, and/or the total percentage of votes secured in the
election. The purpose of the requirement under the Symbols Order is to
identify whether the political party has a substantial presence in the
electoral fray to freeze an electoral symbol for that party. The Symbols
Order does not refer to an association of legislators de hors the political
party like the Tenth Schedule. It recognises a ‘legislator’ and a ‘political
party.’ Thus, the reference to provisions of the Symbols Order to argue
that the concepts of political party and legislature party are intertwined
does not hold merit because the concept of legislature party is not
recognized by the Symbols Order.
II. Literal and purposive interpretation of the provisions of the Tenth Schedule,
the 1986 Rules, and the Act of 1956
106. Rule 2(f) of the 1986 Rules defines ‘leader’ in relation to a legislature party
as a member of the party chosen by it as its leader and includes any other member
of the party authorised by the party to act in the absence of the leader. Rule 3(1)
states that the leader of a legislature party must furnish the following within thirty
days of forming the legislature party:
a. A statement in writing containing the names of members of the legislature
party with the particulars of the members as specified in Form I, and the
85
PART E
names and designations of the members who have been authorised by it
for communicating with the Speaker for the purposes of these rules;
b. A copy of the rules and regulations of the political party; and
c. A copy of the rules and regulations of the legislature party, if it has
separate rules.
Rule 3(1) is extracted below:
| “3. Information to be furnished by leader of a legislature | |
|---|
| party.— | |
| (1) The leader of each legislature party (other than a | |
|---|
| legislature party consisting of only one member) shall | |
| within thirty days from the date of commencement of | |
| these rules or, where such legislature party is formed | |
| after such date within thirty days from the date of its | |
| formation, or, in either case, within such further period | |
| as the Speaker may for sufficient cause allow, furnish | |
| the following to the Speaker, namely | |
| :— | |
| (a) a statement (in writing) containing the names of | |
|---|
| members of such legislature party together with other | |
| particulars regarding such members as in Form- I, and | |
| the names and designations of the members of such | |
| party who have been authorised by it for communicating | |
| with the Speaker for purposes of these rules ; | |
| (b) a copy of the rules and regulations (whether known | |
|---|
| as such or as Constitution or by any other name) of the | |
| political party concerned ; and | |
| (c) where such legislature party has any separate set of | |
|---|
| rules and regulations (whether known as such or as | |
| Constitution or by any other name), also a copy of such | |
| rules and regulations. | |
[...]”
86
PART E
107. Rule 3(4) stipulates that the Leader of the legislature party must furnish the
updated information if there has been a change in the information furnished under
Rule 3(1). Rule 3(5) states that if a member votes or abstains from voting in the
assembly contrary to the direction of the political party without the prior permission
of the political party, the Leader of the legislature Party may within thirty days of
such voting or abstention communicate to the Speaker as to whether such voting
or abstention has been condoned by the political party. The rule also stipulates that
the Leader must inform the Speaker even if they voted contrary to the direction of
the political party. The 1986 Rules neither use nor define the term ‘Whip’.
108. The term ‘Whip’ is defined in the Act of 1956. Section 2 of the Act of 1956
provides that an MLA shall not be disqualified for holding the offices stipulated in
Schedule I. Clause 23 of Schedule I mentions the offices of Chief Whip or Whip in
the Maharashtra State Legislature. The explanation to this clause defines a Whip
as follows:
| “Explanation.- (1) The expression “Chief Whip” or | |
|---|
| “Whip”, in relation to the Maharashtra Legislative | |
| Assembly, means that Member of the House who is, for | |
| the time being, declared by the party forming the | |
| Government to be the Chief Whip or Whip in that House | |
| and recognized as such by the Speaker; and includes a | |
| member of the House, who, is for the time being, | |
| declared as such by the party having at-least ten | |
| percent of the total number of the House and | |
| recognized as such by the Speaker; and | |
(2) The expression “Chief Whip” or “whip”, in relation to
the Maharashtra Legislative Council, means that
member of the House who is, for the time being,
declared by the party forming the Government to be the
Chief Whip or Whip in the House and recognized as
such by the Chairman; and includes a member of the
House, who, is for the time being, declared as such by
the party having at-least ten percent of the total
87
PART E
| members of the House and recognized as such by the | |
|---|
| Chairman.” | |
109. On a literal interpretation of the provisions of the Tenth Schedule, the 1986
Rules and the Act of 1956, the direction to vote or abstain from voting arises from
the political party and not the legislature party for the following reasons:
a. Paragraph 2(1)(b) of the Tenth Schedule provides that the direction to
vote or abstain from voting must be issued by the political party or by
“any person or authority authorised by it,” with the word ‘it’ referring to
the political party. The provision states that prior permission must have
been received from the political party if the member wants to vote
contrary to the direction issued, and the political party must condone
such action within fifteen days. The provisions of the Tenth Schedule
stipulate in unequivocal terms that the direction must come from the
political party and not the legislature party. The distinction between
political party and legislature party is made in the definition clause in
Paragraph 1. There are no two ways about it. The Tenth Schedule would
become unworkable if the term ‘political party’ is read as the ‘legislature
party.’ A clear demarcation is made between political party and
legislature party for the purpose of a merger under Paragraph 4, which
stipulates that two-thirds of the members of the legislature party must
have agreed to a merger of the original political party before such a
merger can be deemed to have taken place. To read the term ‘political
party’ as ‘legislature party’ would be contrary to the plain language of the
Tenth Schedule;
88
PART E
b. It is an accepted position that the Whip communicates the directions of
the party to its members. The phrase ‘Whip’ is neither used in the Tenth
Schedule nor in the 1986 Rules. The phrase finds a mention in the Act
of 1956 as one of the offices that would not be covered within the
meaning of ‘office of profit.’ The explanation to Clause 23 of Schedule I
in the Act of 1956 states that the Chief Whip is declared by the party
forming the Government. The reference to ‘party’ in the explanation
clause means political party and not legislature party because the term
‘party’ is used to depict political party in common parlance; and
c. The respondents urge that the Whip is chosen by the legislature party
because Rule 3(1)(a) of the 1986 Rules provides that the Leader shall
inform the Speaker of the names and designations of the members who
have been authorised by it for communicating with the Speaker for the
purposes of these rules. This argument is erroneous. The phrase ‘any
other member who has been authorised to communicate with the
Speaker’ in Rule 3(1)(a) must be read with the definition of ‘Leader’
under Rule 2(f), which includes such other member authorised to act in
the absence of the Leader or discharge the functions of the Leader for
the purpose of the Rules. When read together, it is evident that Rule
3(1)(a) refers to the furnishing of information about members who have
been authorised to act as the Leader in the absence of the Leader
themselves. The Whip interacts with the members of the legislature
party to communicate the direction(s) of the political party. Rule 3(5)
which prescribes that the Leader has to inform the Speaker if the political
89
PART E
party has condoned the prohibitory actions of the members of the
legislature party clearly establishes that it is only the Leader who
communicates with the Speaker for the purposes of the 1986 Rules. This
is all the more evident since Rule 3(5) requires the Leader to inform the
Speaker in a situation where the Leader votes or abstains from voting
contrary to the direction of the political party. Under the 1986 Rules, the
Whip is not the designated authority to file disqualification petitions. Rule
6 provides that a petition for disqualification can be filed by any member
of the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly. The argument of the
respondents that the legislature party appoints the Whip fails, so far as
it is based on the provisions of the 1986 Rules discussed in this
paragraph.
110. In (supra), the appellant issued a direction to all the MLAs of the
Mayawati
BSP directing them to vote against the motion of no confidence moved by the BJP.
Twelve MLAs belonging to the BSP voted in favour of the no confidence motion.
The appellant filed petitions for disqualification against these twelve MLAs for the
violation of Paragraphs 2(1)(a) and 2(1)(b). The Speaker dismissed the
disqualification petitions. One of the findings of the Speaker was that it was not
proved that the appellant was authorised to issue the direction on behalf of the
political party. The order of the Speaker was challenged before this Court. It was
submitted that ‘political party’ in Paragraph 2(1)(b) must be read as ‘political party
in the House’, meaning the legislature party. Srinivasan, J. in his separate opinion
rejected this argument and upheld the order of the Speaker by observing that there
was no material to indicate that the appellant was authorised by the BSP to issue
90
PART E
the direction. In this context, Srinivasan, J. held that ‘political party’ cannot be read
as ‘legislature party’ for the following reasons:
a. The phrase ‘political party’ in Paragraph 2(1)(b) cannot be interpreted to
mean legislative party while the same phrase in Paragraph 2(1)(a)
retains its original meaning;
b. Such an interpretation would render explanation(a) to Paragraph 2(1)
otiose because a legislature party cannot set up a person as a candidate
for election;
c. Disqualification from membership of the assembly is a serious
consequence. Such a consequence can only ensue from voting contrary
to the direction of the political party; and
d. In Kihoto Hollohan (supra), it was held that to balance the competing
considerations of the anti-defection law and intra-party dissent, a
direction to vote (or abstain from voting) can only be given if the vote
would alter the status of the government formed or if it is on a policy on
which the political party that set up the candidate went to polls on. Only
the political party and not the legislature party can issue directions
concerning issues of this nature.
111. Hence, the plain meaning of the provisions of the Tenth Schedule, 1986
Rules, and Act of 1956 indicate that the Whip and the Leader must be appointed
by the political party.
91
PART E
112. The Tenth Schedule was introduced to thwart the growing tendency of
legislators to shift allegiance to another political party after being elected on the
ticket of a certain political party. The defection of MLAs would alter the composition
of the House, and in most cases would lead to the toppling of the Government.
Moral and democratic principles are compromised when a legislator shifts
allegiance after the electorate votes for that legislator on the belief that they
represent the ideology of a certain political party. The Tenth Schedule was
introduced, as the Statement of Objects and Reasons of the Constitution (Fifty
Second Amendment) Bill 1985 states, to combat the evil of political defections
which was “likely to undermine the very foundations of our democracy and the
36
principles which sustain it.” In Kihoto Hollohan (supra), SR Bommai , and
37
Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India this Court recognized that political parties are
central to the Indian democratic set-up, and that the Tenth Schedule seeks to curb
defections from political parties. When the anti-defection law seeks to curb
defections from a political party, it is only a logical corollary to recognize that the
power to appoint a Whip vests with the political party.
113. To hold that it is the legislature party which appoints the Whip would be to
sever the figurative umbilical cord which connects a member of the House to the
political party. It would mean that legislators could rely on the political party for the
purpose of setting them up for election, that their campaign would be based on the
strengths (and weaknesses) of the political party and its promises and policies, that
36
Statement of Objects and Reasons appended to the Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Bill, 1985 (Bill No.
22 of 1985) which was enacted as the Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985
37
(2006) 7 SCC 1
92
PART E
they could appeal to the voters on the basis of their affiliation with the party, but
that they can later disconnect themselves entirely from that very party and be able
to function as a group of MLAs which no longer owes even a hint of allegiance to
the political party. This is not the system of governance that is envisaged by the
Constitution. In fact, the Tenth Schedule guards against precisely this outcome.
114. That a Whip be appointed by the political party is crucial for the sustenance
of the Tenth Schedule. The entire structure of the Tenth Schedule which is built on
political parties would crumble if this requirement is not complied with. It would
render the provisions of the Tenth Schedule otiose and have wider ramifications
for the democratic fabric of this country. Thus, the Courts cannot be excluded by
Article 212 from inquiring into the validity of the action of the Speaker recognizing
the Whip.
115. On 25 November 2019, a meeting with the newly elected MLAs belonging
to the Shiv Sena was chaired by Mr. Uddhav Thackeray, in his capacity as the Shiv
Sena Party President (‘Paksh Pramukh’). The resolution notes that the MLAs
unanimously resolved that all decisions in the meeting would be taken by Mr.
Thackeray. A resolution was issued appointing Mr. Eknath Shinde as the Group
Leader of SSLP and Mr. Sunil Prabhu as the Chief Whip. On 21 June 2022, some
members of the SSLP held a meeting under the chairmanship of the president of
the Shiv Sena, Mr. Uddhav Thackeray. In the meeting, it was resolved to remove
Mr. Shinde as the Group Leader of the SSLP, and appoint Mr. Ajay Choudari. The
resolution was signed by Mr. Uddhav Thackeray in his capacity as the party
president on the official letterhead of the office of the SSLP.
93
PART E
116. It is the case of the respondents that on the same day, that is, 21 June 2022,
a separate meeting of the “real” SSLP was held. At this meeting, thirty-four
members of the SSLP issued a resolution (i) reaffirming that Mr. Shinde who was
appointed as the Leader of the SSLP on 31 October 2019 continued to be Leader;
and (ii) cancelling the appointment of Mr. Sunil Prabhu as the Chief Whip and
appointing Mr. Gogawale in his place. The resolution inter alia stated that (i) there
was enormous discontent amongst the cadre and party workers of Shiv Sena for
breaking the pre-poll alliance with BJP and forming the Government with INC and
NCP; and (ii) the leaders of the Shiv Sena had compromised on the principles of
the Shiv Sena party to attain power. The petitioners contend that this letter was
issued on 22 June 2022 and has been back dated as 21 June 2022.
117. By an order dated 21 June 2022, the Deputy Speaker (who was at the time
discharging the functions of the Speaker) approved the request to appoint Mr. Ajay
Choudari as the Leader of SSLP. Meanwhile, on 3 July 2022, the election for the
post of Speaker was held. Mr. Rahul Narwekar, the candidate of BJP was elected
as the Speaker. On the same day, the Speaker took cognizance of the resolution
passed by thirty-four MLAs belonging to the faction led by Mr. Shinde and
appointed Mr. Shinde as the Leader and Mr. Gogawale as the Chief Whip. The
Deputy Secretary of the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly issued a
communication that the Speaker has recognised a new Whip and a new Leader of
the SSLP:
“With reference to your abovementioned letter, I have
been ordered to inform you that you have been replaced
from the post of Leader of Legislative Party by
nominating the name of Shri Ajay Choudhari. In this
regard, you have raised the objection by addressing the
94
PART E
| letter on 22nd June. In this regard, after deliberation on | |
|---|
| provision in the law, Hon’ble Speaker, Maharashtra | |
| Legislative Assembly has cancelled the approval | |
| granted to Shri Ajay Choudhari as leader, Shiv Sena | |
| Legislature Party and approves & recognizes the | |
| nomination of Shri Eknath Shinde as Leader, Shiv Sena | |
| Legislative Party as per the letter dated 31 October | |
| 2019. Similarly, the proposal to nominate Shri Sunil | |
| Prabhu as Chief Whip of Shiv Sena Legislative Party is | |
| to be cancelled and to recognize the nomination of Shri | |
| Bharat Gogavale as Chief Whip of Shiv Sena | |
| Legislature Party has been approved and recorded in | |
| the registry.” | |
118. It is important to note that the above communication (i) recognizes that the
faction led by Mr. Shinde objected to the communication of the Deputy Speaker
replacing Mr. Shinde as the Leader by a resolution dated 22 June 2022; and (ii)
appreciates the objection of the faction led by Mr. Shinde to the appointment of Mr.
Choudhari to the role of Leader. We will proceed on the assumption that the
objection by the faction led by Mr. Shinde was received by the Speaker on 22 June
2022 since the communication of the Speaker notes this date.
119. The Speaker was aware of the emergence of two factions in the legislature
party on 3 July 2022 when he appointed a new Whip and a new Leader because
the resolution of the respondents specifically mentions that a “split” had occurred
due to prevailing dissatisfaction in some MLAs of the Shiv Sena. Further, the fact
that there were two resolutions appointing two different Whips and two different
Leaders would no doubt have resulted in the Speaker inferring that there were two
factions of the Shiv Sena. The Speaker on taking cognizance of the resolution
passed by the faction of SSLP led by Mr. Shinde, did not attempt to identify which
of the two persons who were nominated (Mr. Prabhu or Mr. Gogawale) were
95
PART E
authorised by the political party . In a contentious situation such as this, the Speaker
should have conducted an independent inquiry based on the rules and regulations
of the political party to identify the Whip authorised by the Shiv Sena Political Party.
For the reasons detailed in the preceding paragraphs, the Speaker must only
recognize the Whip appointed by the political party. The decision of the Speaker
recognizing Mr. Gogawale as the Chief Whip of the Shiv Sena is illegal because
the recognition was based on the resolution of a faction of the SSLP without
undertaking an exercise to determine if it was the decision of the political party.
120. Rule 2(f) defines ‘Leader’ in relation to the legislature party as a member of
the party chosen by it as its leader. The term ‘party’ is ambiguous. It is not preceded
by either ‘political’ or ‘legislature’. It may be interpreted to mean ‘legislature party’
because the definition clause defines a Leader in relation to ‘legislature party’ and
then proceeds to use the phrase ‘party.’ Alternatively, it could also take the
meaning of ‘political party’ because ‘party’ in common parlance means ‘political
party.’
121. Under Paragraph 8(1)(b) of the Tenth Schedule and Rule 3(5) of the 1986
Rules, the Leader of the legislature party is required to inform the Speaker if the
political party condoned the prohibitory act under Paragraph 2(1)(b) of the Tenth
Schedule. Thus, the Leader of the legislature party is the link between the political
party and the legislative assembly. If the interpretation of the respondents is
accepted, the action of the leader condoning an MLA’s prohibitory conduct would
not reflect the voice of the political party and would instead reflect the voice of the
legislature party. This would be contrary to the manner in which the Tenth Schedule
96
PART E
is intended to operate. The manner in which the Tenth Schedule would then
operate would not effectively prevent or provide a solution to the constitutional sin
of defection.
122. On 21 June 2022, there was no material on record before the Deputy
Speaker for him to doubt that the resolution of SSLP dated 21 June 2022
(appointing Mr. Ajay Choudhari as the Leader of the SSLP) was de hors the
political party, or that two factions of the party had emerged. The resolution was
signed by Mr. Thackeray in his capacity as the party president much like the
resolution appointing the Whip and Leader in 2019. This makes it evident that Mr.
Thackeray issued the communication on behalf of the political party. Thus, the
decision of the Deputy Speaker recognising Mr. Ajay Choudhari as the Whip in
place of Mr. Eknath Shinde is valid.
123. However, the resolution passed by SSLP on 22 June 2022 brought to the
attention of the Speaker that it was passed by a faction of the SSLP. Thus, the
Speaker by recognising the action of a faction of the SSLP without determining
whether they represented the will of the political party acted contrary to the
provisions of the Tenth Schedule, the 1986 Rules, and the Act of 1956. The
decision of the Speaker recognising Mr. Shinde as the Leader is illegal.
124. The Speaker must recognize the Whip and the Leader who are duly
authorised by the political party with reference to the provisions of the party
constitution, after conducting an enquiry in this regard and in keeping with the
principles discussed in this judgement.
97
PART E
v. Deciding who the “real” Shiv Sena is
125. Time and again, the parties before this Court asserted that they were the
“real” Shiv Sena. In cases such as the present one, the answer to this question will
have implications in the disqualification proceedings under the Tenth Schedule as
well as proceedings for the allotment of a symbol under the Symbols Order.
126. The petitioners argue that this Court ought to lay down a constitutional
sequence in order to harmonise proceedings for disqualification under the Tenth
Schedule, the notice of intention to move a resolution for the removal of the
Speaker under Article 179(c) of the Constitution, and the allotment of an election
symbol under Paragraph 15 of the Symbols Order.
127. Since we have referred the issues arising from the issuance of a notice of
intention to move a resolution for the removal of the Speaker under Article 179(c)
to a larger Bench, it only remains for us to consider the manner in which the
remaining two proceedings ought to be harmonized.
a. The purpose of the Tenth Schedule and the effect of disqualification
128. As discussed extensively in this judgement as well as in other judgements
of this Court, the purpose of the Tenth Schedule is to disincentivize and penalize
38
the constitutional sin of defection. A violation of the anti-defection law results in
a member of the House being:
38
Kihoto Hollohan (surpa); Nabam Rebia (supra)
98
PART E
39
a. Disqualified from the House;
b. Disqualified from holding any remunerative political post for the duration
of the period commencing from the date of their disqualification till the
date on which the term of their office as a member of the House would
expire or till the date on which they contest election to a House and are
40
declared elected, whichever is earlier; and
c. Disqualified from being appointed as a Minister for the duration of the
period commencing from the date of their disqualification till the date on
which the term of their office as a member of the House would expire or
till the date on which they contest election to a House and are declared
41
elected, whichever is earlier.
129. These consequences ensure that a member of the House is unable to reap
the fruits of defection within the House. Significantly, the Tenth Schedule does not
have a bearing on the status of a disqualified member of a House vis-à-vis their
political party. In other words, if a member incurs disqualification under the Tenth
Schedule, it does not automatically result in their expulsion from the political party
to which they belong. It is up to the political party and its internal processes to
determine whether to expel a member.
39
Paragraph 2, Tenth Schedule, Constitution of India 1950
40
Article 361-B, Constitution of India 1950
41
Article 75(1-B) and Article 164(1-B), Constitution of India 1950
99
PART E
b. The purpose of the Symbols Order and the effect of the decision under
Paragraph 15
130. The ECI issued the Symbols Order in 1968 in exercise of the powers
conferred by Article 324 of the Constitution read with Section 29A of the
Representation of the People Act 1951 and Rules 5 and 10 of the Conduct of
Elections Rules 1961. The Symbols Order governs the reservation and allotment
of symbols to candidates for the purpose of elections. The preamble to the Symbols
Order states that it is:
| “An Order to provide for specification, reservation, | |
|---|
| choice and allotment of symbols at elections in | |
| Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies, for the | |
| recognition of political parties in relation thereto and for | |
| matters connected therewith.” | |
131. Political parties are classified into recognised political parties and
42
unrecognised political parties under the Symbols Order. Recognised political
43
parties are further classified into National Parties and State Parties. The ECI
recognizes political parties as National Parties or State Parties if they satisfy the
44
requirements prescribed in the Symbols Order.
132. The ECI allots a symbol to every candidate who contests elections, in
45
accordance with the Symbols Order. Some symbols are called “reserved
symbols” because they are reserved for a recognised political party and are
exclusively allotted to candidates set up by that party and the remaining symbols
42
Paragraph 6(1), Symbols Order
43
Paragraph 6(2), Symbols Order
44
Paragraphs 6A, 6B, 6C, Symbols Order
45
Paragraph 4, Symbols Order
100
PART E
46
are called “free symbols.” The political party is granted recognition under the
Symbols Order based on the total number of candidates returned to the Legislative
Assembly or the total percentage of votes secured by the political party.
Candidates set up by recognised political parties must contest elections by using
47
the symbol that is reserved for their party, and no other symbol. In contrast,
candidates other than those who are set up by national or state political parties and
48
who do not fall under certain special categories, may choose and will be allotted
49
a free symbol. Reserved symbols are not allotted to candidates who are not set
50
up by the political party for which that symbol has been reserved.
133. From this, it is evident that the purpose of the Symbols Order is:
a. To provide a uniform procedure for the recognition of political parties; and
b. To provide a uniform and just system for the allotment of symbols for
candidates to contest in elections.
134. The raison d'être for the Symbols Order is the fact that political parties (and
‘independent’ candidates) rely on the symbol allotted to them while campaigning
to the electorate. To a significant extent, the electorate too, associates the symbol
allotted to a party with the party itself and with the candidates set up for election by
that party. The association between the party, the candidates set up for election by
that party, and the symbol is strengthened with the passage of time. This
46
Paragraph 5, Symbols Order
47
Paragraph 8, Symbols Order
48
Paragraphs 10, 10A, 10B, Symbols Order
49
Paragraph 12, Symbols Order
50
Paragraph 8(3), Symbols Order
101
PART E
association becomes significant in the polling booth when voters press the button
on the Electronic Voting Machine to register their vote for a particular candidate
because the symbol is depicted on or next to the button. The association is doubly
significant for voters who have not had the opportunity to attain literacy and who
rely solely on symbols to cast their vote. In this way, symbols are crucial to the
contest of elections. It is therefore not surprising that when rival factions of a
political party emerge, both or all such factions vie for the symbol allotted to that
party.
135. The ECI is empowered to adjudicate disputes between rival sections or
groups of a recognised political party, each of whom claims to be that party, under
Paragraph 15 of the Symbols Order. When such a dispute arises, the ECI will
decide if one of the rival sections or groups is that recognised political party. In the
alternative, it may decide that none of the rival groups is that recognised political
party. The decision of the ECI is to be based on a consideration of all the available
facts and circumstances as well as the representations advanced by the rival
groups and other persons who desire to be heard. Paragraph 15 is reproduced
below:
| “15. Power of Commission in relation to splinter groups | |
|---|
| or rival sections of a recognised political party – | |
When the Commission is satisfied on information in its
possession that there are rival sections or groups of a
recognised political party each of whom claims to be
that party, the Commission may, after taking into
account all the available facts and circumstances of the
case and hearing such representatives of the sections
or groups and other persons as desire to be heard,
decide that one such rival section or group or none of
such rival sections or groups is that recognised political
102
PART E
| party and the decision of the Commission shall be | |
|---|
| binding on all such rival sections or groups.” | |
136. The natural consequence of the decision of the ECI is that the group that is
recognised as constituting the political party is allotted the symbol that was
reserved for that political party. Prior to 1997, the faction which was not granted
the symbol of the political party (and by corollary was not recognised as the political
party) was also recognised as a National Party or a State Party under the Symbols
51
Order. The ECI departed from this practice in 1997. The ECI has since held that
the faction that is not recognised as the political party in the proceedings under
Paragraph 15 cannot be automatically recognised as a State or National Party
because its members were not elected on the ticket of the newly formed political
52
party but on the ticket of the political party from which their faction emerged. The
unsuccessful group must now apply for the registration of its political party under
Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act 1951. The ECI will allot a
symbol to the political party when it is recognised as a State or National Party under
the Symbols Order.
137. The essence of the decision of the ECI cannot be understood as solely a
determination as to who is entitled to the symbol for the purposes of election. While
that is the outcome of the decision under Paragraph 15, the substance of the
decision is the determination as to which of the groups is the lifeblood of the
recognised political party. In order to reach a determination as to which group is
51
V S Rama Devi and S K Mendiratta, How India Votes (3rd edition, 2014), at 621
52
V S Rama Devi and S K Mendiratta, How India Votes (3rd edition, 2014), at 621-622
103
PART E
entitled to the symbol, it becomes necessary for the ECI to adjudicate which group
is that political party itself. In other words, the ECI determines who the “real”
political party is and the symbol is allotted as a consequence of this decision.
138. In this regard, in Sadiq Ali (supra), this Court held that:
| “35. …The allotment of a symbol to the candidates set | |
|---|
| up by a political party is a legal right and in case of split, | |
| the Commission has been authorised to determine | |
| which of the rival groups or sections is the party which | |
| was entitled to the symbol. The Commission in | |
| resolving this dispute does not decide as to which | |
| group represents the party but which group is that | |
| party. If it were a question of representation, even a | |
| small group according to the Constitution of the | |
| organisation may be entitled to represent the party. | |
| Where, however, the question arises as to which of the | |
| rival groups is the party, the question assumes a | |
| different complexion and the numerical strength of each | |
| group becomes an important and relevant factor. It | |
| cannot be gainsaid that in deciding which group is | |
| the party, the Commission has to decide as to | |
| which group substantially constitutes the party.” | |
(emphasis supplied)
c. The test(s) applicable to disputes under Paragraph 15 of the Symbols Order
139. Paragraph 15 stipulates that the ECI must take into account all the available
facts and circumstances of the case and hear representatives of the rival groups
and other persons who wish to be heard. However, neither Paragraph 15 nor the
other provisions of the Symbols Order specify the test which is to be applied by the
ECI in arriving at its decision as to who the political party is. Similarly, no test is
excluded from application by the ECI. This means that the ECI is free to fashion a
test which is suited to the facts and complexities of the specific case before it.
104
PART E
140. In Sadiq Ali (supra), this Court had occasion to consider a few of the
different tests that were capable of being applied in proceedings under Paragraph
15. In that case, two rival groups, Congress O and Congress J, emerged from the
INC. While adjudicating their competing claims under Paragraph 15, the ECI
considered the following tests:
a. A test analysing the provisions of the constitution of the party;
b. A test assessing which of the two rival groups adhered to the aims and
objects of the party as incorporated in its constitution; and
c. A test evaluating which of the two rival groups enjoyed a majority in the
legislature (i.e., the Houses of Parliament as well as the Legislative
Assemblies of States) and in the organisational wing of the party.
141. The ECI declined to apply the first test detailed above because each group
had expelled members from the other group. It was of the opinion that the second
test was not suited to the facts of that case because neither Congress O nor
Congress J had “openly repudiated” the aims and objects of the constitution of the
party. The ECI held that the third test was most appropriate to the facts of that
case. Accordingly, it assessed which of the two groups constituted a majority in
Parliament and in the State Legislatures, and in the organisational wing of the
party. It found that Congress J enjoyed a majority in both the organizational wing
and the legislative wing, and that it was entitled to utilise the symbol which had
been reserved for the INC.
105
PART E
142. On appeal, this Court upheld the decision of the ECI and ruled that the ‘test
of majority’ was a very valuable test in the facts and circumstances of the case:
| “26. … As Congress is a democratic organisation, the | |
|---|
| test of majority and numerical strength, in our opinion, | |
| was a very valuable and relevant test. Whatever might | |
| be the position in another system of government or | |
| organisation, numbers have a relevance and | |
| importance in a democratic system of government or | |
| political set-up and it is neither possible nor permissible | |
| to lose sight of them. Indeed it is the view of the majority | |
| which in the final analysis proves decisive in a | |
| democratic set-up. | |
27. It may be mentioned that according to Paragraph 6
of the Symbols Order, one of the factors which may be
taken into account in treating a political party as a
recognised political party is the number of seats
secured by that party in the House of People or State
Legislative Assembly or the number of votes polled by
the contesting candidates set up by such party. If the
number of seats secured by a political party or the
number of votes cast in favour of the candidates of a
political party can be a relevant consideration for the
recognition of a political party, one is at a loss to
understand how the number of seats[...] to be irrelevant
| 31. … All that this Court is concerned with is whether | |
|---|
| the test of majority or numerical strength which has | |
| been taken into account by the Commission is in the | |
| circumstances of the case a relevant and germane test. | |
| On that point, we have no hesitation in holding that in | |
| the context of the facts and circumstances of the case, | |
| the test of majority and numerical strength was not only | |
| germane and relevant but a very valuable test.” | |
143. Subsequent to the decision in Sadiq Ali (supra), the Election Commission
consistently applied the test of majority in the legislative and organisational wings
53
of the party to disputes under Paragraph 15. However, neither the Symbols Order
nor Sadiq Ali (supra) indicates that this is the only or even the primary test to be
53 rd
V S Rama Devi and S K Mendiratta, How India Votes (3 edition, 2014), at 619
106
PART E
applied while determining disputes under Paragraph 15. The ECI may apply a test
which is suitable to the facts of the particular dispute before it. It need not apply the
same test to all disputes, regardless of the suitability of the test to those facts and
circumstances.
d. The potential for complications in the present case
144. In the present case, in late June 2022 and in the first week of July 2022,
members of each faction filed petitions for the disqualification of members of the
opposing faction under the Tenth Schedule. On 19 July 2022, Mr. Shinde filed a
petition before the ECI under Paragraph 15 of the Symbols Order, claiming that the
faction led by him constituted the “real” Shiv Sena and that it should therefore be
allotted the symbol of the Shiv Sena (the ‘bow and arrow’).
145. When the Tenth Schedule and the Symbols Order are invoked concurrently,
complications may arise, including in cases such as the present one. If the ECI
applies the ‘test of majority,’ it will be required to consider (among other things)
which of the two factions enjoys a majority in the Maharashtra State Legislature.
Therefore, which faction has a majority in the House will have some bearing on the
outcome of the proceedings before the ECI. Whether or not a particular faction has
a majority in the legislature will depend on whether members from that faction have
incurred disqualification. For example, we may illustratively consider a case where
Party X has a hundred seats in the Legislative Assembly of a state. Two factions,
Group A and Group B, emerge. The former consists of sixty MLAs and the latter
consists of the remaining forty. Members of each group file disqualification petitions
against members of the other group. The ECI is called upon to decide which group
107
PART E
is Party X under Paragraph 15 of the Symbols Order. In terms of the law as it
currently stands, there are two possible outcomes:
a. The ECI renders its decision prior to the Speaker. It observes that Group A
enjoys a majority in the legislature. This has a significant bearing on its
decision although it is not the only factor which is considered. Group A is
adjudicated to be Party X and is awarded the symbol; or
b. The Speaker renders their decision prior to the ECI. They disqualify some
or all the members of Group A for violating the anti-defection law. While
adjudicating the petition under Paragraph 15 of the Symbols Order, the ECI
(after taking into account the disqualification incurred by some or all of Group
A) notes that Group A does not enjoy a majority in the legislature. Once
again, this has a significant bearing on its decision although it is not the only
factor which is considered. Group B is adjudicated to be Party X and is
awarded the symbol.
146. The outcome of the dispute before the ECI may change depending on the
outcome of the disqualification petitions. It is precisely this complication which the
petitioners seek to guard against. The petitioners urge that when proceedings
under Paragraph 15 of the Symbols Order and the Tenth Schedule have arisen
concurrently, this Court ought to lay down a ‘constitutional sequence’ for the
proceedings. They submit that proceedings under the Tenth Schedule must be
adjudicated before the dispute under Paragraph 15 of the Symbols Order is
determined, and that a symbol can be allotted only after “the final adjudication of
the Tenth Schedule proceedings.”
108
PART E
147. The contentions of the petitioners cannot be brushed aside. If the faction
which enjoys a majority in the House is disqualified soon after being adjudicated to
be the political party, the very foundation of their claim of being the political party
no longer subsists. Even if they are not disqualified, the foundation of their claim
(i.e., a legislative majority) is still on uncertain ground at the time of adjudication.
This is not a constitutionally desirable outcome.
e. Harmonising the Tenth Schedule with Paragraph 15 of the Symbols Order
148. This Court cannot accept the solution proposed by the petitioners and lay
down a constitutional sequence. To hold that the ECI is barred from adjudicating
petitions under Paragraph 15 of the Symbols Order until the “final adjudication” of
the disqualification petitions under the Tenth Schedule would be, in effect, to
indefinitely stay the proceedings before the ECI. This is because an order of the
Speaker attains finality only after all avenues for appeal have been exhausted or
are barred by the passage of time. The time that it would take for an order of the
Speaker to attain finality is uncertain. The ECI is a constitutionally entrenched
institution which is entrusted with the function of superintendence of and control
over the electoral process. The ECI, which is a constitutional authority, cannot be
prevented from performing its constitutional duties for an indefinite period of time.
Proceedings before one constitutional authority cannot be halted in anticipation of
the decision of another constitutional authority.
149. This Court must also be alive to the possibility of the death of a political party
in the intervening period, or further complications that may arise if elections are
announced during the period when proceedings before the ECI are stayed, if a stay
109
PART E
were to be granted. When a dispute under Paragraph 15 of the Symbols Order is
pending adjudication, it is standard practice for the ECI to freeze the symbol
reserved for that political party and allot interim symbols to the rival groups. If the
reserved symbol is frozen for an inordinately long period of time and the interim
symbols must be resorted to for every by-election and election, it may well end the
association between the reserved symbol and the political party in the minds of the
electorate. This will no doubt be a blow to the political party which is lawfully entitled
to the symbol reserved for its use. Therefore, the ECI must render a decision as to
which group constitutes that political party.
150. In arriving at this decision, it is not necessary for the ECI to rely on the test
of majority in the legislature alone. In cases such as the present one, it would be
futile to assess which group enjoys a majority in the legislature. Rather, the ECI
must look to other tests in order to reach a conclusion under Paragraph 15 of the
Symbols Order. The other tests may include an evaluation of the majority in the
organisational wings of the political party, an analysis of the provisions of the party
constitution, or any other appropriate test.
151. When this Court decided the petition in Sadiq Ali (supra), the Tenth
Schedule did not form a part of the Constitution. There was no way for this Court
to have anticipated the complexities that could arise on its inclusion while deciding
which test was most appropriate. Regardless, this Court did not hold that the test
of majority in the legislature was exclusively appropriate or even that it was the
primary test. It instead found that the test was suited to the facts and circumstances
of that case. As noticed in the preceding paragraphs, nothing in the Symbols Order
110
PART E
mandates the use of a particular test to the exclusion of other tests. The ECI must
apply a test which is best suited to the unique facts and circumstances of the case
before it. The parties in the dispute before the ECI are free to propose a suitable
test and the ECI may either apply one of the tests proposed or fashion a new test,
as appropriate. This Court observed in (supra) that the test of legislative
Sadiq Ali
majority was a relevant test under Paragraph 15 proceedings in that case for two
reasons: first, INC was according to the court a democratic organisation, and
numbers matter in such organisations; and second, the total number of seats
secured by the political party in the legislative assembly is a relevant factor for the
recognition of a political party as a State or a National Party. When legislators are
disqualified under the Tenth Schedule, the basis of recognition of the political party
under the Symbols Order and correspondingly, one of the reasons for using the
test of legislative majority itself becomes diluted. Thus, it is not appropriate to
confine the ECI to the singular test of legislative majority in such situations.
152. In Sadiq Ali (supra) , this Court noted that one of the tests considered by
the ECI was an assessment of which of the two rival groups adhered to the aims
and objects of the party as incorporated in its constitution. This Court did not have
occasion to express its opinion on the validity of this test because it found that the
test of majority was relevant to the facts in Sadiq Ali (supra). Since we have left it
open to the ECI to apply a test other than that which evaluates which of the groups
constitute a majority, it becomes necessary to consider whether the alternatives
are viable.
111
PART E
153. An evaluation of whether rival groups are adhering to the aims and objects
of the party as incorporated in its constitution, and which of the rival groups is more
in consonance with such aims and objects, is an entirely subjective exercise.
Different groups may adopt different paths or methods to achieve the same object.
It would not be appropriate for the ECI to accord its stamp of approval to the routes
or methods chosen by one group over those chosen by another group. This would
amount to entering the political arena. For example, one of the aims detailed in the
constitution of a party could be that it will work towards attaining economic justice.
Two rival sections of this party may emerge. The first group may happen to
advocate for direct benefit transfers whereas the second group may be of the belief
that subsidising the cost of certain products is a preferable alternative. The
exercise of the ECI in determining which of these methods (and by extension,
which of the rival groups) is more suited to attaining economic justice is subjective.
Although this is a simplified example, it is illustrative of the manner in which the
same goal can be sought to be attained by different routes, and the ECI while
making such an assessment would be rendering its opinion without any objective
basis. The ECI must remain a neutral body and refrain from passing a subjective
judgement on the approaches preferred by the rival factions.
154. At this stage, a question may arise as to whether the decision of the ECI
under the Symbols Order must be consistent with the decision of the Speaker
under the Tenth Schedule. The answer is no. This is because the decision of the
Speaker and the decision of the ECI are each based on different considerations
and are taken for different purposes.
112
PART E
155. The decision of the ECI has prospective effect. A declaration that one of the
rival groups is that political party takes effect prospectively from the date of the
decision. In the event that members of the faction which has been awarded the
symbol are disqualified from the House by the Speaker, the members of the group
which continues to be in the House will have to follow the procedure prescribed in
the Symbols Order and in any other relevant law(s) for the allotment of a fresh
symbol to their group.
156. The disqualification proceedings before the Speaker cannot be stayed in
anticipation of the decision of the ECI. In cases where a petition under Paragraph
15 of the Symbols Order is filed after the (alleged) commission of prohibitory
conduct, the decision of the ECI cannot be relied upon by the Speaker for
adjudicating disqualification proceedings. If the disqualification petitions are
adjudicated based on the decision of the ECI in such cases, the decision of the
ECI would have retrospective effect. This would be contrary to law.
157. When the conduct prohibited under the Tenth Schedule is (allegedly)
committed, there is only one political party. As discussed in the preceding
segments of this judgement, this necessitates the Speaker prima facie determining
who the political party was at the time of the act which is alleged attract the
provisions of the Tenth Schedule. The decision of the Speaker that a member of
the House is disqualified for voluntarily giving up the membership of the political
party would only disqualify them from the House. It would not lead to an automatic
expulsion of the member from the political party. It follows that the submission of
the petitioners that a legislator who has incurred disqualification under Paragraph
113
PART E
2 of the Tenth Schedule has no locus to institute a petition under Paragraph 15 of
the Symbols Order, cannot be accepted. We accordingly answer the question
referred to us as noted in Paragraph 32(j) of this judgment.
158. In the proceedings instituted by Mr. Shinde under Paragraph 15 of the
Symbols Order, the ECI awarded the symbol “bow and arrow” reserved for the Shiv
Sena to the faction led by him. The petitioners challenged this order before this
54
Court. By an order dated 22 February 2023, this Court issued notice. We have
not expressed any opinion on the merits of that case.
vi. The impact of the deletion of Paragraph 3 of the Tenth Schedule
159. The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution was inserted by the Constitution
(Fifty-second Amendment) Act 1985. The Tenth Schedule sought to provide a
remedy to the ‘constitutional sin’ of defection. Simply put, defection is the act of
members of either House of the state legislature or of either House of Parliament
shifting allegiances by exiting the political party on whose ticket they went to the
polls and joining another political party. The years prior to the insertion of the Tenth
Schedule witnessed innumerable defections in political parties at both the Union
and State level. The turbulent political scenario ensuing from these defections gave
rise to the need for an anti-defection law in the country.
160. The Tenth Schedule penalises defection by disqualifying any member of the
House who is found to have indulged in the prohibited act. Paragraph 2(1)(a)
stipulates that a member of a House belonging to any political party shall be
54
SLP(C) No. 3997 of 2023
114
PART E
disqualified for being a member of the House if they have voluntarily given up their
membership of such political party. Paragraph 2(1)(b) provides that a member shall
be disqualified if they vote or abstain from voting in the House contrary to any
directions issued by the political party to which they belong, or by any person
authorised by it in this behalf.
161. Paragraph 6 of the Tenth Schedule entrusts the Speaker of the House with
the authority to adjudicate disqualification petitions. While adjudicating a
disqualification petition, the Speaker must also consider any defence(s) raised by
the member against whom the petition has been filed. The Tenth Schedule, as it
currently stands, specifies five defences which a member may take recourse to, to
shield themselves from the consequences of the anti-defection law:
a. A member will not be disqualified under Paragraph 2(1)(b) if they have
obtained the prior permission of their political party to vote or abstain
55
from voting contrary to the directions issued by such political party;
b. A member is protected from being disqualified under Paragraph 2(1)(b)
if the political party to which they belong has condoned their actions in
voting or abstaining from voting contrary to the directions issued by
56
such political party, within fifteen days from such voting or abstention;
c. In terms of Paragraph 4, a member will not be disqualified either under
Paragraph 2(1)(a) or under Paragraph 2(1)(b) where their original
55
Paragraph 2(1)(b) of the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution
56
Paragraph 2(1)(b) of the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution
115
PART E
political party merges with another political party and they claim that
they and any other members of their original political party have
become members of such other political party or of a new political party
57
formed by the merger. This defence is made out only if not less than
two-thirds of the members of the legislature party concerned have
58
agreed to the merger;
d. In cases where the original political party of a member is found to have
merged with another political party under Paragraph 4(1)(a), members
of the original political party are protected from being disqualified if they
have not accepted such merger and have opted to function as a
59
separate group; and
e. Members who have been elected to the office of the Speaker or the
Deputy Speaker (or the Chairman or the Deputy Chairman as the case
may be) in Parliament or in the Legislative Assemblies of States are
exempted from disqualification under the Tenth Schedule if they
voluntarily give up the membership of their political party by reason of
their election to such office and do not re-join the political party or
become a member of another political party so long as they continue
to hold such office. Further, they are not disqualified if they re-join the
57
Paragraph 4(1)(a) of the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution
58
Paragraph 4(2) of the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution
59
Paragraph 4(1)(b) of the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution
116
PART E
political party which they gave up membership of, after ceasing to hold
60
office.
162. Prior to 2003, a sixth defence under Paragraph 3 was available to members
against whom disqualification petitions were filed. Paragraph 3 stipulated that a
member of the House would not be subject to disqualification if there was a split in
their original political party. It was omitted from the Tenth Schedule by the
Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act 2003. Prior to its omission, Paragraph 3
read as follows:
| “3. Disqualification on ground of defection not to apply | |
|---|
| in case of split.—Where a member of a House makes a | |
| claim that he and any other members of his legislature | |
| party constitute the group representing a faction which | |
| has arisen as a result of a split in his original political | |
| party and such group consists of not less than one-third | |
| of the members of such legislature party,— | |
| (a) he shall not be disqualified under sub-paragraph (1) | |
|---|
| of paragraph 2 on the ground— | |
| (i) that he has voluntarily given up his membership of | |
|---|
| his original political party; or | |
| (ii) that he has voted or abstained from voting in such | |
|---|
| House contrary to any direction issued by such party or | |
| by any person or authority authorised by it in that behalf | |
| without obtaining the prior permission of such party, | |
| person or authority and such voting or abstention has | |
| not been condoned by such party, person or authority | |
| within fifteen days from the date of such voting or | |
| abstention; and | |
| (b) from the time of such split, such faction shall be | |
|---|
| deemed to be the political party to which he belongs for | |
| the purposes of sub-paragraph (1) of paragraph 2 and | |
| to be his original political party for the purposes of this | |
| paragraph.” | |
60
Paragraph 5 of the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution
117
PART E
a. The defence of a ‘split’ is no longer available to members who face
disqualification proceedings
163. The question before this Court is – what is the impact of the deletion of
Paragraph 3 of the Tenth Schedule? This question has arisen in the context of both
factions of the Shiv Sena claiming to be the “real” Shiv Sena. In effect, this points
to the existence of a split within the SSLP. However, no faction or group can argue
that they constitute the original political party as a defence against disqualification
on the ground of defection.
164. The inevitable consequence of the deletion of Paragraph 3 from the Tenth
Schedule is that the defence of a split is no longer available to members who face
disqualification proceedings. In cases where a split has occurred in a political party
or in a legislature party, members of neither faction may validly raise the defence
that they are the political party in the event that each faction files petitions for the
disqualification of members of the other faction. The defence sought to be availed
of must be found within the Tenth Schedule as it currently stands.
165. Members of multiple groups or factions can all continue as members of the
House if the requirements of Paragraph 4(1) of the Tenth Schedule are satisfied.
Two (or more) factions of a political party can both remain in the House if one of
the factions has opted to merge with another political party in terms of Paragraph
4(1)(a) and the other faction has chosen not to accept the merger. However, in
cases where a split has occurred, and members of one of the factions are found to
have satisfied the conditions in Paragraph 2(1) and are also unable to establish
any of the five defences detailed above, they would stand disqualified. The
118
PART E
percentage of members in each faction is irrelevant to the determination of whether
a defence to disqualification is made out.
166. This is necessarily the implication of the deletion of Paragraph 3. To hold
otherwise would be to permit the entry of the defence of ‘split’ in the Tenth Schedule
through the back door. This is impermissible and would render the deletion of
Paragraph 3 meaningless. It is trite law that what cannot be done directly cannot
61
be permitted to be done indirectly. The interpretation which we have expounded
is the only one which comports with the deletion of Paragraph 3.
b. The decision of the Speaker under Paragraph 2 of the Tenth Schedule
167. Regardless of the defence available to members who face disqualification
proceedings, the Speaker may be called upon to determine who the “real” political
party is while adjudicating disqualification petitions under Paragraph 2(1)(a) where
two or more factions of the political or legislature party have arisen. The effect of
the deletion of Paragraph 3 is that both factions cannot be considered to constitute
the original political party. In order to determine which (if any) of the members of
the party have voluntarily given up membership of the political party under
Paragraph 2(1)(a), it is necessary to first determine which of the factions constitute
the political party. This determination is a prima facie determination and will not
61
Delhi Admn. v. Gurdip Singh Uban, (2000) 7 SCC 296; Taxi Owners United Transport v. State Transport
Authority (Orissa), (1983) 4 SCC 34
119
PART E
impact any other proceedings including the proceedings under Paragraph 15 of the
Symbols Order.
168. In arriving at their decision, the Speaker must consider the constitution of
the party as well as any other rules and regulations which specify the structure of
the leadership of the party. If the rival groups submit two or more versions of the
party constitution, the Speaker must consider the version which was submitted to
the ECI before the rival factions emerged. In other words, the Speaker must
consider the version of the party constitution which was submitted to the ECI with
the consent of both factions. This will obviate a situation where both factions
attempt to amend the constitution to serve their own ends. Further, the Speaker
must not base their decision as to which group constitutes the political party on a
blind appreciation of which group possesses a majority in the Legislative Assembly.
This is not a game of numbers, but of something more. The structure of leadership
outside the Legislative Assembly is a consideration which is relevant to the
determination of this issue.
169. The deletion of Paragraph 3 impacts the proceedings under Paragraph
2(1)(b) as well. When there are two Whips appointed by two or more factions of
the political party, the Speaker, as held in the preceding section of the judgement,
decides which of the two Whips represents the political party. Thus, the
adjudication of the Speaker on whether a member must be disqualified under
Paragraph 2(1)(b) would also depend on the decision of the Speaker recognising
one of the two (or more) Whips. We accordingly answer the question referred to us
as noted in Paragraph 32(f) of this judgment.
120
PART E
vii. The exercise of discretion by the Governor in directing Mr. Thackeray to face
a floor test
170. The facts relevant to the determination of this issue have been narrated in
the introductory part of this judgement. To recount, thirty-four MLAs of the Shiv
Sena met and passed a resolution on 21 June 2022. The resolution reaffirmed that
Mr. Eknath Shinde “ continues to be ” the Group Leader of the SSLP, cancelled the
appointment of Mr. Sunil Prabhu as the Chief Whip, and appointed Mr. Bharat
Gogawale in his place. The signatories also expressed their discontent and
dissatisfaction with the Shiv Sena for forming the Government in alliance with the
INC and the NCP. Separately, on 28 June 2022, the Governor received letters from
the Leader of Opposition at the time, Mr. Devendra Fadnavis, and seven MLAs
who were elected as independent candidates requesting him to direct Mr.
Thackeray to prove his majority on the floor of the House. On the same day, the
Governor issued the communication impugned in WP(C) 470 of 2022 to Mr.
Thackeray, directing him to prove his majority on the floor of the House on 30 June
2022. Mr. Thackeray resigned on 29 June 2022 after this Court declined to stay
the trust vote. Thus, WP(C) 470 of 2022 has been rendered infructuous. This Court
is no longer called upon to set aside the letter dated 28 June 2022. However, the
question of whether the Governor exercised the discretion vested in him by the
Constitution in accordance with law is required to be addressed by this Court in
view of the enormity of the responsibility entrusted with the gubernatorial office as
well as the significance of the consequences which follow from the exercise of such
discretion.
121
PART E
171. The letter sent by the Governor to the then-Chief Minister indicates that he
relied on the following circumstances in arriving at the conclusion that a floor test
was required:
a. A letter received from the then Leader of Opposition stating that Mr.
Thackeray no longer enjoyed the confidence of the House;
b. Letters received from seven independent MLAs requesting the Governor to
direct Mr. Thackeray to prove his majority on the floor of the House;
c. The resolution dated 21 June 2022 signed by thirty-four members of the
SSLP stating that they were dissatisfied with the Shiv Sena for forming an
alliance with the INC and the NCP;
d. A letter dated 21 June 2022 addressed by Mr. Shinde to the Deputy
Speaker stating that the appointment of Mr. Ajay Choudhari as the Leader
of the SSLP was illegal; and
e. A letter dated 25 June 2022 received from thirty-eight members of the SSLP
stating that the security provided to them by the State Government had
been withdrawn illegally and that their lives were in danger.
172. Based on these materials, the Governor (in the letter dated 28 June 2022)
concluded that Mr. Thackeray had lost the confidence of the House:
“… a majority of the Shiv Sena MLAs have given a clear
indication on behalf of the Shiv Sena Legislature Party
that they intend to exit from the Maha Vikas Aghadi
Government and that you have been made aware of the
same and that you are trying to win over your MLAs and
cadre by means which are not democratic. I am
therefore confident that you and your Government has
122
PART E
| lost the trust of the House and the Government is in | |
|---|
| minority.” | |
The Governor then called upon Mr. Thackeray to prove his majority on the floor of
the House on 30 June 2022.
173. The Governor constitutes an integral part of a State Legislature. The
executive power of the State is vested in the Governor. Article 163 requires the
Governor to exercise their legislative and executive power on the aid and advice
of the Council of Ministers. Article 163(2) empowers the Governor to exercise their
discretionary powers when required by or under the Constitution. Article 174(1)
provides that the Governor shall from time to time summon the House to meet at
such time and place as they think fit. Article 175(1) empowers the Governor to
address the House. Article 175(2) permits the Governor to send messages to the
House whether with respect to a pending Bill or otherwise.
a. The power of the Governor to call for a floor test
174. In (supra) the Janata Party formed the government in
S R Bommai
Karnataka under the leadership of S R Bommai in August 1988. Soon after, the
Janata Party and Lok Dal (B) merged into a new party called Janata Dal. In April
1989, seventeen Janata Dal legislators wrote to the Governor withdrawing their
support to the government. On 19 April 1989, the Governor sent a report to the
President stating that the Chief Minister had lost the majority in the Assembly and
recommended invocation of the President's rule under Article 356(1) of the
Constitution. On 20 April 1989, the Chief Minister offered to prove majority on the
floor of the House. However, on the same day the Governor sent another report to
123
PART E
the President reiterating that the Chief Minister had lost the confidence of the
majority of the House and recommended action under Article 356(1). Accordingly,
on 21 April 1989, the President issued a proclamation, dismissed the State
Government, and dissolved the Assembly.
175. This Court held that the Governor cannot decide whether the Council of
Ministers has lost the confidence of the House and this has to be determined on
the floor of the House. This Court approvingly referred to the Report of the five-
member Committee of Governors which recommended that when a Governor is
satisfied “by whatever process or means” that the Government no longer enjoys
the support of the majority, they should ask the Chief Minister to prove their majority
on the floor of the Assembly. B P Jeevan Reddy, J held that loss of confidence by
a Government is an objective fact which has to be ascertained only on the floor of
the House:
| “391. [...] The Constitution does not create an obligation | |
|---|
| that the political party forming the ministry should | |
| necessarily have a majority in the Legislature. Minority | |
| Governments are not unknown. What is necessary is | |
| that that Government should enjoy the confidence of the | |
| House. This aspect does not appear to have been kept | |
| in mind by the Governor. Secondly and more | |
| importantly, whether the Council of Ministers has lost | |
| the confidence of the House is not a matter to be | |
| determined by the Governor or for that matter anywhere | |
| else except the floor of the House. The principle of | |
| democracy underlying our Constitution necessarily | |
| means that any such question should be decided on the | |
| floor of the House. The House is the place where the | |
| democracy is in action. It is not for the Governor to | |
| determine the said question on his own or on his own | |
| verification. This is not a matter within his subjective | |
| satisfaction. It is an objective fact capable of being | |
| established on the floor of the House. [...]” | |
124
PART E
176. In Shivraj Singh Chouhan (supra), the government in the State of Madhya
Pradesh was formed by the INC. During the term of the Assembly, MLAs of the
BJP submitted resignation letters of twenty-two MLAs from the INC to the Speaker.
The Speaker accepted six of the twenty-two resignations. The party in the
opposition in the Assembly wrote a letter to the Governor adverting to these
resignations. The Governor directed a trust vote to be carried out. The action of the
Governor was assailed before this Court. This Court held that the constitutional
scheme vested the Governor with the power and discretion to call for a trust vote
in a “running Assembly” and that such a decision is subject to judicial review. This
Court ruled that the decision to call for a floor test should be based on objective
material and reasons which are relevant and germane to the exercise of discretion,
and not extraneous to it. The Court emphasised that the Governor should not use
their discretionary power to destabilise or displace democratically elected
governments:
| “71. The powers which are entrusted to constitutional | |
|---|
| functionaries are not beyond the pale of judicial review. | |
| Where the exercise of the discretion by the Governor to | |
| call a floor test is challenged before the court, it is not | |
| immune from judicial review. The court is entitled to | |
| determine whether in calling for the floor test, the | |
| Governor did so on the basis of objective material and | |
| reasons which were relevant and germane to the | |
| exercise of the power. The exercise of such a power is | |
| not intended to destabilise or displace a democratically | |
| elected Government accountable to the Legislative | |
| Assembly and collectively responsible to it. The | |
| exercise of the power to call for a trust vote must be | |
| guided by the overarching consideration that the | |
| formation of satisfaction by the Governor is not based | |
| on extraneous considerations.” | |
125
PART E
177. This Court also observed that unless there are “exigent and compelling
circumstances”, the Governor should not prevent the ordinary legislative process
of a no-confidence motion from running its due course. In Shivraj Singh Chouhan
(supra), the Speaker accepted the resignations of only six members who were
Ministers of the incumbent Government, and adjourned the Assembly for thirteen
days. It was in view of these facts that this Court held there was objective material
and relevant reasons for the Governor to call for a floor test.
178. The power of the Governor to summon the House under Article 174 must be
exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. Rule 95 of the
Maharashtra Legislative Assembly Rules stipulates that a member who wishes to
move a motion of no-confidence in the Council of Ministers shall do so by a notice
in writing. If the motion is admitted by the Speaker and the Assembly is in session,
leave to move the motion must be granted not later than two days from the date of
the notice. However, if the notice is received when the Assembly is not in session,
leave to move the motion shall be granted within two days from the commencement
of the session.
179. To avert a no-confidence motion, the incumbent Government may not
advise the Governor to convene a session of the Assembly, and the Speaker may
adjourn the sitting of the House to prevent voting for granting leave to move a
motion of no-confidence. If the Speaker and the Government attempt to circumvent
a no-confidence motion, the Governor would be justified in exercising the power
under Article 174 without the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
126
PART E
180. The Constitution and the system of governance that it provides is based on
representative democracy. This means that each citizen has an active and
participatory role in how the governments at various levels function. The elected
representatives of the people act on their behalf by enacting laws and overseeing
the implementation of policies. This is our chosen path to achieve democracy.
Direct and indirect elections and the candidates who are elected are indispensable
to our model of representative democracy. Hence, the Constitution empowers the
elected representatives to act on behalf of the people. Consequently, the Governor
who despite their constitutional status is unelected, is vested with limited
discretionary powers.
181. The power of the Governor to act without the aid and advice of the Council
of Ministers is of an extraordinary nature. The exercise of such power has
ramifications on parliamentary democracy. Hence, the ambit of the exercise of
such power by the Governor must be calibrated to meet the exigencies of
situations where the Governor is satisfied on the basis of objective material that
there is sufficient cause to warrant the exercise of their extraordinary power. The
discretion to call for a floor test is not an unfettered discretion but one that must be
exercised with circumspection, in accordance with the limits placed on it by law.
b. The Governor’s exercise of the power to call for a floor test
182. In his letter dated 28 June 2022, the Governor relied on the five
circumstances mentioned above to arrive at following conclusions: (i) a majority of
the MLAs of Shiv Sena intended to exit from the MVA government; (ii) Mr.
Thackeray was trying to win over the MLAs using undemocratic methods; and (iii)
127
PART E
Mr. Thackeray had lost the trust of the House and the MVA Government was in the
minority.
183. The petitioners have urged that the Governor was not justified in reaching
the conclusion that he did on the basis of the resolution dated 21 June 2022
because: (i) the thirty-four MLAs belonging to Shiv Sena did not express their
intention to exit the MVA government; and (ii) the MLAs who signed the resolution
constituted a faction of the SSLP.
184. Although the resolution dated 21 June 2022 specifies that some MLAs of the
SSLP were dissatisfied with the functioning of the MVA government, it does not
record their intention to withdraw support from the Government. Among the thirty-
four MLAs who signed the resolution dated 28 June 2022, a few were also
Ministers in the Government. On the basis of this resolution, the Governor
concluded that “a majority of the Shiv Sena MLAs have given a clear indication …
that they intend to exit from the Maha Vikas Aghadi Government.”
185. The assembly was not in session when Mr. Fadnavis and seven
independent MLAs wrote to the Governor. However, there was no attempt made
by the members of the opposition parties to issue a notice for a no-confidence
motion against the incumbent government.
186. The Governor had no objective material on the basis of which he could doubt
the confidence of the incumbent government. The resolution on which the
Governor relied did not contain any indication that the MLAs wished to exit from
the MVA government. The communication expressing discontent on the part of
some MLAs is not sufficient for the Governor to call for a floor test. The Governor
128
PART E
ought to apply his mind to the communication (or any other material) before him to
assess whether the Government seemed to have lost the confidence of the House.
We use the term ‘opinion’ to mean satisfaction based on objective criteria as to
whether he possessed relevant material, and not to mean the subjective
satisfaction of the Governor. Once a government is democratically elected in
accordance with law, there is a presumption that it enjoys the confidence of the
House. There must exist some objective material to dislodge this presumption.
187. The MLAs did not express their desire to withdraw support from the MVA
Government in the resolution dated 21 June 2022. Even if it is assumed that the
MLAs implied that they intended to exit from the Government, they only constituted
a faction of the SSLP and were at most, indicating their dissatisfaction with the
course of action adopted by their political party.
188. The political imbroglio in Maharashtra arose as a result of party differences
within the Shiv Sena. However, the floor test cannot be used as a medium to
resolve internal party disputes or intra party disputes. Dissent and disagreement
within a political party must be resolved in accordance with the remedies
prescribed under the party constitution, or through any other methods that the party
chooses to opt for. There is a marked difference between a party not supporting a
government , and individuals within a party expressing their discontent with their
party leadership and functioning.
189. The Governor is the titular head of the State Government. He is a
constitutional functionary who derives his authority from the Constitution. This
being the case, the Governor must be cognizant of the constitutional bounds of the
129
PART E
power vested in him. He cannot exercise a power that is not conferred on him by
the Constitution or a law made under it. Neither the Constitution nor the laws
enacted by Parliament provide for a mechanism by which disputes amongst
members of a particular political party can be settled. They certainly do not
empower the Governor to enter the political arena and play a role (however minute)
either in inter-party disputes or in intra-party disputes. It follows from this that the
Governor cannot act upon an inference that he has drawn that a section of the Shiv
Sena wished to withdraw their support to the Government on the floor of the
House.
190. It is true that the letter dated 25 June 2022 sent by some MLAs of the Shiv
Sena to the Governor requesting him to issue directions to the appropriate
authorities for the restoration of their security details mentions that those MLAs “no
longer wanted to be a part of the corrupt MVA government.” However, this cannot
be taken to mean that they had withdrawn their support on the floor of the House .
Nothing in any of the communications relied upon by the Governor indicates that
the dissatisfied MLAs from the Shiv Sena intended to withdraw their support to the
Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers. At the highest, the various
communications expressed the fact that a faction of MLAs disagreed with some
policy decisions of the party. The course of action they wished to adopt in order to
air their grievances and redress them was, at the time the floor test was directed
to be conducted, uncertain. Whether they would choose to enter deliberations with
their colleagues in the House or in the political party, or mobilise the cadres, or
resign from the Assembly in protest, or opt to merge with another party, was
uncertain. Therefore, the Governor erred in relying upon the resolution signed by
130
PART E
a faction of the SSLP MLAs to conclude that Mr. Thackeray had lost the support of
the majority of the House.
191. Second, the Governor relied on the letter dated 25 June 2022 from thirty-
eight SSLP members claiming that the security provided to them and to their
families was illegally withdrawn. The MLAs claimed that the security was withdrawn
to coerce them into continuing to support the MVA government “against their free
will.” Therefore, they demanded restoration of the security provided to them and to
their family members. After receiving the letter, the Governor issued directions to
the state police to provide adequate protection to the MLAs, the members of their
families, and their property. However, the lack of security to MLAs has no bearing
on the question of whether the Government enjoys the confidence of the House.
The appropriate response of the Governor in such cases is to ensure that the
security that they are lawfully entitled to continues to be provided to them, if it has
been removed. This was an extraneous reason that was considered by the
Governor.
192. The third communication that the Governor relied on is the letter dated 21
June 2022 addressed by Mr. Eknath Shinde to the Deputy Speaker stating that the
appointment of Mr. Ajay Choudhari was illegal. The Governor may not enquire into
or express an opinion on the validity of proceedings of the legislature. That is
exclusively within the domain of the legislature itself or in certain circumstances
(discussed in the previous segment of this judgement) within the domain of Courts.
The discretionary power of the Governor under Article 163 of the Constitution is
limited to situations where a constitutional provision expressly provides for it, or
131
PART E
where the Constitution cannot be construed otherwise than to grant such
62
discretion. Hence, the Governor ought not to have relied on the letter dated 21
June 2022. In any event, the contents of the letter did not indicate anything to
suggest that the then-Chief Minister Mr. Thackeray had lost the confidence of the
House.
193. Finally, the Governor relied on the letters written by Mr. Fadnavis and seven
‘independent’ MLAs, calling upon him to direct Mr. Thackeray to prove his majority
on the floor of the House. First, both Mr. Fadnavis as well as the seven MLAs could
have well moved a motion of no-confidence. Nothing prevented them from doing
so. Second, a request by some MLAs for a direction to the Chief Minister to prove
his majority does not, taken alone, amount to a relevant and germane reason to
call for a floor test. There must be some objective material in addition to a mere
request to call for a floor test. In the present case, the Governor did not have any
objective material before him to indicate that the incumbent government had lost
the confidence of the House and that he should call for a floor test. Hence, the
exercise of discretion by the Governor in this case was not in accordance with law.
194. Relying on Bommai (supra) and Nabam Rebia (supra), the petitioners
argue that this Court has the power to restore the status quo ante and rule that the
Government with Mr. Thackeray as its Chief Minister is to be reinstated. However,
this argument does not account for the fact that Mr. Thackeray did not face the
floor test on 30 June 2022 and instead submitted his resignation. This Court cannot
quash a resignation that has been submitted voluntarily. Had Mr. Thackeray
62
Nabam Rebia (supra)
132
PART E
refrained from resigning from the post of the Chief Minister, this Court could have
considered the grant of the remedy of reinstating the government headed by him.
The order of this Court dated 29 June 2022 held that the outcome of the trust vote
to be conducted on 30 June 2022 “shall be subject to the final outcome” of this
batch of petitions. Since the trust vote was not held, the question of it being subject
to the final outcome of these petitions does not arise.
195. The petitioners urge that the pendency of disqualification petitions before
the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker ought to have resulted in the postponement of
the floor test. This argument cannot be accepted. As discussed in the previous
section of this judgement, the pendency of disqualification petitions does not bar
an MLA from participating in the proceedings of the House. This includes the right
of an MLA to participate in the floor test. It is true that adjudication of disqualification
petitions would alter the numbers in the Assembly, and ultimately bear on the
outcome of a floor test. The option of initiating a no-confidence motion after the
adjudication of disqualification petitions is open to the MLAs. However, this Court
cannot stay the proceedings of the House until the disqualification petitions are
decided. To do so would amount to interfering with the proceedings of the House.
The discretion of the Governor to direct the Chief Minister to face a floor test ought
to be based on objective material.
viii. The exercise of discretion by the Governor in inviting Mr. Shinde to be the
Chief Minister
196. The petitioners have challenged the exercise of discretion by the Governor
in inviting Mr. Shinde to form the government on two grounds: first, Mr. Shinde’s
133
PART E
appointment is barred by Article 164(1B) of the Constitution; and second, the
Governor has exceeded the scope of his authority by recognizing one of the two
rival factions as being the “real” Shiv Sena. These submissions are addressed in
turn.
a. Mr. Shinde’s appointment is not barred by Article 164(1B) of the
Constitution
197. Article 164(1B) of the Constitution is reproduced below:
“ 164. Other provisions as to Ministers.
…
| (1B) A member of the Legislative Assembly of a State | |
|---|
| or either House of the Legislature of a State having | |
| Legislative Council belonging to any political party who | |
| is disqualified for being a member of that House | |
| under paragraph 2 of the Tenth Schedule shall also | |
| be disqualified to be appointed as a Minister under | |
| clause (1) for duration of the period commencing from | |
| the date of his disqualification till the date on which the | |
| term of his office as such member would expire or | |
| where he contests any election to the Legislative | |
| Assembly of a State or either House of the Legislature | |
| of a State having Legislative Council, as the case may | |
| be, before the expiry of such period, till the date on | |
| which he is declared elected, whichever is earlier.” | |
(emphasis supplied)
198. Article 164(1B) bars an MLA or a Member of the Legislative Council of a
State (where one exists) from being appointed as a Minister if they have been
disqualified under Paragraph 2 of the Tenth Schedule. The bar begins to operate
only upon the member of the legislature incurring disqualification. Article 164(1B)
does not interdict the appointment of a member to the post of a Minister if a petition
for their disqualification under Paragraph 2 of the Tenth Schedule is pending
134
PART E
adjudication before the Speaker. This is evident from the language of Article
164(1B), which states that a member who is disqualified under Paragraph 2 of the
Tenth Schedule shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a Minister.
199. In other words, the mere institution of a disqualification petition does not
trigger some or all of the consequences which flow from the disqualification itself.
To hold otherwise would be to blur or efface the distinction between the institution
of a disqualification petition against a member of the House and the disqualification
of that member. A claim that something is true does not mean that it is actually
true. A claim must be established according to the procedure established by law
before it can be considered to be a fact. When a petition for disqualification under
the Tenth Schedule is filed before the Speaker, the party who filed the petition
asserts that the respondent in the petition has contravened the provisions of the
Tenth Schedule. This averment must be tested on the anvil of evidence before the
Speaker, who acts as a Tribunal under the Tenth Schedule. Article 164(1B) is
therefore triggered only when the Speaker returns a verdict finding that the member
of the House in question has breached Paragraph 2 of the Tenth Schedule. If the
Speaker finds that Mr. Shinde is disqualified, he will no longer be eligible to hold
the post of Chief Minister for the duration specified in Article 164(1B).
200. The petitioners have relied on the decision in Rajendra Singh Rana (supra)
in support of their contention. As discussed in the previous segment of this
judgment, the disqualification of a member of the House relates back to the date
on which the proscribed act was performed for the purpose of determining whether
a defence to disqualification is made out.
135
PART E
201. The petitioners have also relied on the decision in Shrimanth Balasaheb
(supra) to urge that the appointment of Mr. Shinde is barred by Article
Patil
164(1B). In this case, the State Government of Karnataka was formed by a
coalition consisting of MLAs of the INC and the Janata Dal (Secular) in 2018. In
early 2019, a series of disqualification petitions under the Tenth Schedule were
filed against MLAs of various parties which formed the government. Some of them
submitted their resignations to the Speaker either immediately before or shortly
after the disqualification petitions were filed against them. The case had a
chequered history. The Speaker ultimately passed an order inter alia disqualifying
these MLAs.
202. Aggrieved by the order of the Speaker, the disqualified MLAs approached
this Court under Article 32 of the Constitution. The MLAs who had tendered their
resignations argued that the Speaker did not have the jurisdiction to adjudicate the
petitions for their disqualification because they had already resigned and were
therefore not members of the House who could be disqualified. Relying on
(supra), this Court rejected this submission and held that
Rajendra Singh Rana
the Speaker has the jurisdiction to determine the disqualification petitions because
disqualification relates to the date when the act constituting defection is alleged to
have been committed:
| “93. As such, there is no doubt that the disqualification | |
|---|
| relates to the date when such act of defection takes | |
| place. The tendering of resignation does not have a | |
| bearing on the jurisdiction of the Speaker in this regard. | |
| At this point we may allude to the case of D. | |
| Sanjeevayya v. Election Tribunal [D. Sanjeevayya v. | |
| Election Tribunal, AIR 1967 SC 1211] , wherein this | |
| Court has held that : (AIR pp. 1213-14, para 5) | |
136
PART E
| “5. It is, therefore, not permissible, in the present case, | |
|---|
| to interpret Section 150 of the Act in isolation without | |
| reference to Part III of the Act which prescribes the | |
| machinery for calling in question the election of a | |
| returned candidate. When an election petition has been | |
| referred to a Tribunal by the Election Commission and | |
| the former is seized of the matter, the petition has to be | |
| disposed of according to law. The Tribunal has to | |
| adjudge at the conclusion of the proceeding whether the | |
| returned candidate has or has not committed any | |
| corrupt practice at the election and secondly, it has to | |
| decide whether the second respondent should or | |
| should not be declared to have been duly elected. A | |
| returned candidate cannot get rid of an election petition | |
| filed against him by resigning his seat in the legislature, | |
| whatever the reason for his resignation may be.” | |
| Therefore, the aforesaid principle may be adopted | |
|---|
| accordingly, wherein the taint of disqualification does | |
| not vaporise, on resignation, provided the defection has | |
| happened prior to the date of resignation.” | |
(emphasis supplied)
203. The decision in Shrimanth Balasaheb Patil (supra) applied the principle
that disqualification relates to the date on which the act of defection takes place to
mean that acts or events subsequent to the commission of the conduct prohibited
under the Tenth Schedule, do not have an exculpatory effect. In other words,
subsequent acts or events do not have the effect of curing such conduct or
releasing the actor from the consequences which follow. This is consistent with the
decision in Rajendra Singh Rana (supra). Mr. Shinde’s appointment is therefore
not barred by Article 164(1B) of the Constitution.
b. The Governor did not exceed the scope of his authority
204. The petitioners submit that the Governor has exceeded the scope of his
authority by inviting Mr. Shinde to form the government because:
137
PART E
a. The President of the Shiv Sena, Mr. Thackeray, was not in favour of a
government formed in coalition with the BJP. However, the group led by Mr.
Shinde was in favour of such an alliance. By inviting Mr. Shinde to form the
government, the Governor has de facto recognized the group led by him as
the “real” Shiv Sena; and
b. The Governor is not empowered to recognize the legitimacy of one faction
over another. The ECI is the appropriate authority to determine which of the
two factions constitute the Shiv Sena.
205. The BJP returned one hundred and six candidates to the Maharashtra
Legislative Assembly, the highest amongst all political parties. It formed the primary
opposition party in the House. By a letter dated 30 June 2022, the then Leader of
Opposition, Mr. Fadnavis, wrote to the Governor claiming that one hundred and six
MLAs of the BJP extend their support to Mr. Eknath Shinde for the formation of a
government headed by Mr. Shinde. Eight independent candidates also extended
their support to a government helmed by Mr. Shinde. On the same day, Mr. Shinde
wrote to the Governor seeking to be called to form the Government. Based on the
material before him, that is, the communications received, the Governor invited Mr.
Shinde to take the oath of office, and directed him to prove his majority on the floor
of the House within a period of seven days. The post of the Chief Minister of the
State of Maharashtra fell vacant after the resignation of Mr. Thackeray on 29 June
2022. The leader of the party that had returned the highest number of candidates
to the State Assembly extended support on behalf of the party to Mr. Shinde. Thus,
138
PART F
the decision of the Governor dated 30 June 2022 inviting Mr. Shinde to form the
Government was justified.
F. Conclusions
206. In view of the discussion above, the following are our conclusions:
a. The correctness of the decision in (supra) is referred to a
Nabam Rebia
larger Bench of seven judges;
b. This Court cannot ordinarily adjudicate petitions for disqualification under
the Tenth Schedule in the first instance. There are no extraordinary
circumstances in the instant case that warrant the exercise of jurisdiction by
this Court to adjudicate disqualification petitions. The Speaker must decide
disqualification petitions within a reasonable period; .
c. An MLA has the right to participate in the proceedings of the House
regardless of the pendency of any petitions for their disqualification. The
validity of the proceedings of the House in the interregnum is not “subject
to” the outcome of the disqualification petitions;
d. The political party and not the legislature party appoints the Whip and the
Leader of the party in the House. Further, the direction to vote in a particular
manner or to abstain from voting is issued by the political party and not the
legislature party. The decision of the Speaker as communicated by the
Deputy Secretary to the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly dated 3 July
2022 is contrary to law. The Speaker shall recognize the Whip and the
Leader who are duly authorised by the Shiv Sena political party with
139
PART F
reference to the provisions of the party constitution, after conducting an
enquiry in this regard and in keeping with the principles discussed in this
judgement;
e. The Speaker and the ECI are empowered to concurrently adjudicate on the
petitions before them under the Tenth Schedule and under Paragraph 15 of
the Symbols Order respectively;
f. While adjudicating petitions under Paragraph 15 of the Symbols Order, the
ECI may apply a test that is best suited to the facts and circumstances of
the case before it;
g. The effect of the deletion of Paragraph 3 of the Tenth Schedule is that the
defence of ‘split’ is no longer available to members facing disqualification
proceedings. The Speaker would prima facie determine who the political
party is for the purpose of adjudicating disqualification petitions under
Paragraph 2(1) of the Tenth Schedule, where two or more factions claim to
be that political party;
h. The Governor was not justified in calling upon Mr. Thackeray to prove his
majority on the floor of the House because he did not have reasons based
on objective material before him, to reach the conclusion that Mr. Thackeray
had lost the confidence of the House. However, the status quo ante cannot
be restored because Mr. Thackeray did not face the floor test and tendered
his resignation; and
i. The Governor was justified in inviting Mr. Shinde to form the government.
140
PART F
207. This batch of Writ Petitions is disposed of in terms of the conclusions and
directions recorded above.
208. Pending applications, if any, stand disposed of.
..…………..……………………………….CJI.
[Dr Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud]
…………………….………………………….J.
[MR Shah]
…………………….………………………….J.
[Krishna Murari]
…………………….………………………….J.
[Hima Kohli]
…………………….………………………….J.
[Pamidighantam Sri Narasimha]
New Delhi;
May 11, 2023
141