BANGALORE INTERNATIONAL AIRPORT LIMITED vs AIRPORT ECONOMIC REGULATORY AUTHORITY & ANR.
- Court
- Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal
TELECOM DISPUTES SETTLEMENT AND APPELLATE
TRIBUNAL NEW DELHI
Reserved on: 31.07.2026
Pronounced on: 4.11.2026
AERA APPEAL/5/2021
Bangalore International Airport Limited. …Appellant
Versus
1. Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India;
2. Federation of Indian Airlines …Respondents
BEFORE:
HON’BLE MR. JUSTICE DHIRUBHAI NARANBHAI PATEL
(CHAIRPERSON)
HON’BLE DR. SANJEEV BANZAL (MEMBER)
FOR APPELLANT FOR RESPONDENT(S)
In AERA Appeal No.5/2021
In AERA Appeal No.
For BIAL
5/2021
For AERA (R-1)
Mr Sajan Poovayya, Sr Adv
Mr Manu Kulkarni
Ms Shweta Bharti
Ms Shristi Widge
Ms Yashodhara B. Roy
Ms Sriparna Dutta Choudhury
Ms Prakarti Srivastava
Mr Navin Kapoor
Page 1 of 546
Mr. Palash Maheshwari
For FIA(R-2)
Ms Kopal Tiwary
Mr Buddy Rangandhan, Sr.
Ms. Pratiksha Nagayach
Adv
Mr Prantar Basu Choudhury
Ms Nishtha Kumar
Mr Shrom Sethi
INDEX
S. No CONTENT Page No.s
1. SUMMARIUM 5 to 8
2. ABBREVIATIONS INVOLVED 8 to 12
3. FACTUAL MATRIX 13 to 19
4. ARGUMENTS OF THE APPELLANT 19 to 36
5. ARGUMENTS OF THE RESPONDENTS 36 to 53
6. REASONS & ANALYSIS 53 to 546
7. Issue No. I: Denial of additional PMC costs
incurred for completion of Terminal 2 due to
additional time spent being attributable to
lockdown restrictions for COVID19.
60 to 81
8. Issue No. II: Denial of Financing Allowance on
Capital Work-in-Progress pertaining to assets to be
capitalised during the Third Control Period.
82 to 105
9. Issue No. III: Applicability of AERA Act, 2008 or
otherwise for the period between May 2008 to
31.08.2009 for determining pre-control period
shortfall.
105 to 125
Page 2 of 546
10 Issue No. IV: Non-consideration of
losses/expenses to the tune of Rs. 53,30,00,000/-
incurred prior to Airport Opening Date (AoD).
125 to 142
11. Issue No. V: Disallowance of Capital Expenditure
towards Eastern Connectivity Tunnel (ECT).
142 to 159
12. Issue No. VI: Notional lease rentals of Bengaluru
Airport Hotel Ltd. (BAHL) .
159 to 177
13. Issue No. VII: Notional Lease rentals from AAI. 178 to 187
14 Issue No. VIII: Disallowance of additional
transportation costs to the tune of Rs. 8.25 Crore
incurred towards Terminal – 2 Apron.
187 to 195
15. Issue No. IX: Exclusion of KIA west metro station
from RAB of Third Control Period (TCP).
195 to 206
16. Issue No. X: Disallowance of capital expenditure
to be incurred for metro enabling works to be
capitalised as a part of MMTH.
206 to 212
17. Issue No. XI: Notional lease rentals on
Commercial Land Development.
212 to 220
18. Issue No. XII: Cap on cost of debt and fixing the
same at 7.85% throughout TCP.
220 to 228
19. Issue No. XIII: Non-recognition of COVID relief
measures given to airlines for true up in Second
Control Period.
228 to 233
20. Issue No. XIV: Capping for true up for
preoperative expenses for, inter alia, T2-Phase I.
233 to 247
Page 3 of 546
21. Issue No. XV: Capping of Design and PMC Costs
for expansion works and non-grant of true up.
247 to 257
22. Issue No. XVI: Consideration of Depreciation. 257 to 302
23. Issue No. XVII: Carry forward of the Aggregate
Revenue Requirement (ARR).
302 to 315
24. Issue No. XVIII: Consideration of Interest
Income for the purpose of tariff determination.
315 to 324
25. Issue No. XIX: Consideration of 30% non-
aeronautical revenue used to cross subsidise
aeronautical revenue base for computation of
aeronautical taxes.
324 to 335
26. Issue No. XX: Jurisdiction of AERA to consider
revenue from Land Development Activities.
335 to 351
27. Issue No. XXI: Jurisdiction of AERA to determine
tariff for CGF services, cargo handling, ground
handling and fire services.
351 to 395
28. Issue No. XXII: Consideration & estimates of
O&M Expenses.
395 to 408
29. Issue No. XXIII: Consideration of Personnel
Expenses during Third Control Period.
409 to 426
30. Issue No. XXIV: Penalty Imposed by AERA upon
the Appellant.
427 to 456
31. Issue No. XXV: Consideration of Income Tax. 456 to 472
32. Issue No. XXVI: Consideration Allocation of
Asset.
472 to 500
Page 4 of 546
33. Issue No. XXVII: Classification of Costs Incurred
towards certain Cost Centres as Common Instead
of Aeronautical.
500 to 521
34. Judgements delivered by this Tribunal ought to
have been implemented by AERA unless they are
stayed or modified.
521 to 546
JUDGEMENT
Per Justice D.N. PATEL, Chairperson
SUMMARIUM
The present appeal has been preferred by Bangalore
International Airport Limited ("BIAL"), the operator of the
Kempegowda International Airport, Bengaluru ("KIAB"), under
Section 18(2) of the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of
India Act, 2008 ("AERA Act"), assailing Order No. 11/2021-22
dated 28.08.2021 passed by the Airports Economic Regulatory
Authority of India ("AERA"). By the Impugned Tariff Order, AERA
has determined the aeronautical tariff for KIAB for the Third
Control Period commencing on 01.04.2021 and ending on
31.03.2026.
The present appeal raises a large number of issues concerning
the regulatory treatment of capital expenditure, financing costs,
Page 5 of 546
pre-control period claims, pre-opening expenditure,
depreciation, taxation, Cost of Debt, Regulatory Asset Base,
Operation and Maintenance expenditure, personnel expenditure,
asset and expense allocation, aeronautical and non-aeronautical
revenues, commercial land development, interest income, Cargo,
Ground Handling and Fuel/Fuelling services, and the extent of
AERA’s statutory jurisdiction under the AERA Act.
The appeal also concerns the treatment of expenditure relating
to Terminal 2, the Eastern Connectivity Tunnel, metro-related
infrastructure, notional lease rentals, COVID-19 related
expenditure and relief measures, and the carry forward of a
portion of the Aggregate Revenue Requirement to the
succeeding Control Period.
BIAL contends that several determinations made by AERA in the
Impugned Tariff Order are contrary to the AERA Act, the
Concession Agreement, the applicable Tariff Guidelines and the
regulatory principles governing KIAB. It is further contended that
AERA has, in several instances, substituted actual or prudently
incurred expenditure with normative ceilings, notional
assumptions or allocation methodologies lacking sufficient nexus
with the underlying asset, activity or cost centre; failed to give
due effect to the contractual concessions granted to BIAL; and
continued to apply earlier regulatory positions notwithstanding
Page 6 of 546
subsequent pronouncements of this Tribunal and the Hon’ble
Supreme Court.
The Respondent No.1 i.e., AERA, conversely, supports the
Impugned Tariff Order and contends that the determinations
have been made in discharge of its statutory functions under
Section 13 of the AERA Act after undertaking the prescribed
consultation process. AERA submits that tariff determination is
not a mechanical reimbursement exercise and that it is entitled
to scrutinise the necessity, efficiency, prudence and
reasonableness of expenditure, determine appropriate allocation
methodologies, moderate forecasts where required, undertake
true-up on actuals and ensure that passengers and other Airport
users are not burdened with inefficient, premature or
inadmissible costs.
The Respondent No.2 i.e. Federation of Indian Airlines (“FIA”)
has substantially adopted and supported the submissions
advanced on behalf of AERA. FIA emphasises the impact of the
claims advanced by BIAL upon airlines and passengers and
contends that only prudent and properly attributable expenditure
ought to be passed through the tariff mechanism.
This Tribunal is, therefore, called upon to examine the competing
submissions of the parties and determine whether the impugned
Page 7 of 546
regulatory treatment of the respective tariff building blocks is
legal, proper and correct. The issues are required to be
adjudicated within the framework of the AERA Act, the governing
concession documents, the established principles of tariff
regulation and the binding precedents of this Tribunal and the
Hon'ble Supreme Court.
ABBREVIATIONS
Abbreviations Expansion
AAI Airports Authority of India
Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act,
AERA Act
2008
AERA Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India
AO Airport Operator
AOC Airline Operating Committee
AoD Airport Opening Date
ARFF Airport Rescue and Fire Fighting
ARR Aggregate Revenue Requirement
ATS Air Traffic Services
ATM Air Traffic Management
BAHL Bangalore Airport Hotel Limited
BASHM Bird Aircraft Strike Hazard Management
BAC Base Airport Charges
BCAS Bureau of Civil Aviation Security
Page 8 of 546
BIAL Bangalore International Airport Limited
Judgment dated 16.12.2020 in Bangalore International
BIAL Judgment
Airport Limited v. AERA, AERA Appeal No. 8 of 2018
BMRCL Bangalore Metro Rail Corporation Limited
BRS Baggage Reconciliation System
BSSDPL Bharat Stars Services (Delhi) Private Limited
CAGR Compounded Annual Growth Rate
CGF Cargo, Ground Handling and Fuel Farm
CIC Common Infrastructure Charges
CNS
Communication, Navigation and Surveillance
CP
Consultation Paper
CMP Cash Management Process
CUSS Common User Self Service
CUTE Common User Terminal Equipment
CWIP Capital Work-in-Progress
DIAL Delhi International Airport Limited
Judgment dated 21.07.2023 in Delhi International
DIAL Judgment
Airport Limited v. AERA, AERA Appeal No. 1 of 2021.
Judgment dated 11.07.2022 in Delhi International
Airport Limited v. AERA, Civil Appeal No. 8378 of 2018,
reported as (2024) 1 SCC 716.
DIAL SC
Judgment
ECT Eastern Connectivity Tunnel
EPC Engineering, Procurement, and Construction
FAR Fixed Asset Register
Page 9 of 546
FCP First Control Period (1 April 2011 to 31 March 2016)
FCP Tariff Order AERA Order No. 8/2014-15 dated 10 June 2014
FIA Federation of Indian Airlines
FRoR Fair Rate of Return
FY Financial Year
GoI Government of India
GoK Government of Karnataka
GST Goods and Services Tax
HIAL GMR Hyderabad International Airport Limited
Judgment dated 14.02.2024 in Hyderabad
International Airport Limited v. AERA, AERA Appeal No.
4 of 2021
HIAL Judgment
HVAC Heating, Ventilation and Air Conditioning
ICAO International Civil Aviation Organization
ICT Information and Communication Technology
IDC Interest During Construction
Independent Regulatory Authority, as referred to in
IRA
the Concession Agreement
KIAB Kempegowda International Airport, Bengaluru
KIAL Kannur International Airport Limited
LPH Landing, Parking and Housing charges
MAT Minimum Alternate Tax
MCLR Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate
MIAL Mumbai International Airport Limited
Page 10 of 546
Judgment dated 06.10.2023 in Mumbai International
MIAL Judgment
Airport Limited v. AERA, AERA Appeal No. 2 of 2021.
MMTH Multi Modal Transport Hub
MPPA Million Passengers Per Annum
MoCA Ministry of Civil Aviation
MYTP Multi Year Tariff Proposal
NAR Non-Aeronautical Revenue
NCAP National Civil Aviation Policy, 2016
NSPR New South Parallel Runway
AERA’s Order No. 35/2017-18 dated 12.01.2018 in the
Order No. 35
matter of Determination of Useful Life of Airport Assets.
O&M Operation and Maintenance Expenses
PBT Profit before Tax
PMC Project Management Consultancy
P&L Account Profit and Loss Account
PPP Public Private Partnership
PSF Passenger Service Fee
RAB Regulatory Asset Base
RoI Return on Investment
RBI Reserve Bank of India
RITES Rail India Technical and Economic Service Ltd
RSA Revenue Share Assets
SBI State Bank of India
SCP Second Control Period (01.04.2016 to 31.03.2021)
Page 11 of 546
SCP Tariff Order Order No. 18/2018-19 dated 31.08.2018.
SIB State Intelligence Bureau
SPV Special Purpose Vehicle
SSA State Support Agreement
TCP Third Control Period
TDSAT Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal
UDF User Development Fee
TR Target Revenue
WACC Weighted Average Cost of Capital
WHMP Wildlife Hazard Management Programme
YoY Year on Year
AERA APPEAL NO. 05 OF 2021
1. The present appeal has been preferred under Section 18(2) of
the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act,
2008 (hereinafter referred to as the ‘ AERA Act, 2008’ for the
sake of brevity) challenging the order passed by Respondent
No.1 - Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India ,
(hereinafter referred to as ‘AERA’ for the sake of brevity) dated
28.08.2021, being Order No.11/2021-22, whereby, the
Respondent has determined Aeronautical Tariff for the Third
Page 12 of 546
Control Period i.e. from 01.04.2021 to 31.03.2026 . The
Impugned Tariff Order is at Annexure A-1 to the Memo of AERA
Appeal.
2. The impugned order has been passed by Respondent No.1, in
exercise of its powers under Section 13 (1) (a) of the AERA Act,
2008 for Kempegowda International Airport, Bengaluru
(hereinafter referred to as ‘KIAB’) . The said Order was
communicated to the Appellant– Bangalore International
Airport Limited (hereinafter referred to as ‘BIAL’ ) by email
dated 31.08.2021 .
FACTUAL MATRIX
i. BIAL was incorporated as a Special Purpose Vehicle on
05.01.2001 for the purpose of developing and
maintaining an international airport at Bengaluru. BIAL
was established as the first Greenfield airport developed
under the Public Private Partnership model , with AAI
and KSIIDC holding 13% equity each , while the private
promoters collectively held the remaining 74% equity .
The private promoters were selected pursuant to an
international competitive bidding process.
Page 13 of 546
ii. A Shareholders Agreement dated 23.01.2002 was
entered into between KSIIDC, AAI and the private
promoters of BIAL . Thereafter, a Concession
Agreement dated 05.07.2004 was executed between
BIAL and the President of India acting through the
Secretary, MoCA, whereby BIAL was granted the
concession to develop, construct and operate KIAB. The
Concession Agreement was subsequently amended on
20.11.2006 .
iii. State Support Agreement dated 20.01.2005 was
entered into between BIAL and the Government of
Karnataka. A Land Lease Deed dated 30.04.2005 was
thereafter executed between KSIIDC and BIAL. The State
Support Agreement was subsequently amended on
20.06.2006 . Similarly, Land Lease Agreement, dated
30.04.2005 was also amended subsequently. BIAL
achieved financial closure on 23.06.2005 and
commercial operations at KIAB commenced on
24.05.2008 .
iv. AERA was established under Section 3 of the AERA Act on
12.05.2009 , while Section 13, conferring upon AERA,
Page 14 of 546
inter alia, the function of determining tariff for
aeronautical services at major airports, was brought into
force on 01.09.2009 .
v. The First Control Period for BIAL was from 01.04.2011
to 31.03.2016 . AERA determined the aeronautical tariff
for the said period by Order No. 8/2014-15 dated
10.06.2014 . BIAL challenged various determinations
contained therein by filing AERA Appeal No. 3 of 2014
before this Tribunal.
vi. The Second Control Period was from 01.04.2016 to
31.03.2021 . During the pendency of AERA Appeal No. 3
of 2014, AERA passed Order No. 18/2018-19 dated
31.08.2018 determining tariff for the Second Control
Period, followed by a Corrigendum dated 04.09.2018 .
vii. During this period, BIAL commenced a substantial
expansion of KIAB, which included construction of the
New South Parallel Runway, Terminal 2 having a
capacity of 25 million passengers per annum,
landside projects and associated infrastructure .
The said expansion was approved by AERA in the Second
Control Period Tariff Order. BIAL challenged various
Page 15 of 546
determinations contained therein by filing AERA Appeal
No. 8 of 2018 .
viii. Certain expansion projects approved during the Second
Control Period were envisaged to be completed by
31.03.2021 . In that context, AERA issued a clarificatory
letter dated 13.09.2018 , recording that where
completion of a project beyond March 2021 was
occasioned by reasons beyond the control of BIAL or its
contracting agency and was properly justified, the same
would be considered at the stage of true-up in respect of
IDC and PMC .
ix. In March 2020, the COVID-19 pandemic and the
consequent restrictions imposed by the Central and State
Governments affected the execution of the expansion
works. In the meantime, and prior to disposal of the
appeals relating to the First and Second Control Periods,
BIAL submitted its Multi-Year Tariff Proposal (“MYTP”)
dated 24.07.2020 to AERA for determination of
aeronautical tariff for the Third Control Period, namely
01.04.2021 to 31.03.2026 .
Page 16 of 546
x. By a common judgment dated 16.12.2020 , single
member of this Tribunal disposed of, inter alia, AERA
Appeal No. 3 of 2014 and AERA Appeal No. 8 of
2018 , concerning the First and Second Control Periods
respectively. BIAL thereafter challenged the said judgment
before the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Civil Appeal Nos.
1798-1799 of 2021 , while issues arising from the
connected proceedings are also the subject matter of Civil
Appeal No. 1806 of 2021 . The said proceedings
concern the tariff determinations for the earlier Control
Periods.
xi. Thereafter, on 22.06.2021 , AERA issued Consultation
Paper No. 10/2021-22 containing its proposals for
determination of aeronautical tariff for the Third Control
Period. A stakeholder consultation was held on
09.07.2021 . BIAL submitted its response to the
Consultation Paper by letter dated 22.07.2021 ,
submitted its Annual Tariff Proposal on 29.07.2021 , and
thereafter filed its counter-submissions to the responses
received from other stakeholders on 30.07.2021 .
Page 17 of 546
xii. Upon completion of the consultation process, AERA passed
Order No. 11/2021-22 dated 28.08.2021 ,
determining the aeronautical tariff for KIAB for the Third
Control Period. The Impugned Tariff Order was
communicated to BIAL on 31.08.2021 .
xiii. Being aggrieved by several determinations contained in
the Impugned Tariff Order, BIAL preferred the present
AERA Appeal No. 05 of 2021 under Section 18(2) of
the AERA Act, 2008 , inter alia, on the ground that the
Impugned Tariff Order does not give due effect to the
provisions of the AERA Act, 2008, the Concession
Agreement, the applicable Tariff Guidelines and the
governing regulatory framework . BIAL has
accordingly sought setting aside of the Impugned Tariff
Order to the extent challenged in the present appeal and
consequential re-determination of tariff.
xiv. BIAL filed additional documents through M.A. No. 170 of
2024. This M.A. was filed on 22.04.2024 whereby
additional documents were brought on record.
Page 18 of 546
xv. BIAL filed through M.A. No. 171 OF 2024 with additional
grounds on 22.04.2024 . After hearing the parties, this
tribunal has allowed M.As. vide order dated 31.07.2024
xvi. During the pendency of the present appeal, the Appellant
has filed an Additional Affidavit dated 18.12.2025, wherein
it has decided not to press Issue No. XXVIII and Issue No.
XXIX, while reserving liberty to seek inclusion in the Fourth
Control Period.
ARGUMENTS CANVASSED BY APPELLANT- BIAL
3. Mr. Sajan Poovayya, learned Senior Advocate appearing on
behalf of the Appellant–BIAL, submitted that several issues
have already been decided by this Tribunal in AERA Appeal
No.1 of 2021 judgment dated 21.07.2023 (DIAL Judgement)
as well as by the decision of Hon'ble the Supreme Court of
India reported in (2024) 1 SCC 716 and that a number of them
are further covered by the judgments of this Tribunal in
Hyderabad International Airport Limited Vs. AERA, being AERA
Appeal No. 4 of 2021 (HIAL Judgement), Mumbai International
Airport Limited Vs. AERA, being AERA Appeal No. 2 of 2021
(MIAL Judgement), Mangaluru International Airport Limited Vs.
Page 19 of 546
AERA, being AERA Appeal No. 1 of 2023 and AERA Appeal No.
1 of 2024, Goa International Airport Limited versus AERA.
4. Ld. Senior Advocate for the Appellant has submitted that AERA
disallowed the increase in Project Management Consultancy
cost incurred after 31st March 2021 for Terminal 2, although
the time beyond that date was attributable only to the
lockdown and to the disruption of supply from China, Germany,
Israel and elsewhere.
5. It is stated that about four thousand workers remained on site
when the lockdown was announced and works were
recommenced as soon as the notification of 15th April 2020
permitted activity where labour was available in situ.
Productivity remained lower because of social distancing norms
and import delay.
6. Learned Senior Counsel submitted that AERA itself, by its
communication dated 13.09.2018, had represented that where
completion beyond March 2021 resulted from circumstances
beyond the control of BIAL or its contracting agency, properly
justified IDC and PMC expenditure would be considered at true-
up. The impugned refusal to recognise the additional PMC cost
was therefore said to be contrary not only to Sections
Page 20 of 546
13(1)(a)(i) and (iii) of the AERA Act but also to AERA’s own
prior regulatory assurance. It was urged that once the delay in
commissioning itself had been recognised, the necessary time-
related PMC consequence could not rationally be severed from
that delay.
7. Learned Senior Counsel submitted that AERA had previously
allowed Financing Allowance upon work-in-progress assets,
including projects approved during the Second Control Period,
and BIAL had made substantial equity investment on that
basis. According to BIAL, withdrawal of such allowance merely
because portions of the approved projects came to be
completed during the Third Control Period, substantially due to
COVID-related delay, defeated legitimate expectation and the
regulatory framework under which the investment had
originally been made.
8. As regards the period from 24.05.2008 to 31.08.2009, learned
Senior Counsel contended that Chapter III of the AERA Act
came into force only on 01.09.2009. AERA could not, therefore,
apply a statutory regime retrospectively to a period during
which it was not in force. AERA was in substance completing
the exercise which the Ministry of Civil Aviation would
Page 21 of 546
otherwise have undertaken under the Concession Agreement
and the other Project Agreements.
9. In the alternative, it was argued that if the statutory
methodology is to be applied to that period, it must be applied
in its entirety, including financing allowance and every other
building block, and not only in those elements which operate
against the Appellant.
10. It was contended that the sum of ₹53.30 crore represented
genuine expenditure incurred in planning, designing,
constructing and bringing the Airport into operational existence
and was reflected in duly certified books of account. The
expenditure included administrative expenditure, legal fees,
power and fuel, taxes and other costs incurred for
establishment of the Initial Phase.
11. It was argued that whether an expenditure was charged to the
Profit and Loss Account or capitalised, the same could not
determine whether the economic cost of creating the Airport
was recoverable through the regulated tariff and had the same
expenditure been capitalised, BIAL would have obtained
depreciation and return upon it; BIAL was instead seeking only
reimbursement of expenditure actually incurred.
Page 22 of 546
12. With regard to the Eastern Connectivity Tunnel, it was
submitted that Phase I was constructed together with the
eastern cross-field taxiway as a matter of prudence.
Constructing it later beneath the operational airfield would
have cost about Rupees one hundred eighty crore (Rs. 180
crore) and required closure of the cross-field taxiway, whereas
the Appellant completed it for about Rupees eighty-six crore
(Rs. 86 crore). The asset has been capitalised upon being put
to use and must be considered under Section 13(1)(a)(iii) and
(iv). Reliance was placed upon paragraph 440 of the HIAL
Judgment, where this Tribunal held that AERA has no
jurisdiction to dictate how an operator shall utilise its assets.
13. The Ld. Senior Counsel submitted that AERA does not have the
power to reckon notional lease rentals under Section
13(1)(a)(v) of the AERA Act, which empowers it to reckon
revenue "received". The decision to reckon notional lease is
ultra vires the Act, manifestly arbitrary, and violative of Article
14. AERA has failed to provide any basis for the sums arrived
at and has applied them retrospectively from the AoD when the
hotel was not even constructed. This is a non-speaking order
and violates the principles of natural justice.
Page 23 of 546
14. It is further submitted that AERA has erroneously considered a
notional lease from AAI. The CNS/ATM agreement between
BIAL and AAI was on a cost-recovery basis, and the cost of the
assets has been fully recovered. The Greenfield Airports Policy,
2008, mandates that the airport company provide the required
infrastructure to AAI free of cost. AERA is bound by this policy.
By imposing a notional revenue, AERA is acting contrary to the
policy and reclassifying income from aeronautical to non-
aeronautical to achieve a higher amount through cross-
subsidization, which is a colourable exercise of power.
15. The Ld. Senior Counsel submitted that AERA was not justified
in disallowing the additional transportation costs of Rs. 8.25
Crore incurred towards the Terminal-2 Apron. The construction
plan involved using the ECT, but it could not be used until
September 2020 due to a delay in receiving security clearance
from the Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS). This delay
was entirely beyond BIAL's control.
16. It is submitted that BIAL acted expeditiously by applying for
clearance in February 2019 and subsequently complying with
all directives from BCAS and the Expert Committee. The delay
in security permissions resulted in construction material having
Page 24 of 546
to be transported over a significantly longer distance of
approximately 20 kms through villages, leading to the
additional cost. BIAL cannot be penalized for delays arising
from the actions of a statutory regulator.
17. The Ld. Senior Counsel submitted that AERA's decision to
exclude the capital expenditure for the KIA West Metro Station
from the RAB is violative of the AERA Act. The station is
designed to decongest traffic by ensuring that while
passengers alight at the Airport Terminal Station, other airport
users, including statutory agencies, airline staff, and
concessionaires, alight at the KIA West station. This improves
the quality of services and ensures smooth passenger
movement. AERA's reasoning that the station is used only by
non-aeronautical concessionaires is incorrect and fails to
recognize its role as a common asset that benefits the entire
airport ecosystem.
18. It is submitted that AERA has erroneously disallowed the
capital expenditure for metro-enabling works, which are an
integral part of the Multi-Modal Transport Hub (MMTH). These
works, which have been capitalised in FY 2023, are necessary
to enable the construction of the Airport Terminal Metro Station
Page 25 of 546
while isolating the work from the operating Terminal-2. without
these works, the MMTH cannot be completed. AERA has
baselessly linked the metro commissioning with the enabling
works, which is an economically imprudent decision that
exposes airport users to avoidable risks and costs.
19. The Ld. Senior Counsel submitted that AERA's in terrorem
direction to apply notional lease rentals on commercial land
development is legally unsustainable and outside the scope of
its statutory powers. AERA's jurisdiction is confined to
determining tariffs for aeronautical services. It has no power
to direct BIAL to undertake non-airport activities or to urge the
Government of Karnataka to do so. This is a clear overreach of
its jurisdiction and a violation of the principles of natural
justice, as BIAL was not consulted on this specific proposal.
20. The Ld. Senior Counsel submitted that AERA's imposition of a
cap on the cost of debt and the adoption of a fixed interest rate
of 7.85% for a five-year period is arbitrary and contrary to
settled regulatory principles. This Hon'ble Tribunal has
consistently held that AERA does not have the power to cap
the cost of debt, as seen in the HIAL and MIAL Judgments. The
interest rate of 7.85% was a floating rate with an annual reset
Page 26 of 546
clause, and fixing it for five years would impede BIAL's viable
operations, especially considering the current cost of debt is
8.88%.
21. The Ld. Senior Counsel submitted that AERA has incorrectly
treated the tariff discounts of Rs. 4.61 crore given to airlines
during the COVID-19 lockdown as aeronautical revenue for the
true-up of the SCP. BIAL did not receive this sum. By notionally
considering it as revenue, AERA has acted arbitrarily. The
Airlines Operating Committee itself had submitted that such
discounts should be appreciated and not accrued to BIAL.
22. The Ld. Senior Counsel submitted that AERA's decision to cap
pre-operative expenses at Rs. 156 crore for true-up is arbitrary,
irrational, and violative of Article 14. This Hon'ble Tribunal has
repeatedly held that AERA must consider actual capital
expenditure and cannot put a pre-emptive cap. The SCP Tariff
Order provided for an ad hoc sum with a true-up at actuals,
and the TCP order has retrospectively withdrawn this benefit
without assigning any reasons, thus violating BIAL's legitimate
expectation.
23. The Ld. Senior Counsel submitted that AERA's decision to cap
the Design and PMC costs at 5% of the project cost is
Page 27 of 546
unsustainable. AERA is not empowered to put a pre-emptive
cap on capital expenditure. BIAL incurred PMC and Design
costs of Rs. 551 crores, which resulted in overall efficiency and
savings of Rs. 723 crores. By capping the cost, AERA has
effectively refused to consider a portion of the legitimate
capital expenditure incurred, violating Section 13(1)(a) of the
AERA Act and cannot be sustained in view of the principles laid
down subsequently in the case of in the DIAL & HIAL.
24. The Ld. Senior Advocate forcefully submitted that AERA’s
depreciation determination is legally & factually unsustainable.
AERA arbitrarily doubled the useful life of Plant & Machinery
from 7.5 to 15 years for the SCP and TCP true-up, ignoring
BIAL’s technical assessment on continuous /extra-shift
operations under AERA’s Amendment to Order No. 35.
25. It is submitted that AERA has wrongly treated non-RCC,
temporary and specialised assets such as Canopy, Project
Office and Nursery as permanent buildings with 30-year lives,
disregarding BIAL’s technical report. AERA fixed the existing
runway’s life at 30 years despite the Concession Agreement
and Order No. 35 specifying 20 years, and assigned 30 years
to the runway top layer despite 5-year resurfacing cycles and
Page 28 of 546
AERA’s own amortisation practice. Finally, AERA failed to
compute depreciation asset-wise from BIAL’s FAR, applying
instead a generic aeronautical ratio. The determination is thus
arbitrary and legally untenable.
26. The Ld. Senior Advocate submitted that AERA's decision to
carry forward the ARR shortfall of ₹940.63 crore to the next
control period is patently illegal and violates the AERA Act. This
Hon'ble Tribunal in the HIAL Judgment has held that AERA
has no power to direct an airport operator to recover part of
the ARR of one control period in the next. AERA's jurisdiction
is limited to regulating airport tariffs and does not extend to
ensuring the viability of airlines. The decision was not part of
the consultation paper and thus violates the principles of
natural justice. The carry-forward has effectively reduced
BIAL's return on equity from 15.05% to 9.55%, which is a
denial of its legitimate returns.
27. It is submitted that AERA has no jurisdiction to consider
interest income for the purpose of tariff determination. This
Hon'ble Tribunal has consistently held this in the MIAL, DIAL,
and HIAL Judgments. Interest income is earned due to better
cash management and is not generated from the provision of
Page 29 of 546
any aeronautical or non-aeronautical service. Considering it for
tariff determination amounts to double-dipping into BIAL's
legitimately earned revenues.
28. The Ld. Senior Counsel submitted that AERA has erred in not
considering 30% of non-aeronautical revenues while
computing aeronautical taxation. The 30% of non-aeronautical
revenue, when used to cross-subsidize aeronautical charges,
becomes part of the ARR and has a color of aeronautical
revenue. Therefore, it must be considered in the base for
calculating taxes. Reliance is placed on the HIAL Judgment and
DIAL Judgment.
29. The Ld. Senior Counsel submitted that AERA has wrongly
exercised jurisdiction by considering revenue from land
development activities, which are non-airport activities
rendered outside the precincts of the airport. This Hon'ble
Tribunal in the HIAL Judgment has held that such income is
outside the purview of AERA's jurisdiction. The Concession
Agreement provides distinct definitions for "Airport" and "Site,"
and non-airport activities undertaken at the Site are beyond
AERA's regulatory ambit, as also opined by the then Attorney
General of India.
Page 30 of 546
30. It is submitted that AERA has exceeded its jurisdiction by
determining tariffs for Cargo, Ground Handling, and Fuel Farm
(CGF) services. These services are non-aeronautical in nature
and are not part of the "Regulated Charges" under Schedule 6
of BIAL's Concession Agreement. This Hon'ble Tribunal in the
HIAL Judgment has held that CGF services are non-
aeronautical and revenues therefrom are non-aeronautical.
The Concession Agreement, being a pre-legislative contract,
grants BIAL the freedom to determine charges for these
services, and this concession must be honored by AERA under
Section 13(1)(a)(vi) of the AERA Act.
31. Ld. Senior Counsel submitted that AERA's estimation of
Operation and Maintenance (O&M) and personnel expenses for
the TCP is grossly inadequate and unreasonable. AERA has
benchmarked these costs without any empirical study and has
failed to consider the massive increase in infrastructure,
including the commissioning of Terminal-2 and the MMTH. The
terminal is operating at near-full capacity, necessitating higher
O&M and manpower costs.
32. The Ld. Senior Counsel submitted that AERA has no
jurisdiction, power, or authority under the AERA Act to levy any
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form of penalty. This issue is no longer res integra, as this
Hon'ble Tribunal has held in the HIAL, Mangaluru International
Airport, and MIAL judgments that AERA does not have the
power to impose penalties. The AERA Act does not confer such
a power, and MoCA has itself clarified this position.
33. The Ld. Senior Counsel submitted that AERA has incorrectly
deducted one-time depreciation before computing aeronautical
tax for FY 2019. BIAL paid Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) based
on its P&L account, which did not include the one-time
depreciation as it was charged to reserves as per Order No. 35.
AERA's action of adding it back to compute the tax liability is
contrary to the actual tax paid and the law laid down by the
Hon'ble Supreme Court in the DIAL Judgment.
34. It is further submitted that AERA has applied incorrect MAT
rates for FY 2020 and FY 2021. The basis for the aero tax
percentage was not shared with BIAL, and the tax paid for FY
2021 was erroneously shown as a negative figure, which is
impossible. This requires a fresh consideration after providing
BIAL an opportunity of hearing.
35. Lastly, the Appellant challenged the allocation of assets and of
expenses. It was submitted that, despite its commitment in the
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orders for the First and Second Control Periods to an
independent study, AERA declined to accept the Appellant’s
allocation of the opening Regulatory Asset Base. AERA applied
the terminal area ratio of 85.73 per cent to capital expenditure
instead of the ratio of 91 per cent derived from the Fixed Asset
Register, although the terminal area ratio can apply only to
common assets. Electrical and powerhouse equipment, chiller
plants and water-harvesting assets were said to be core utility
assets, and their classification as common was said to be
inconsistent with AERA’s treatment of the net utility cost as
aeronautical.
36. Similarly, the Chief Operating Officer and the Corporate Affairs,
Terminal Operations, Operations Planning and Project Co-
ordination, Customer Engagement and Service Quality,
Landside Equipment and Utilities teams were said to be
engaged in core airport operations, with no role in respect of
non-aeronautical concessionaires, so that their costs are wholly
aeronautical.
37. In aid of the aforesaid submissions, learned Senior Advocate
appearing for BIAL placed reliance, inter alia, upon the
judgments of this Tribunal in; DIAL v. AERA, AERA Appeal No.
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1 of 2021, decided on 21.07.2023; MIAL v. AERA, AERA Appeal
No. 2 of 2021, decided on 06.10.2023; HIAL v. AERA, AERA
Appeal No. 4 of 2021, decided on 14.02.2024; Mangaluru
International Airport Ltd. v. AERA, AERA Appeal No. 1 of 2023
and connected matters, decided on 11.09.2025; and GMR Goa
International Airport Ltd. v. AERA, AERA Appeal No. 1 of 2024,
decided on 11.09.2025.
38. The Ld. Senior Advocate has also placed reliance was also
placed upon the judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in
DIAL v. AERA, (2024) 1 SCC 716; BSES Rajdhani Power Ltd. v.
DERC, (2023) 4 SCC 788; DERC v. BSES Yamuna Power Ltd.,
(2007) 3 SCC 33; Cellular Operators Association of India v.
TRAI, (2016) 7 SCC 703; Mohinder Singh Gill v. Chief Election
Commissioner, (1978) 1 SCC 405; Gurudevdatta VKSSS
Maryadit v. State of Maharashtra, (2001) 4 SCC 534;
Nasiruddin v. Sita Ram Agarwal, (2003) 2 SCC 577; Siemens
Engineering & Manufacturing Co. of India Ltd. v. Union of
India, (1976) 2 SCC 981; Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills Co. Ltd.
v. State of U.P., (1979) 2 SCC 409 and Cheran Transport Co.
Ltd. v. Kanan Lorry Services, (1977) 1 SCC 604.
Page 34 of 546
39. It is submitted by learned Senior Counsel appearing for the
Appellant that, during the pendency of the present appeal, the
Appellant has filed an Additional Affidavit dated 18.12.2025,
wherein it has decided not to press Issue No. XXVIII, relating
to refusal to factor in interim revisions to the tariff order, and
Issue No. XXIX, relating to non-consideration of capital
expenditure towards the Airport Terminal Metro Station.
40. Insofar as Issue No. XXVIII is concerned, it has been stated
that, the Third Control Period being at the verge of its
conclusion on 31.03.2026, the relief of an interim revision of
tariff has, by passage of time, ceased to possess practical
efficacy, and the Appellant has therefore sought to leave the
question involved therein open for consideration in an
appropriate subsequent control period.
41. As regards Issue No. XXIX, the Appellant has stated that,
although substantial expenditure has already been incurred
towards the Airport Terminal Metro Station, its
operationalisation is now expected only during the succeeding
control period, after the airport metro line is made operational
by the Bangalore Metro Rail Corporation Limited, and that its
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commencement and completion are additionally dependent
upon several governmental approvals.
42. In view of the submissions advanced hereinabove, Ld. Senior
Advocate appearing for BIAL prayed that the present appeal
be allowed and the impugned determinations made by AERA,
to the extent assailed under the surviving issues, be set aside
or suitably modified in accordance with law and the judgments
relied upon by BIAL. It was further prayed that AERA be
directed to undertake the necessary re-computation and true-
up, and to give effect to the resultant financial adjustments,
including carrying cost wherever admissible, in the Fourth
Control Period.
ARGUMENTS CANVASSED BY RESPONDENT No. 1 –
AERA
43. Per contra, Ms. Shweta Bharti, learned Counsel appearing for
AERA, supported the impugned order. She submitted that AERA
acted within the powers conferred by Section 13 of the AERA Act,
2008 and in conformity with the Airport Guidelines of 2011, the
National Civil Aviation Policy, 2016 and the principles of the
International Civil Aviation Organization. The order was preceded
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by the consultation which Section 13(4) requires, comprising the
consultation paper dated 22.06.2021, the comments of
stakeholders and the stakeholder meeting held on 09.07.2021.
44. It is submitted by the Ld. Counsel that the regulator is bound to
balance the interests of all stakeholders, including airlines and
passengers, and not just the airport operator. Reliance was
placed upon AERA Vs. Delhi International Airport Limited, 2024
INSC 791, decided on 18.10.2024 in Civil Appeal Nos. 3098-3099
of 2023, where the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that tariff
determination is a regulatory function.
45. Learned Counsel for Respondent No.1, AERA, submitted that
several of the issues now raised were decided against the
Appellant by the judgment of this Tribunal dated 16.12.2020 in
AERA Appeal No. 3 of 2014 and AERA Appeal No. 8 of 2018,
which is the subject of Civil Appeal Nos. 1798-1799 of 2021 and
Civil Appeal No. 1806 of 2021 before the Hon’ble Supreme Court.
On that footing, AERA contended that the Appellant cannot re-
agitate those issues, invoking Section 10 of the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908 in relation to Bengaluru Airport Hotel Limited. It
further contended that, pending the Civil Appeals, it is entitled to
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continue the method it adopted in the Second Control Period in
relation to commercial land development.
46. In support of the disallowance of additional consultancy cost,
learned Counsel relied upon paragraph 5.5.9 of the impugned
order. While work at the site was disrupted, the Appellant ought
to have retained only such consultancy staff as the limited
ongoing work required. The mitigation measures claimed were
unsupported by evidence, and AERA, acting in the public interest,
has struck a balance between the operator and the users.
47. It was submitted that paragraphs 5.5.19 to 5.5.21 of the
impugned order set out the reasons for disallowing financing
allowance on assets to be capitalised from the Third Control
Period and that the financing allowance is a notional amount
representing a return at the cost of debt upon equity invested in
work in progress assets, and equity cannot be treated as a debt
instrument with an assured return. Financing allowance was
provided to greenfield airports in their initial stages because of
the long wait for any return, but the Appellant's operations have
matured over a decade and its new construction is an extension
of an operating airport, so that its risks are now akin to those of
brownfield airports.
Page 38 of 546
48. It is submitted by Ld. Counsel that AERA was not required, in
respect of the period preceding 01.09.2009, to step into the
shoes of MoCA and undertake tariff determination dehors the
AERA Act. It was submitted that AERA is itself a creature of the
AERA Act and can perform tariff-determination functions only
within the statutory framework from which its jurisdiction
emanates. According to AERA, the fact that relevant historical
expenditure or revenue relates to a period preceding
enforcement of Section 13 does not require the regulator, while
subsequently carrying out the tariff exercise, to discard the
governing statutory methodology.
49. Ld. Counsel for AERA submitted that the pre-opening losses of
Rs. 53.30 crore were rightly not considered. The investment in
regulatory building blocks was not available for utilization by
users/passengers before the airport opening date. The
users/passengers cannot be asked to pay for services they could
not avail. The claim for pre-opening losses defies logic and is also
sub-judice before the Hon'ble Supreme Court in Civil Appeal No.
1798-1799 of 2021.
50. Ld. Counsel for AERA submitted that the Eastern Connectivity
Tunnel was intended to give passengers access from the eastern
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side, a purpose it does not presently serve. Only completed
projects put to their intended use may be capitalised, a principle
upheld in the judgment dated 16.12.2020, and regulatory
classification does not follow the Companies Act or the
accounting standards.
51. Learned Counsel further submitted that responsibility for timely
clearances from the Bureau of Civil Aviation Security rested upon
the Appellant as project developer. The impugned order
considered the alternative route, but held that cost arising from
delayed clearances is not, by that fact alone, efficient capital
expenditure.
52. In support of the notional lease rentals, it was submitted that the
agreement for construction of the hotel subsisted from 2006, so
that rental from the airport opening date in 2008 is reasonable,
and a lessee must pay rent irrespective of its profitability. The
office space provided to the Airports Authority of India forms part
of the Regulatory Asset Base, upon which the Appellant earns a
return, and to forgo rent would confer a double benefit upon the
Appellant at the cost of passengers.
53. It is submitted by Ld. Counsel for Respondent No.1 that as
recorded in paragraph 5.5.28 of the impugned order, the KIA
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West Metro Station serves the Appellant’s employees and the
users of commercial services, and not passengers, who cannot
be charged for a facility they do not use. Under Clause 12.2 of
the State Support Agreement, transport connectivity is the
responsibility of the Government of Karnataka. As recorded in
paragraphs 5.2.29 and 5.5.15, the first phase of the Multi-Modal
Transport Hub comprises only the enabling works and the
baggage sorting area.
54. These will be put to use only upon commissioning of the metro,
and passengers cannot be required to pre-fund them. By its letter
dated 25.10.2021, AERA clarified that the cost would be
capitalised in the year of commissioning, and the Appellant
produced no material to show that the works were required
independently of the metro.
55. It was submitted by Ld. Counsel while defending paragraph 8.5.8
of the impugned order and the treatment of revenue from land
development, learned Counsel submitted that, under the National
Civil Aviation Policy, 2016, only thirty per cent of non-
aeronautical revenue is applied to cross-subsidy, precisely so that
the operator is encouraged to develop commercially. It was
urged that land provided at concessional rates for the viability of
Page 41 of 546
the airport nonetheless remains underutilised, and the resulting
shortfall in non-aeronautical revenue raises the tariff.
56. Reliance was placed upon paragraphs 34 and 38 of the judgment
dated 16.12.2020, which give the expression “Airport” a meaning
extending to the Site. Reliance was also placed upon Clause
3.2.1(iii) of the Concession Agreement and upon the letter of the
Government of Karnataka dated 06.03.2014, which states that
no land was earmarked exclusively for non-airport activity.
Section 13(1)(a)(iv) and (vii), read with Section 13(4), empowers
AERA to take such revenue into account. When the Concession
Agreement was executed, the single till prevailed, and the
Appellant now retains seventy per cent of its non-aeronautical
revenue under the hybrid till.
57. Learned Counsel submitted that the cost of debt of 7.85 per cent,
under paragraphs 6.6.3 and 6.6.4, is subject to true-up upon
actuals, subject to reasonableness and efficiency. Reliance was
placed upon paragraph 87 of the judgment dated 16.12.2020,
which held that a cost of debt allowed as a pass-through must
be efficient and commensurate with the prevailing reasonable
cost. As regards the discounts given during the pandemic,
paragraph 3.10.11 records that amounts recovered through tariff
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would cease to be discounts and become deferred payments by
the very users to whom they were given and no agreement for
repayment was ever entered into.
58. Learned Counsel submitted in respect of pre-operative expenses,
learned Counsel relied upon paragraphs 3.3.70 to 3.3.72. AERA
allowed up to Rupees one hundred fifty-six crore (Rs. 156 crore),
as approved in the Second Control Period order. Of that amount,
Rupees ninety-three crore sixty-one lakh (Rs. 93.61 crore) was
capitalised in that period, and the balance is subject to true-up.
An auditor’s certificate establishes that expenditure was incurred,
not that it was reasonable, and to allow these expenses again
would result in unjust enrichment.
59. The ceiling of five per cent on design and consultancy cost rests
upon the study by RITES Limited and by the letter dated
25.10.2021, AERA clarified that these costs will be trued up after
commissioning, subject to reasonableness. The corresponding
decision in the Second Control Period order was never
challenged.
60. On depreciation, it was submitted that Order No. 35 permits a
technical determination of useful life only for assets not listed in
it, whereas plant and machinery is listed, and many such assets
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remain in service beyond seven and a half years. The canopy,
project office and nursery fall within the class of buildings, for
which no lower life is prescribed. The life of thirty years for the
existing runway was fixed by paragraph 10.6.4 of the Second
Control Period order, which was not challenged.
61. The top layer is an integral part of the runway, and the cost of
resurfacing is separately allowed as repair and maintenance
amortised over five years. The aeronautical asset ratio secures
consistency across airports, and total depreciation is taken from
the audited accounts.
62. It is submitted by Ld. Counsel for AERA, Ms. Shweta Bharti that
the decision not to increase tariff inFY 2021-22 and to carry
forward about 13.85 per cent of the Aggregate Revenue
Requirement was fully reasoned in Chapter 14 of the impugned
order. It was taken in exercise of the powers conferred by Section
13, in keeping with the principles of the International Civil
Aviation Organization and Clause 12(c) of the National Civil
Aviation Policy, 2016, and upon a consideration of the
stakeholder comments recorded in Chapter 13.
63. It was submitted that comparable orders were passed for other
airports. Airlines are stakeholders within Section 2(o), and the
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deferred amount is recoverable in net present value terms, so
that deferment is not denial, the deferred amount being
recoverable in net present value terms in the next control period
through the true up, so that the Appellant suffers no loss.
64. It was submitted that the Appellant itself treated interest income
as non-aeronautical in its multi-year tariff proposal, and cannot
approbate and reprobate. The surplus which earns interest is
generated from aeronautical and non-aeronautical revenue alike,
and since interest during construction is passed on to
passengers, a share of the interest earned ought to cross-
subsidise aeronautical charges.
65. As to the tax base, the thirty per cent of non-aeronautical
revenue is a subsidy for airport users, upon which the operator
has already paid tax. Treating it as aeronautical income would
overstate the tax and dilute the cross-subsidy. That question is
pending before the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the appeal against
the DIAL Judgment, and the Delhi and Mumbai airports,
governed by the Operation, Management and Development
Agreement, are not comparable.
66. Learned Counsel submitted that Section 2(a) of the AERA Act, in
clauses (iv), (v) and (vi), expressly includes ground handling
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services, the cargo facility and the supply of fuel within
aeronautical services, and that where the words of a statute are
plain they must be given effect. The Act was enacted in 2008
with knowledge of the Concession Agreement of 2004, and the
deliberate inclusion of these services reflects the legislative
intent, which is borne out by the recommendation of the
Parliamentary Standing Committee upon the Bill and by the
statement of the Ministry of Civil Aviation recorded in the 94th
Report of the Public Accounts Committee.
67. It is submitted that Ministry's letter dated 24.09.2013 was a
directive under Section 42 of the Act which had to be accepted
in whole, including the aeronautical treatment of cargo, ground
handling and fuel revenue, that Clause 10.1 of the Concession
Agreement is subject to Applicable Law, and that any other
interpretation would create a diarchy in tariff determination.
68. It was further submitted that the Independent Regulatory
Authority is defined in the Concession Agreement as an authority
set up to regulate any aspect of Airport Activities, which include
these services under Schedule 3, that the grant of concession
under Clause 3.1.1 is itself subject to Applicable Law, and that
the charges in Schedule 6 are only indicative and not exhaustive.
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69. As regards operation and maintenance expenses, it was
submitted that the nil percentage for the year of capitalisation
follows the Appellant’s own business plan, and that the costs
consequent upon the deferred capitalisation of Terminal 2 will be
trued up. The percentages of gross block fixed in paragraphs
7.5.10 to 7.5.12 reflect the expectation that the new terminal will
operate below design capacity.
70. It was further submitted that with regard to personnel expenses,
the Appellant’s own data shows that about forty per cent of the
employees added in FY 2019 and FY 2020 were for Terminal 1.
The Appellant nonetheless sought the original headcount
additions although Terminal 2 was postponed by nine months,
and the escalation of 5.80 per cent was derived from the
Appellant’s own presentation.
71. It is submitted that the readjustment of one per cent provided
for delayed capitalisation ensures that capital works allowed in
the tariff are completed as assured. It rests upon Sections
13(1)(f), 14(4) and 15 of the AERA Act and Clause 9.2.9 of the
Concession Agreement. A similar measure was upheld in the
judgment dated 16.12.2020, upon AERA’s assurance that it
would examine any appropriate case on merits. To put the matter
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beyond doubt AERA is not describing the measure as a ‘penalty’,
and ‘no deduction has yet been made’.
72. It is submitted by Ld. Counsel for AERA that own methodology,
and it applied the ratio of aeronautical to total profit before tax
to the actual tax paid, as it did in the Second Control Period.
73. It was further submitted by Ld. Counsel for AERA, that the sum
of Rupees four crore fifty-six lakh (Rs. 4.56 crore) claimed in the
memorandum of appeal is deferred tax expense. The tax actually
paid for FY 2019 was Minimum Alternate Tax of Rupees one
hundred thirty-one crore four lakh (Rs. 131.04 crore), upon
which AERA allowed aeronautical tax of Rupees fifty-two crore
ten lakh (Rs. 52.10 crore). Since the one-time depreciation is
allowed as a pass-through in the Aggregate Revenue
Requirement, it must equally reduce the aeronautical profit
before tax. The effective rate is derived from the actual tax and
the actual profit, and cannot be displaced by the statutory rate
for a single year.
74. It was submitted by Ld. Counsel w.r.t to allocation, as recorded
in paragraph 3.3.73, the true-up of the First Control Period
attained finality with the Second Control Period order. A study of
the asset additions of the Second Control Period was nonetheless
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conducted pursuant to the judgment dated 16.12.2020. The
gross block ratio of 91 per cent is a composite ratio and cannot
be applied selectively to particular projects. The terminal area
ratio of 85.73 per cent corresponds to the Appellant’s own
segregation of common assets and is subject to true-up. Utility
infrastructure serves both classes of users during the
development phase.
75. The Appellant itself classified the chiller plant as common in
earlier years, and the allocation study for Hyderabad treats
terminal air-conditioning likewise. As regards expenses, the
terminal operations cost relates to a building which houses both
classes of services, and it was bifurcated on directly attributable
costs, with food, beverage and lounge items already reclassified
as non-aeronautical. The Chief Operating Officer and the
Operations Planning, Customer Engagement, Corporate Affairs
and Utilities teams serve the airport as a whole, and the central
air-conditioning maintained by the Landside Equipment team is
a common asset under Table 17 of the allocation study of April
2021. AERA accordingly prayed that the appeal be dismissed.
76. Learned Counsel appearing for AERA, in aid of the aforesaid
submissions, placed reliance primarily upon the judgments in
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BIAL v. AERA being AERA Appeal No. 8 of 2018, decided on
16.12.2020 and AERA v. DIAL & Ors . , 2024 INSC 791. It was
submitted that the aforesaid authorities, inter alia, support
AERA’s submissions concerning the regulatory character and
amplitude of tariff determination, the need for efficiency and
consistency in economic regulation, and the settled principles
governing interpretation of statutory provisions.
77. In view of the aforesaid submissions, it is submitted that there is
no substance in the present AERA Appeal and the same ought to
be dismissed by this Tribunal.
ARGUMENTS CANVASSED BY FEDERATION OF INDIAN
AIRLINES (FIA) – RESPONDENT NO.2
78. Mr. Buddy Rangandhan, Learned Senior Counsel appearing on
behalf of Respondent No. 2–Federation of Indian Airlines (“FIA”),
adopted the submissions advanced on behalf of Respondent No.
1–AERA and supported the determinations contained in the
Impugned Order.
79. It is submitted by the Ld. Counsel for FIA that AERA has
committed no error in passing Order No. 11/2021-22 dated
28.08.2021 for determination of the aeronautical tariff for KIAB
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for the Third Control Period. The Impugned Order is well-
reasoned, considers the interests of all stakeholders, and is in
consonance with the AERA Act, 2008, the Tariff Guidelines, 2011,
the NCAP, 2016, and ICAO principles. The appeal is liable to be
dismissed.
80. Ld. Counsel submitted that the governing principle throughout
the tariff exercise ought to be that passengers and airlines should
bear only such costs as are properly attributable to facilities and
services made available for their use. On this basis, FIA supported
AERA’s rejection of the pre-opening losses of ₹53.30 crore and
submitted that expenditure incurred before the Airport Opening
Date could not be shifted upon future users merely because it
had been charged to BIAL’s Profit and Loss Account. It was
contended that legitimate development expenditure would,
where appropriate, stand reflected in the RAB, and a separate
recovery of historical losses carried the risk of conferring a double
benefit upon BIAL.
81. Ld. Counsel specifically supported AERA’s treatment of the ₹4.61
crore COVID relief granted by BIAL to airlines. FIA, representing
the airlines which had received such relief, submitted that the
concession was understood and accepted as a genuine waiver or
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discount and not as a deferred payment recoverable from airlines
or passengers at a later stage.
82. It is submitted that, as no agreement providing for future
repayment had been entered into, neither was any corresponding
deferred revenue stated to have been recognised. BIAL could
therefore not, after extending the relief, convert the same
through true-up into a subsequent recovery from Airport users.
83. On asset and expense allocation, learned Counsel submitted that
AERA had adopted a rational methodology in distinguishing
aeronautical, non-aeronautical and common assets and
expenses. FIA supported AERA’s position that matters relating to
Opening RAB could not remain perpetually open after completion
of the earlier true-up exercise; that the composite Gross Block
Ratio of 91% could not selectively be applied only to common
assets; and that the Terminal Area Ratio of 85.73% constituted
an appropriate basis for allocating genuinely common assets.
84. It is further submitted that electrical and powerhouse equipment,
water-harvesting facilities and HVAC infrastructure served both
aeronautical and non-aeronautical areas and could therefore
legitimately be treated as common and similar submission are
advanced in support of the classification of cost centres such as
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COO, Corporate Affairs, Terminal Operations and Utilities as
common expenses where their functions benefited the Airport as
a whole.
85. In view of the aforesaid submissions, learned Counsel appearing
for FIA submitted that AERA had committed no error warranting
appellate interference in passing Order No. 11/2021-22 dated
28.08.2021 for determination of aeronautical tariff for KIAB for
the Third Control Period. FIA accordingly prayed that the
challenge raised by BIAL be rejected and the Impugned Order be
sustained, reiterating that it supports and adopts the argument
and the case advanced on behalf of Respondent No.1 -AERA.
REASONS & ANALYSIS
86. Taking into consideration the above legal submissions and
documents on record, it appears to us that in the present
AERA appeal; there are as many as 29 issues that have been
raised, and at present only 27 issues are pressed before us
during the course of arguments and taking into consideration
Additional Affidavit dated 18.12.2025.
87. It would not be out of place to mention that most of the issues
that has been agitated before us in the present appeal has
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already been decided by earlier decisions rendered by this
Tribunal in different AERA Appeals.
88. The peculiar feature of these litigations in general, has
resulted in disconcerting nature in which manner AERA has
dealt with the binding decisions of this tribunal, wherein,
despite the decisions rendered by this Tribunal, the same has
not been implemented at all by AERA, for the simple
expedient reasons that AERA has preferred appeal against the
decisions rendered by this Tribunal before Hon’ble Supreme
Court.
89. For the purpose of present dispute, upon hearing learned
Counsel for the parties and considering the pleadings and
material on record, the following issues arise for
determination:
I. Whether AERA was justified in disallowing the
additional Project Management Consultancy (PMC)
costs incurred for completion of Terminal-2, despite
such costs having arisen solely due to project delays
caused by mandatory COVID-19 lockdown restrictions
beyond the control of the airport operator?
II. Whether AERA acted contrary to the AERA Act, 2008
and established regulatory principles in denying
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Financing Allowance on Capital Work-in-Progress
pertaining to assets to be capitalised during the Third
Control Period?
III. Whether AERA has incorrectly applied the AERA Act,
2008 for the period between 24.05.2008 to
31-08-2009 for determining pre-control period
shortfall?
IV. Whether the refusal to consider pre-opening losses
and expenses amounting to ₹ 53,30,00,000/-, incurred
as an integral part of airport development prior to
commencement of operations, is arbitrary and legally
unsustainable?
V. Whether Disallowance of Capital Expenditure towards
Eastern Connectivity Tunnel (ECT) by AERA is just and
proper?
VI. Whether AERA failed to lawfully consider notional
lease rentals attributable to land leased to Bangalore
Airport Hotel Limited (BAHL) while determining the
tariff for the Third Control Period?
VII. Whether AERA has properly considered the Notional
Lease rentals from AAI?
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VIII. Whether AERA was justified in disallowing additional
transportation costs to the tune of Rs. 8.25 Crore
incurred towards Terminal-2 Apron?
IX. Whether AERA was justified in excluding capital
expenditure for KIA West Metro Station in RAB for
TCP?
X. Whether AERA was justified in disallowing capital
expenditure incurred for metro-enabling works
proposed to be capitalized as part of the Multi-Modal
Transport Hub (MMTH)?
XI. Whether the direction issued by the Airports Economic
Regulatory Authority of India, in terrorem, to apply
notional lease rentals on commercial land
development is legally sustainable and within the
scope of its statutory powers?
XII. Whether the imposition of a cap on the cost of debt
and the adoption of a fixed interest rate of 7.85% for
a period of five years for the Third Control Period is
arbitrary and contrary to the AERA Act, 2008 and
settled regulatory principles?
XIII. Whether non-recognition of COVID relief measures
given to airlines for true up in second control period is
legally tenable?
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XIV. Whether the decision of AERA of capping of pre-
operative expense for true up is just and proper?
XV. Whether the refusal of the Airports Economic
Regulatory Authority of India to consider Design and
Project Management Consultancy (PMC) costs
incurred for expansion works, and to grant true-up
thereof, is permissible in law?
XVI. Whether the determination of depreciation by the
Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India is
legally sustainable, particularly in respect of the
following
a. Alteration of the useful life of Plant and Machinery
to 15 years instead of 7.5 years for true-up of the
Second and Third Control Periods;
b. AERA has incorrectly fixed the useful life of
Canopy, New Project Office, and Nursery at 30
years;
c. AERA has incorrectly fixed the useful life of the
existing runway at 30 years instead of 20 years;
d. AERA has incorrectly fixed the useful life of the
runway top layer at 30 years instead of 5 years;
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e. AERA has Failed to compute Depreciation at
Individual Asset level.
XVII. Whether the decision of the Airports Economic
Regulatory Authority of India to carry forward the
Aggregate Revenue Requirement (ARR) amounting to
₹940.63 crore as on 03.03.2022 to the subsequent
control period is legally tenable?
XVIII. Whether AERA possesses jurisdiction under the AERA
Act, 2008 to take interest income into account for the
purpose of tariff determination?
XIX. Whether the exclusion of 30% of non-aeronautical
revenue, utilized for cross-subsidization of the
aeronautical revenue base, from consideration while
computing aeronautical tax is legally justified?
XX. Whether AERA exceeded its jurisdiction, while
considering revenues from land development activities
constituting non-airport activities undertaken outside
the precincts of the airport for the purpose of tariff
determination?
XXI. Whether AERA has jurisdiction under the AERA Act,
2008 to determine or regulate tariffs in respect of
Cargo, Ground Handling and Fuel Farm (CGF)
services?
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XXII. Whether the estimation of Operation and Maintenance
(O&M) expenses for the Third Control Period by AERA
is unreasonable, resulting in grossly inadequate
allocation of O&M costs?
XXIII. Whether AERA erred in computing unreasonably low
estimates of personnel expenses and in rejecting,
without adequate justification, the estimates
submitted by BIAL in the Multi-Year Tariff Proposal
(MYTP)?
XXIV. Whether AERA has the jurisdiction, power, or authority
under the AERA Act, 2008 to levy or impose any form
of penalty?
XXV. Whether AERA has incorrectly applied income-tax
principles in tariff determination, particularly by:
A. Deduction of One-Time Depreciation before
computing aeronautical tax.
B. Applying incorrect Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT)
rates for Financial Years 2019–20 and 2020–21
while calculating tax liability for the Third Control
Period.
XXVI. Whether AERA has erred in the exercise of asset
allocation, inter alia, by:
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A. Failing to accept BIAL’s asset allocation for
determination of the opening Regulatory Asset
Base (RAB);
B. Applying a terminal area ratio of 85.73% instead
of the ratio of 91% submitted by BIAL for
allocation of capital expenditure in FY 2021 and
the Third Control Period;
C. Classification of electrical and powerhouse
equipment, chiller plant, and water harvesting
assets as common assets rather than aeronautical
assets.
XXVII. Whether the decision of AERA incorrectly classifies the
costs incurred towards COO, Corporate Affairs team
Terminal Operations team Operations planning,
project co-ordination and Customer engagement and
service quality management Land side equipment
team Utilities team as “common” instead of
“aeronautical”?
ISSUE NO.I: Denial of additional PMC costs incurred for
completion of Terminal 2 due to additional time spent
being attributable to lockdown restrictions for
COVID19.
Page 60 of 546
th
90. By virtue of the impugned order dated 28 August 2021,
st
pertaining to the Third Control Period, i.e., from 1 April 2021
st
to 31 March 2026, in respect of KIAB, AERA, while exercising
its powers under Section 13 of the AERA Act, disallowed the
increase in Project Management Consultancy (PMC) costs
st
incurred by the Airport Operator-Appellant after 31 March
2021 for the completion of the Terminal-2 Building of KIAB
Airport.
91. Looking to the facts and circumstances of the present case, it
appears that the stipulated time for completion of the
st
Terminal-2 Building was up to 31 March, 2021. However, due
to circumstances beyond the control of the Appellant,
particularly the restrictions and disruptions caused by the
COVID-19 pandemic, additional time was required for
completion of the work, including for the procurement of
materials and other related activities.
92. Therefore, the additional expenditure incurred towards
Project Management Consultancy (PMC) on account of such
delay ought to have been allowed by AERA while determining
the tariff under Section 13 of the AERA Act, 2008.
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th
93. The announcement of lockdown was made on 24 March
2020. There were approximately 4,000 workers at site, as
submitted by the counsel appearing for the appellant. Initially,
the work for construction was not allowed to continue
because of COVID-19. Thereafter, by notification dated
15.04.2020, construction activity was permitted where
workers were available in situ/on-site, and the present
appellant recommenced the construction works, but, work
was slower than estimated/planned before onset of COVID-
19 due to various issues, threats and protocols which were
associated with COVID-19.
94. There was considerable delay in supply of products and
systems imported by the appellant from the countries such as
China, Germany, Israel, etc. Due to global lockdown, essential
protocols had to be maintained among the workers, which has
also resulted in the reduction in the productivity and in the
pace of construction, which has resulted into delay in
completion of the project. These aspects of the matter have
not been properly appreciated by AERA while passing the
impugned order.
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95. Moreover, AERA has allowed the deferment of the date of
commencement of the project; however, AERA has failed to
consider the appreciated costs incurred towards Project
Management Consultancy (PMC). Once the deferment of the
date of commencement of the project has been allowed, it
means that the delay in the completion of the project was
attributable to genuine and justifiable reasons. Therefore, the
additional PMC cost actually incurred by the Appellant for the
completion of the Terminal-2 Building, on account of the
additional time spent due to the lockdown restrictions
imposed during the COVID-19, should have been allowed by
AERA.
96. The Ministry of Labour, Government of India, issued
th
communication and advisory dated 20 March 2020, wherein,
the employers were advised not to terminate their employees,
particularly casual and contractual workers. In compliance
with the said advisories, and with a view to reducing the
associated costs, the Appellant took the following steps to
comply with the advisories and reduce the associated costs.
Which are as follows:
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I. The Appellant changed its deployment plan and other
arrangements to optimize the utilization of the Project
Management Consultancy (PMC).
II. The Appellant also renegotiated the agreement with the
PMC to obtain a discount from the PMC in the form of
agreeing upon a lump-sum value for a ceiling limit of
the deployment.
III. Escalation clause contained in the agreement was
removed to reduce the cost by negotiations with the
PMC. As per PMC contract, the consultant was entitled
to an annual escalation of 8% YoY (year-on-year) in
respect of the price of deployed resources. This was
renegotiated and the PMC cost was reduced. These
rd
communications were dated 23 February 2021 and
th
28 April 2021, which are also on record with record
with Annexure A-20.
IV. The deployment of the PMC staff was also reconstructed
so as to reduce the PMC cost.
97. In view of the aforesaid steps initiated by the appellant, it
cannot be said that BIAL took no measures to reduce or
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mitigate the additional PMC cost. On the contrary, appellant
has taken all the steps to reduce the PMC cost. Nonetheless,
looking to the COVID-19 situation prevailing at the relevant
time, as stated hereinabove, there was additional PMC cost
actually incurred by the appellant for completion of Terminal
2 building at BIAL airport.
98. PMC service contract between BIAL and its PMC was entered
into after a transparent bidding process. The said contract is
based upon fixed duration and on a fixed cost basis. The
contract was executed before COVID-19, and therefore, if the
costs are incurred under such contracts and there is an
overrun for reasons beyond BIAL's control, the same ought to
have been considered by AERA, as BIAL has exercised
commercial expediency to mitigate the losses upon advent of
COVID-19.
99. At this juncture it has been rightly relied upon by the
appellant, the letter issued by AERA to BIAL dated 13th
September 2018, which is at Annexure A-7 to the memo of
this appeal, especially paragraphs 1, 2 and 3 thereof. The
relevant part of the said communication dated 13th
September 2018 reads as under:
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“ 1. The Authority had not considered the cost of
Terminal 2 phase 1 project in consultation paper as
the project was proposed to be completed in FY
2022 as per submission of BIAL.
2. However, subsequent to the issue of consultation
paper, the Bangalore airport had revised the
timelines of the project and had given an assurance
to the Authority that the terminal 2 phase 1 project
would be completed and capitalized by March
2021. Based on the assurance given by BIAL, the
Authority included Rs. 3710.92 crores in
Aeronautical RAB for determining the tariff for the
2nd control period. This consequently resulted in
higher ARR being granted to the airport. The
Authority felt that the inclusion of project cost of
Rs.3710.92 crores in RAB is based on the
assurance given by BIAL, and there should be a
penalty in case there is a delay in completion
/operationalization of the project beyond March
2021. The Authority further decided not to
st
consider any IDC and PMC charges beyond 31
March, 2021 in case of delay in
completion/operationalization of the project.
3. It is clarified that in case there is delay in
completion of project beyond March 2021, due to
any reason beyond the control of BIAL or its
contracting agency and is properly justified, the
same would be considered by the Authority while
truing up the actual cost at the time of
rd
determination of tariff for the 3 control period in
respect of IDC and PMC. However, there will be no
waiver of penalty in case phase 1 of Terminal 2
st
project is delayed beyond 31 March, 2021 under
any circumstances. ”
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100. As the delay was not attributable to BIAL, in view of the
aforesaid communication AERA ought to have allowed the
justifiable IDC and Project Management Cost (PMC) overruns
to the extent of Rs.50 Crores in the third control period (TCP).
In fact, the delay in the present case in completion of Terminal
2 building was neither attributable to the users nor to BIAL,
but to COVID-19, which is a circumstance beyond the control
of BIAL and, therefore, also AERA should have allowed
additional PMC cost actually incurred by the appellant for the
completion of Terminal 2 building.
th
101. Further, in view of the aforesaid communication dated 13
September 2018 (Annexure A-7 to the memo of this AERA
appeal); AERA has estopped from denying the additional PMC
cost. For the ready reference, Section 13 (1) (a) (i) of the
AERA Act, 2008 reads as under:
“POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE AUTHORITY
13. Functions of Authority. –
(1) The Authority shall perform the
following functions in respect of
major airports, namely: -
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(a) to determine the tariff for
the aeronautical services
taking into consideration —
(i) the capital expenditure
incurred and timely
investment in
improvement of airport
facilities ;
102. Looking to the provisions of AERA Act 2008, the actual
expenditure incurred by the Airport Operator has to be
allowed while determining the tariff. AERA cannot disregard
the contracts entered into by BIAL. AERA cannot apply an
empirical or subjective standard to the expenditure incurred
by BIAL.
103. In view of the aforesaid provisions of the AERA Act, once the
appellant has actually incurred the PMC cost towards the
development of airport facilities, namely the Terminal 2
Building, which is being constructed to provide efficient
services to passengers, such additional PMC cost ought to be
allowed by AERA while determining the tariff under Section
13 of the AERA Act, 2008.
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104. Earlier, the date of completion of project was 31.03.2021
which was extended up to 31.03.2022. This extension was
permitted by the Authority and, therefore also, additional PMC
cost ought to have been allowed by AERA. In fact, this
Terminal-2 building was to be completed during Second
Control Period (01.04.2016 to 31.03.2021), but due to COVID-
19 it was completed on 31.12.2022.
105. The material placed before AERA disclosed shortage and
dislocation of labour, restrictions upon movement,
requirements of physical distancing and other health
protocols, besides substantial disruption of domestic and
international supply chains. BIAL had specifically referred to
delays in procurement of products and systems sourced from
countries including China, Germany and Israel. These
circumstances necessarily had a bearing upon the pace at
which a project of the magnitude and complexity of Terminal
2 could be executed.
106. It is without a doubt that AERA itself accepted the existence
and effect of these circumstances. In paragraph 5.2.14 &
5.2.18 of the impugned order, AERA recorded that COVID 19
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had affected infrastructure projects in India and had resulted
in delay.
107. It further found that the reasons furnished by BIAL, supported
by data concerning labour shortages and disruption of the
supply chain, appeared reasonable to justify completion of
Terminal 2 beyond 31.03.2021. For ready reference
paragraphs 5.2.14, 5.2.18 & 5.5.8 of the impugned order
passed by AERA dated 28.08.2021 (Annexure A-1 to the
memo of this appeal) reads as under:
“ 5.2.14 The Authority has noted that COVID-19 has
affected the Indian infrastructure projects and
has led to delay in the projects. The Authority
is of the view that the reasons provided by BIAL
with the data on labour shortages and supply
chain seems reasonable to justify that the
project will get delayed beyond 31 March 2021.
…
…
5.2.18 The Authority proposes to levy the reduction
(adjustment) of 1% in the project cost of
Terminal 2 in case BIAL fails to commission and
capitalize Terminal 2 Phase I by 31 March 2022.
It is clarified that in case there is delay in
completion of project beyond March 2022, due
to any reason beyond the control of BIAL or its
contracting agency and is properly justified, the
same would be considered by the Authority
while truing up the actual cost at the time of
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determination of tariff for the 4th control period
in respect of IDC and PMC. However, there will
be no waiver of penalty in case Phase I of
Terminal 2 project is delayed beyond 31 March
2022 under any circumstances.
…
…
5.5.8 The Authority has noted BIAL's submission to
postpone the commissioning date of Terminal 2
to December 2022 and accordingly, the
Authority has made changes to the
capitalization of the Terminal 2. ”
108. In view of the aforesaid observations by AERA in their
impugned order, it appears that AERA has accepted the fact
that COVID-19 has affected the Indian infrastructure projects.
By the virtue of the aforesaid paragraph, AERA has also
accepted the fact that BIAL has supplied the data for labour
shortage and supply chain which has also been affected due
to COVID-19 and there was proper justification given by BIAL
that the project will get delayed beyond 31.03.2021.
109. Moreover, looking to paragraph 5.2.18 of the impugned order,
AERA proposes not to levy any penalty for non-
completion of Terminal-2 Phase-I project up to
31.03.2022. Thus, time to complete Terminal-2
Phase-I project was extended up to 31.03.2022 .
Page 71 of 546
110. In view of these aspects of the matter and especially looking
to the reasons given by AERA especially in paragraph nos.
5.2.14 and 5.2.18, AERA ought to have allowed additional
PMC cost, actually incurred by the Appellant for completion of
Terminal-2 building due to additional time spent which is
attributable to lockdown restrictions for COVID 19.
111. In view of the aforesaid observations by AERA in the
impugned order, it appears that the authority had made
changes to capitalization of Terminal -2 building but has
observed in para 5.5.9 that the delay in execution of Terminal-
2 building is not on account of airport users and hence, user
should not be loaded with additional costs; for ready
reference paragraph 5.5.9 of the impugned order reads as
under:
“5.5.9 . The Authority has examined the submission
of BIAL to allow the additional PMC cost on
account of delay in the Terminal 2
capitalization . BIAL has submitted that the
increase in the PMC cost is on account of the
increase in the man-months of the PMC
consultant and not related to scope. The
Authority is of the view that in case the work
at the project site has been disrupted by the
COVID-19 pandemic, th en BIAL should have
incurred only the staff cost of the PMC
consultant which is required for the limited
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ongoing work undertaken during this time and
not for the entire or unnecessary staff of the
PMC consultant. The delay in execution of
Terminal 2 is not on account of the airport
users and hence the users should not be
loaded with additional costs. Further, the
Authority noted that it is a general practice to
consider the PMC cost as a percentage of the
total capital expenditu re on the project.
Therefore, the Authority does not consider it
correct to link the PMC cost with the project
duration. Hence , the Authority is of the view
that the increase in the PMC cost as submitted
by BIAL lacks sufficient justification and
rationale and therefore, th e increase in PMC
cost for Terminal 2 is considered by the
Authority as inefficient. Accordingly, the
Authority d ecides to disallow increase in PMC
cost of Terminal 2 incurred after 31 March
2021. ”
112. This reasoning given by AERA is hereby quashed and set aside
mainly for the reason that the delay in execution of Terminal-
2 building project was neither because of users nor because
of the appellant, but, because of COVID 19- circumstances
beyond the control of the appellant and, therefore, as per
Section 13 (1)(a)(i) of the AERA Act, AERA ought to have
allowed actual expenditure incurred by the Airport Operator-
BIAL while determining tariff. Thus, reason given in paragraph
5.5.9 of the impugned order are without appreciation of
tenets of law and facts on record, thereby being arbitrary and
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preserve in nature and cannot be sustained on law and facts
on record.
113. We find a further infirmity in the approach adopted by AERA.
In paragraph 5.2.14 of the impugned order, the Authority
itself accepted that the material placed by BIAL concerning
shortage of labour and disruption of the supply chain
furnished a reasonable justification for the delay in completion
of Terminal 2 beyond 31.03.2021. Having accepted the cause
of prolongation as genuine and beyond the control of the
Appellant, AERA thereafter proceeded, in paragraph 5.5.9, to
characterise the consequential increase in PMC expenditure
as inefficient, without identifying any particular deployment of
personnel, contractual payment or item of expenditure which
was found to be unnecessary, excessive or imprudent.
114. The reasoning provided by AERA that there was no increase
in the scope of work also does not, in our considered view,
answer the claim. Scope and duration are distinct incidents of
project execution. The former concerns the nature and extent
of the work required to be undertaken, whereas the latter
concerns the period over which the resources necessary for
execution and supervision of such work are required to remain
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deployed. A project may retain precisely the same physical
scope and yet, because of circumstances beyond the control
of the project developer, require a substantially longer period
for completion.
115. Learned senior counsel for the appellant Mr. Sajan Poovayya
has also taken this Tribunal to Annexure R-27 at page 3559
and 3560 which are office memorandum published by the
Government of India dated 23.03.2020 and by Ministry of
Labour and Employment and vide DO communication dated
th
20 March, 2020.
116. It has been pointed by the learned counsel that by the virtue
of these communications, employees may not be terminated
nor the wages can be reduced particularly casual or
contractual workers during COVID-19 period. In view of these
facts also, when the date of completion of Terminal-2 building
project was extended, there will be additional PMC cost and
the same should have been allowed by AERA.
117. It is a well settled principle of regulatory jurisprudence that a
regulator while assessing the prudence of costs incurred by a
regulated entity must apply the standard of what was known
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at the time when the expenses were incurred and not what is
known in hindsight.
118. In the present case the approach of AERA is to criticise the
Appellant, based on presumptuous finding that the appellant
should have incurred only the staff cost required for limited
ongoing work and not for the entire or unnecessary staff of
the PMC consultant is a classic instance of hindsight bias. The
Authority is evaluating decisions made in March and April
2020 when the pandemic was in its incipient stages
and when no one could have predicted its duration or
severity . The Appellant had no way of knowing how long the
disruption would last.
119. AERA has not denied the fact that demobilising the PMC staff
would have exposed the Appellant to the risk of being unable
to remobilise them at short notice when work resumed. The
expectation of demobilisation is therefore commercially
untenable.
120. Thus, we remind the Ld. AERA again that the concept of
prudence in regulatory law is not to be confused with a roving
inquiry into every decision taken by the regulated entity. The
regulator is not an appellate authority over the commercial
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decisions of the airport operator. The role of the regulator is
to ensure that the costs claimed are legitimate and that they
have been incurred in a manner consistent with the ordinary
principles of commercial prudence.
121. The test is not whether the regulator would have taken the
same decision but whether the decision was one which a
reasonable and prudent businessman faced with the same
circumstances could have taken. The decision of the Appellant
to continue with the PMC contract during the COVID 19 period
rather than demobilise the staff and risk the consequences of
demobilisation was a decision which any prudent
businessman could have taken.
122. We are of the opinion that the clarificatory letter dated
13.09.2018 must be interpreted in a reasonable and purposive
manner. The letter was issued by the Authority to clarify the
consequences of a delay in the completion of the project and
it states that if there is delay in completion of the project
beyond March 2021 due to any reason beyond the control of
the Appellant or its contracting agency and is properly
justified the same would be considered by the Authority while
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truing up the actual cost at the time of determination of tariff
for the Third Control Period in respect of IDC and PMC.
123. The words appearing in the letter stating any reason
beyond the control of the Appellant are wide enough
to cover the COVID 19 pandemic and the subsequent fact
that the Authority itself has accepted that the pandemic
created genuine issues for completion of the project.
124. The words while truing up the actual cost mean that the
Authority must examine the actual cost incurred and allow it
if it is found to be reasonable. The Authority has failed to carry
out this exercise. Instead, what appears to us from the record
is that the Authority has disallowed the cost in limine on the
ground that it is inefficient. This is contrary to the letter and
spirit of the clarificatory letter.
125. We are also of the opinion that the communication dated
13.09.2018 did not confer an unconditional entitlement to
reimbursement of every additional expenditure that might
subsequently be claimed. Nor could such a communication
denude AERA of its statutory obligation to undertake a
prudence examination. AERA had itself represented, as part
of its regulatory treatment of Terminal 2, that a properly
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justified delay beyond the control of the airport operator
would be considered at true up in respect of IDC and PMC.
126. When the very contingency contemplated in that
communication materialised in the form of an unprecedented
pandemic, AERA was required to examine the resulting
expenditure on that footing. A categorical rejection founded
substantially upon the propositions that the users were not
responsible for the delay and that PMC cost should ordinarily
be expressed as a percentage of project cost does not satisfy
that requirement and mandate of Section 13(1)(a)(i) of the
AERA Act requires the Authority, while determining tariff for
aeronautical services, to take into consideration “the capital
expenditure incurred and timely investment in
improvement of airport facilities.”
127. Even if there were any ambiguity in the clarificatory letter the
ambiguity must be resolved against the Authority which
drafted the letter. The principle of contra proferentem
applies with full force to documents issued by public
authorities. The Authority cannot take advantage of an
ambiguity in its own document to deny the Appellant the
benefit of the representation contained therein.
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128. We must also note that where delay is attributable entirely to
the project developer, the financial consequence may
legitimately remain with it. Where the delay results from
causes beyond its control and absence of imprudence is
established, the additional cost occasioned by the time
overrun is capable of being recognised, subject to the
regulator’s prudence check and appropriate adjustment of
corresponding recoveries.
129. Looking to the facts of the present case, we are of the opinion
that present appellant- BIAL's decision was prudent and as
per industry practice, especially for highly skilled
infrastructure projects like Terminal 2 building, especially
when BIAL has already incurred the expenditure under the
contract. AERA cannot rewrite the contract nor can change
the amount of construction under the contract.
130. These aspects of the matter have not been properly
appreciated by AERA. Hence, we quash and set aside the
decision of AERA of disallowance of increase in PMC cost
incurred after 31st March 2021. We hereby direct AERA to
allow the additional PMC cost actually incurred by the
appellant for completion of Terminal 2 building due to
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additional time spent being attributable to lockdown
restrictions for COVID-19.
131. The Third Control Period came to a close on 31st March 2026
during the pendency of this appeal. The Appellant has
accordingly sought that the additional consultancy cost be
trued up in the determination of tariff for the Fourth Control
Period, and the relief is moulded accordingly.
132. In view of the aforesaid facts and reasons, we hereby
quash and set aside the decision of AERA as
mentioned in paragraph 5.5.9 of the impugned order
(Annexure A-1) of not allowing the increase in the
PMC cost incurred by appellant after 31.03.2021 for
Terminal-2 building. We hereby direct AERA to allow
additional PMC cost incurred for completion of
Terminal-2 building due to additional time spent,
necessary true -up shall be given by AERA for
th
additional PMC cost during 4 Control Period. Hence,
Issue No. I is accordingly answered in favour of the
Appellant.
Page 81 of 546
Issue No. II. Denial of Financing Allowance on Capital
Work-in-Progress pertaining to assets to be capitalised
during the Third Control Period
133. It is submitted by learned senior counsel for the appellant that
rd
AERA while passing the impugned order dated 28.08.2021 for 3
Control Period (Annexure A-1) has disallowed the financing
allowance for BIAL on the assets which will be capitalized from
Third Control Period onwards. It is further submitted that AERA
should have allowed financing allowance with true-up in Fourth
Control Period. Per contra, it is submitted by learned counsel for
AERA, financing allowance was not allowed to other airports such
as DIAL, MIAL and KIAB.
134. Having heard the counsels for both the sides and looking to the
facts and circumstances of the case, it appears that AERA had
allowed financing allowance for projects approved for completion
in Second Control Period (01.04.2016 to 31.03.2021). There
were several projects as for e.g. Terminal-2 Phase-I project,
Runway-II project, Taxiway and Apron Phase-Ia, etc. For all
these projects, financing allowance was allowed while passing
the tariff order for Second Control Period.
Page 82 of 546
135. In view of the aforesaid order passed by AERA, which is a tariff
order for Second Period Control (decision in paragraph no.6.a(i)
to be read with Table No.27 of Second Period Control tariff order)
BIAL has made equity investments to the tune of Rs.2425 Crores
as of 31.03.2021 for the said projects. Because of delay due to
COVID-19, portions of the said projects were expected to be
rd
completed by 31.12.2022 in 3 Control Period and in fact they
have been completed in FY 2023.
136. Surprisingly, the financing allowance was granted in Second
Period Control tariff order for the part of the projects but during
rd
3 Control Period, the projects which were completed by FY2023,
the financing allowance was disallowed by AERA, this is
absolutely arbitrary in nature, there cannot be a zig-zag approach
of AERA in fact, this is a whimsical approach and reflects non-
application of mind by AERA because such deferred projects
rd
which were in construction during 3 Control Period, AERA has
withdrawn the financing allowance.
137. It ought to have been appreciated by AERA that investment and
financing allowance for projects in Second Control Period was
approved by AERA and, therefore, BIAL-Appellant has a vested
right to receive financing allowance, for the said projects till the
Page 83 of 546
date of completion of the projects, as approved by AERA,
irrespective of which Control Period, the same are completed in.
Thus, withdrawal of financing allowance for the work in progress
takes away a vested right of the appellant, which is
impermissible, as AERA has observed in para nos. 5.5.19 and
5.5.20 of the impugned order, which is at Annexure A-1 to the
memo of this AERA appeal and reads as under:
“ 5.5.19 On the financing allowance, the Authority noted that
the financing allowance is a notional amount arising
from the return of cost of debt given to the equity
investment in the capital work in progress assets. The
Authority is of the view that the equity invested in
work in progress assets cannot be treated as a debt
instrument with an assured return of cost of debt.
The Authority noted that such assured return on
equity investments on the work in progress assets are
not available to the developers of other
infrastructure. It is expected that the future returns
from the project should generate adequate returns to
cover the cost of the equity during the construction
stage. Therefore, the Authority adequately
compensates the risks associated with the equity
investments in a construction project once the project
is capitalized by means of a reasonable cost of equity.
5.5.20 The Authority considers that giving an assured return
on the equity investment even on the work in
progress assets would result in reducing the risks
associated with equity investment in capital projects
which then needs to be accounted while determining
Page 84 of 546
the cost of equity. Therefore, the Authority is of the
opinion that the return on equity that is entitled to
the airport operator would remain the same whether
the Authority allows or disallows financing
allowance. ”
138. In view of the aforesaid observations in the impugned tariff order
AERA acknowledges financing allowance as a major of
recompense for equity invested during construction phase. The
amount of equity/internal accruals which are shareholders
funded invested by this appellant, based on the above promise
made for Second Control Period approved projects, cannot go
unrewarded. This aspect has not been properly appreciated by
AERA while passing the impugned order of disallowing the
financing allowance for BIAL on the assets which will be
rd
capitalized from 3 Control Period onwards as stated in para
5.5.21.
139. It has been held by this Tribunal in case of DIAL Vs. AERA in
AERA Appeal No.10 of 2012 judgment dated 23.04.2018
in paragraph no.105 as under:
“105 . In the SSA the meaning of WACC requires taking in
account weighted average cost of capital. But the
presumption that cost of capital for any monetary
investment other than by way of equity must be judged
only on the basis of interest liability is unwarranted and
unjust. Whether voluntarily or mandatorily, there is no
Page 85 of 546
doubt that the RSD amount has been used as an
investment in the project and that SSA allows a fair
return on the investment which is to be proportionate
to the cost of investment. Conceptually, the cost of
investment can never be zero since that would imply an
infinite return {by general definition, return on
investment = (gains from investment – cost of
investment)/cost of investment)}. Thus it is obvious
that if this fund has been used as an investment, there
is a cost attached to it which cannot be obviated by
saying that it is a zero cost debt. ”
140. It has been contended by learned counsel Ms. Shweta Bharti for
AERA that financing allowance was not allowed by AERA because
it was never rewarded to other airports such as DIAL, MIAL and
KIAL. This contention is not accepted by this Tribunal for the
following reasons:
I. BIAL cannot be compared with DIAL and MIAL because
DIAL and MIAL are brownfield airports whereas BIAL is a
greenfield airport;
II. When DIAL and MIAL were leased to their Airport
Operators, there were existing structures whereas BIAL
had to build everything with funds infused through equity
and debt;
III. The risk undertaken by the Airport Operator in case of
greenfield airports, which is associated with investment
of equity, is to be compensated with financing allowance;
Page 86 of 546
IV. Moreover, as per the provision of AERA Act, 2008, AERA
is empowered to provide different tariff structures to
different airports and, therefore, even if financing
allowance is not provided for DIAL, MIAL and KIAL, it can
always be provided to BIAL {as per proviso Section 13
(1)(a)};
V. KIAL did not seek financing allowance from AERA hence,
the same was not provided to KIAL in its tariff order
hence the case of KIAL is different from the case of BIAL;
VI. Looking at the order passed for tariff order in Second
Control Period, wherein financing allowance was allowed
for BIAL, BIAL invested a sizable amount to the tune of
Rs.2425 Crores which is equity investments and,
therefore, even if the portions of the project were
rd
completed in 3 Control Period, the financing allowance
ought to have been allowed by AERA.
141. It has also been contended by learned counsel for AERA that
financing allowance is being disallowed because investment has
taken place through internal accruals instead of direct equity
infusion by its shareholders. This contention is not accepted by
this Tribunal mainly for the following reasons:
Page 87 of 546
(i) Internal accruals or retained earnings are the entitlement
of the shareholders and are shareholders’ funds retained
at the company. As per Schedule III read with Section
129 of Companies Act, 2013, Reserves and Surplus forms
part of shareholders’ funds;
(ii) It ought to be kept in mind by AERA that any amount of
equity which is infused into BIAL-Appellant either through
equity infusion or from internal accruals, must be
considered as shareholders’ funds. The decision to fund
BIAL through equity or through internal accruals is an
operational decision with which AERA cannot interfere,
and AERA has no power, jurisdiction and authority to
decide the same;
(iii) For grant of financing allowance, it makes no difference
whether any amount of equity has been infused into BIAL
either through equity infusion or from internal accruals;
(iv) Infusion of the funds into the present appellant-BIAL
through equity infusion or from internal accruals, is one
and the same;
(v) AERA’s classification viz.- “ investment through
internal accrual ” and “ investment through direct
Page 88 of 546
equity infusion by its shareholders ” is not logical and
as stated herein above, as per Schedule III to be read
with Section 129 of the Companies Act, infusion of fund
through internal accruals or through equity infusion is
one and the same. As per Annexure A-15 to the memo
of this AERA Appeal a letter was written by this Appellant
– BIAL to AERA dated 27.8.2012.
(vi) In reply to the aforesaid communication, AERA issued a
clarificatory letter dated 22.10.2012 (Annexure A-
16 to the memo of this appeal which reads as under:
“ F. No. AERA/20010/МYТР/BIAL/2011-12
Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India
*
AERA Building,
Administrative Complex,
Safdarjung Airport, New. Delhi - 110003
Dated 22nd October, 2012
To,
Shri B. Bhaskar,
Director (Finance),
Bangalore International Airport Limited,
Alpha 2,
Bengaluru International Airport, Devanhalli,
Bangalore-560 300
Sir,
I am directed to refer to your email dated 29.08.2012 seeking
clarifications on the Financing allowance as per the Authority's
Guidelines - Direction No. 5-2010-11 for Order No.14 (dated
Page 89 of 546
28.02.2011) - treatment of Financing allowance as contained in
Direction No. 5 and to say as under:
i.) BIAL's understanding that the Financing Allowance is
computed on the total Work in Progress balance (whether
funded through debt/ equity/ internal accruals) and is
capitalized as a part of commissioned assets for RAB
computation is correct vis-à-vis Authority's Guidelines.
ii.) As regards the clarifications on the computation of the
financing allowance assuming there is no contribution on
account of Capital receipts, the formula for Financing
Allowance would be: Rd x (Opening WIP + (Capital
Expenditure - Commissioned Assets)/2), where Rd is the Cost
of Debt.
iii.) As regards BIAL's clarification that there would be
requirement to maintain different sets of books for Regulatory
Purposes and Financial Records for various reasons. BIAL'S
understanding is correct in this aspect, vis-à-vis Authority's
Guidelines, as the RAB figures may not match the fixed asset
values in the financial records for various reasons.
2. Further, during the presentation held on 21.08.2012, BIAL
had pointed out that a number of issues required to be
reviewed including Traffic Forecast, capital Expenditure,
means of financing of project and that the revised MYTP
would be ready for submission by end of September' 2012.
Needless to say that any further delay in submission of the
requisite information/ details/ certifications would only delay
the determination of aeronautical charges for Bangalore
International Airport and the impact due to such delay would
be on account of such delayed submissions by BIAL. Hence,
you are kindly requested to expedite and send the same by
31.10.2012.
Yours faithfully,
C.V. Deepak
OSD-II
Page 90 of 546
Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India,
IInd foor, AERA Building, Administrative Block, Safdarjung
Airport, New Delhi - 110003 India
Tel: 91 11 24695043
Fax: 91 11 24695048
Email: [email protected]
"Alternate Email: [email protected] ”
142. The financing allowance is a creature of the regulatory
framework established by the Authority itself. Clause 17.5.4.c of
Order No 13/2010-11 dated 12.01.2011, provides for financing
allowance. Clause 5.2.7 of Direction No 5 issued by the Authority
provides for the detailed methodology to be used for calculating
financing allowance for work in progress assets. The formula
prescribed is that the value of work in progress assets at the end
of a tariff year is equal to the value at the end of the previous
tariff year plus capital expenditure plus financing allowance
minus capital receipts minus commissioned assets.
143. The financing allowance is calculated as the cost of debt
multiplied by the sum of the opening work in progress and half
of the difference between capital expenditure and commissioned
assets. This formula was expressly clarified by the Authority in its
nd
letter dated 22 October 2012.
Page 91 of 546
144. The said letter was issued in response to a communication from
th
the Appellant dated 27 August 2012. The Appellant had sought
clarifications on the financing allowance as per the Authority's
Guidelines contained in Direction No 5. The Authority clarified
that the Appellant's understanding that the financing allowance
is computed on the total work in progress balance, whether
funded through debt, equity or internal accruals, and is
capitalised as a part of commissioned assets for regulatory asset
base computation, is correct vis à vis the Authority's Guidelines.
145. In view of the aforesaid clarification given by AERA to BIAL –
appellant it has been stated by AERA that financing allowance is
computed on work in progress assets whether funded through
debt/equity/internal accruals.
146. Further in view of the aforesaid annexures Annexure A-15 and A-
16, AERA is estopped from contending that since the projects
were funded by internal accruals, financing allowance cannot be
permitted. In fact, appellant-BIAL has acted as per the
clarification given by AERA and, therefore, appellant had invested
Rs.2425 Crores in the said projects, portion of which were
rd
expected to be completed by 31.12.2022 in 3 Control Period
have in fact was completed by FY2023.
Page 92 of 546
147. It is worth noting that a regulated entity which makes investment
decisions of the magnitude of hundreds of crores does so upon
the faith of the regulatory framework as declared at the time of
the investment. The financing allowance for the SCP-approved
projects was not a gratuity but a constituent element of the
regulatory compact, as the Authority included the project costs
in the RAB, allowed financing allowance on the work-in-progress,
and thereby represented that equity locked in during construction
would carry a financing allowance until capitalization.
148. It is only conceivable that such representation indeed matured
into a legitimate expectation, upon the investment having been
irrevocably made, into an accrued entitlement which cannot be
withdrawn without the Authority demonstrating overriding public
interest or cogent clear material on record to disallow the same,
this burden was not discharged by AERA.
149. These aspects of the matter have not been appreciated by AERA
while passing the impugned order especially of disallowing the
rd
financing allowance on the assets which are capitalized from 3
Control Period onwards as stated in paragraph 5.5.21 of the
impugned order. The reasoning given by AERA in 5.5.21
Page 93 of 546
for disallowing the financing allowance are hereby
quashed and set aside.
150. It has also been contended by counsel for AERA that BIAL has
been considered as a brownfield airport as operations have
matured and a brown field airport is not provided with financing
allowance. This contention is not accepted by this Tribunal for
the following reasons:
(i) As per the Concession Agreement dated 05.07.2004
Annexure A-3, to be read with Annexure A-4 which is the
amendment of Concession Agreement of the year 2006,
BIAL is classified as a green field airport at all times
during the subsistence of the Concession Agreement.
(ii) “Airport” has been defined under the Concession
Agreement as per clause 1.1 to be read with the
definition of “Initial Phase” to be read with Schedule 2 of
the Concession Agreement.
(iii) As per the provisions of the Concession Agreement of the
definition of the “Airport”, definition of “Initial Phase” to
be read with Schedule 2, the “Airport” comprising of
“Initial Phase” and any expansion thereof is a part of
greenfield airport concessioned to BIAL, meaning thereby
Page 94 of 546
to, BIAL does not become a brown field airport merely
because a second terminal is being constructed by BIAL.
(iv) It is neither under the AERA Act nor under the Concession
Agreement (Annexure A-3 & A-4) or under the AERA
Guidelines there is any provision that financing allowance
is applicable only for greenfield airports. In fact, financing
allowance clauses are applicable to all major airports,
there is no sub-classification therein;
(v) AERA is stopped from retrospectively altering its tariff
determination mechanism. During First Control Period
tariff order and during Second Control Period tariff order,
financing allowance has been recognized and allowed but
rd
without any justifiable reason in 3 Control Period tariff
order (Annexure A-1), the financing allowance has been
disallowed by AERA, this is not permissible.
151. We are sanguine of another aspect of the matter which, in our
view, assumes considerable significance. In its reply before this
Tribunal, AERA has itself stated that, with a view to maintaining
consistency with the regulatory framework adopted for the
Second Control Period, it considered Financing Allowance instead
of Interest During Construction for the purpose of true up of that
Page 95 of 546
period. On the basis of the Auditor’s certificate furnished by BIAL,
the Authority accepted a revised total Financing Allowance of Rs.
230 crore, of which Rs. 219 crore represented the aeronautical
component.
152. In fact, Paragraph 3.3.78 of the impugned order proceeds on the
same basis. The position which emerges is therefore that AERA
recognised the applicability of Financing Allowance to the very
class of capital works which had been undertaken during the
Second Control Period. In the present case, the projects did not
undergo any transformation merely because their completion and
capitalisation, owing inter alia to the intervening pandemic,
extended beyond 31.03.2021. The underlying capital remained
deployed in Work in Progress. In the absence of any
corresponding alteration in the applicable Guidelines, the date on
which the asset crossed from one Control Period into another
could not, by itself, supply the juridical basis for extinguishing
Financing Allowance.
153. Our conclusion is fortified by the regulatory instruments which
governed AERA itself while undertaking the present tariff
determination. It is pertinent to note that Order No. 13 of 2010-
11, dated 12.01.2011, was issued by AERA in the matter of its
Page 96 of 546
Regulatory Philosophy and Approach in Economic Regulation of
Airport Operators. The Order constitutes the foundation upon
which the subsequent Airport Guidelines were framed.
154. In relation to capital expenditure remaining under construction,
AERA consciously adopted the principle that Work in Progress
Assets would not enter the Regulatory Asset Base until
commissioning, but that the capital remaining locked during the
construction period would receive Financing Allowance calculated
with reference to the cost of debt.
155. It is worth noting that the Paragraph 17.5.4(c) of the said Order
accordingly recognises Financing Allowance as part of the
cumulative cost of bringing an asset into operation and
contemplates its capitalisation as part of the Work in Progress
asset. For ready reference Paragraph 17.5.4 (c) reads as under:
“ 17.5.4.c . Work in Progress (WIP) assets would not be
included in the RAB until they have been
commissioned and are in use. The Authority
adopts an approach whereby (subject to
the position stated in respect of assets
financed through pre-funding) an
allowance for an appropriate rate of return
on the cumulative cost of bringing the
asset into operation will be capitalised as part
of WIP assets. The Authority's assessment of the
Fair Rate of Return for such assets will be its
assessment of cost of debt. ”
Page 97 of 546
156. The regulatory philosophy contained in Order No. 13 was
thereafter operationalised through the Airports Economic
Regulatory Authority of India Terms and Conditions for
Determination of Tariffs for Airport Operators Guidelines, 2011
th
dated 28 February 2011 and Direction No. 5 issued in that
framework. The Appellant has annexed Direction No. 5 as
Annexure A-17 to the memo of this appeal.
157. It is pertinent to note that Clause 5.2.7 of Direction No. 5 is of
particular importance as it defines Work in Progress Assets as
assets which have not been commissioned during the relevant
Tariff Year or Control Period and expressly incorporates Financing
Allowance into the computation of the closing Work in Progress
balance. The formula prescribed therein treats the opening Work
in Progress, the capital expenditure incurred during the year,
capital receipts and commissioned assets as the relevant
variables and computes Financing Allowance by applying the cost
of debt determined by AERA under Clause 5.1.4. For ready
Reference Clause 5.1.4 & 5.2.7 of the Direction No. 5 reads as
under:
“ 5. 1.4. Cost of Debt
Page 98 of 546
(a) The Authority shall consider the forecast cost
of existing debt, subject to the Authority
being assured of the reasonableness of such
costs based on a review including of its
source(s), procedure(s) and method(s) used
for raising such debt(s).
(b) The Authority shall consider the forecast for
future cost of: (i) debt proposed to be raised
during the Control Period; or (ii) such debt
which may be subject to a floating rate of
interest subject to the Authority being
assured of the reasonableness of such costs,
based on a review including of its source(s),
procedure(s) and method(s) to be used for
raising such debt(s).
(c) The Authority shall determine a weighted
average cost of debt, according to the
formula indicated in the illustration 2 below
Clause 5.1.7, in a Control Period for the·
purpose of determination of FRoR. The
determination of such weighted average cost
of debt shall be based on the forecast
quantum of debt for each Tariff Year in a
Control Period and shall have reference to
the projected quantum of debt submitted by.
the Airport Operator.
(d) The Authority shall not consider any, short
term debt, deposits etc. with maturity of less
than 12 months, for its determination of
weighted average cost of debt. The Authority
shall instead review such debt according to
C1ause 5.4.
(e). Financing costs associated with debt
considered for the determination of weighted
average cost of debt, shall be considered in
the capital costs of the project and not as an
adjustment to the cost of debt.
Page 99 of 546
5.2.7. Work In Progress assets
(a) Work in Progress Assets (WIPA) are such
assets as have not been commissioned
during a Tariff Year or Control period, as the
case maybe. Work in Progress assets shall be
accounted for as:
(b) Assets acquired or commissioned within the
same Tariff Year, (including such assets as
Page 100 of 546
may be commissioned immediately upon
acquisition) shall be included both in Capital
Expenditure and Commissioned Assets.
(c) The Authority shall determine a forecast for
Work in Progress assets (including value of
Commissioned Assets in each Tariff Year) in
the determination of the Aggregate Revenue
Requirement and the determination of
forecast RAB.
158. Thus, from the above the consequences are quite clear as
Financing Allowance was not devised as an ad hoc concession
available at the discretion of AERA from one tariff order to
another. It formed an express component of the methodology
prescribed by AERA itself for regulatory treatment of capital
expenditure during the period preceding commissioning.
Page 101 of 546
159. More importantly, paragraph 1.2.2 of the impugned order itself
proceeds on the basis that the relevant tariff Guidelines
constitute part of the principles governing the determination.
AERA could not, therefore, introduce through paragraph 5.5.21;
a restriction which the governing methodology itself did not
contain, merely by describing the airport as having matured over
time. If the regulatory methodology was to be altered, such
departure required an identifiable legal basis and reasons
capable of demonstrating why the existing treatment was no
longer applicable. No such exercise is discernible from the
impugned determination.
160. The position emerging from the AERA’s own regulatory
instruments is therefore unambiguous. The Third Control Period
determination continued to be governed by the regulatory
philosophy contained in Order No. 13 and by the methodology
prescribed in the Airport Guidelines, save to the extent of
subsequent express modifications. No subsequent order or
direction has been shown to us by which Clause 5.2.7 of the
Decision No. 5 was withdrawn, amended or rendered inapplicable
to BIAL before issuance of the impugned tariff order. Nor does
paragraph 5.5.21 of the impugned Tariff Order identify any such
Page 102 of 546
amendment. The Authority instead proceeded to deny Financing
Allowance on the basis that BIAL had, with the passage of time,
become a mature or brownfield airport and that its operations
had stabilised.
161. In our considered view, such reasoning cannot override the
regulatory framework which the Authority itself declared to be
applicable. The distinction sought to be introduced between a
greenfield airport and a mature airport finds no expression in
Clause 5.2.7 of the Decision No.5 as that provision is concerned
with the character of the asset as Work in Progress and the
capital deployed in bringing that asset into operation. It does not
make the entitlement dependent upon the age of the airport, the
number of years for which the airport has been operational, or
the stage of maturity of its existing business. What is relevant
under the prescribed methodology is whether capital remains
deployed in an asset which has not yet been commissioned.
162. We may clarify that regulatory guidelines are not incapable of
prospective alteration. AERA, being a statutory regulator, may
revise its methodology where such revision is authorised by law
and is supported by a rational regulatory basis. The present case,
however, does not involve a formally altered regulatory
Page 103 of 546
framework. It involves an individual tariff determination in which
the Authority professed continued adherence to the existing
Guidelines and yet introduced, through paragraph 5.5.21, a
substantive qualification which those Guidelines did not contain.
163. We are of the opinion that a change of that nature could not be
brought about merely by describing BIAL as a mature airport,
particularly when the capital projects in question had already
been approved and were continuing as Work in Progress under
the very framework which recognised Financing Allowance.
164. The impugned order does not explain how this framework ceased
to govern the very same category of Work in Progress Assets
upon commencement of the Third Control Period. In the absence
of an express modification of the governing methodology or a
statutory basis for introducing the new restriction, paragraph
5.5.21, cannot be sustained merely on the ground that the
operational profile of the airport had changed with the passage
of time. The regulatory treatment of an uncommissioned asset
must follow the methodology governing Work in Progress unless
and until that methodology is lawfully altered.
165. In view of the aforesaid facts and reasons, we hereby quash and
set aside the impugned decision of AERA of disallowing the
Page 104 of 546
financing allowance for BIAL on the assets which are capitalized
rd
in 3 Control Period and onwards as mentioned in paragraph
5.5.21 of the impugned order. We hereby direct AERA to
allow financing allowance for BIAL on the assets which
rd
are capitalized in 3 Control Period (01.04.2021 to
31.03.2026) and onwards . Accordingly, Issue No. II stands
answered in favour of the Appellant.
Issue No. III: Applicability of AERA Act, 2008 or
otherwise for the period between May 2008 to
31.08.2009 for determining pre-control period shortfall.
166. The present issue concerns the legal regime applicable for
determination of the Appellant's tariff entitlement and
consequential shortfall for the period commencing from the
Airport Opening Date on 24.05.2008 and ending on 31.08.2009.
167. The AERA Bill as passed by parliament received the assent from
the President on 05.12.2008 and certain provisions of AERA Act,
2008 were notified with effect from 01.01.2009. AERA was
established on 12.05.2009 and Chapter III of the AERA Act which
is about AERA’s function to determine tariff under Section
13(1)(a) and to determine UDF under Section 13(1)(b) were
notified on 01.09.2009. In view of these factual aspects for
Page 105 of 546
determination of ARR for period between 24.05.2008 to
31.08.2009, which is a period prior to First Control Period tariff
order, AERA Act, 2008 cannot be applied because Chapter III of
AERA Act was not in force during that period.
168. The Appellant commenced commercial operations on 24th May
2008, well before Chapter III of the AERA Act came into force.
Until 1st September 2009, the tariff payable by the Appellant was
fixed by the Ministry of Civil Aviation, on an ad hoc basis, under
the user development fee provisions of Schedule 6 of the
Concession Agreement.
169. In fact, AERA took over the unfinished exercise of tariff
determination which was originally initiated by MoCA in view of
BIAL’s judgment. For ready reference paragraph 47 of the
judgement of this Tribunal in the case of BIAL vs AERA in
AERA APPEAL No. 8 of 2018 judgment dated 16.12.2020
reads as under:
“ 47. In the considered opinion of this Tribunal, it will not
be proper to hold that in the exercise of its statutory
powers to provide for a purposeful and good tariff
order, the AERA should depend upon a direction
from MoCA to look into facts relating to ad hoc rates
and resultant loss, if any. Similarly, for the lapses of
MoCA, if any, it will not be proper now to refer the
task of looking into deficiencies in tariff formulation
Page 106 of 546
for the period prior to First Control Period to MoCA.
The relevant facts, figures and accounts for
the earlier period should have been gone into
by AERA to find out whether there was any
merit in the claim of BIAL. Since that has not
been done, the claim for per-control period
losses as determined in various parts of Para
5 of the tariff order for the First Control Period
and virtually reiterated in the next tariff order
are set aside for the purpose of remitting the
claim back to AERA for fresh consideration on
its own merits and in accordance with law and
this order.”
170. In view of the aforesaid decision, AERA ought to carry out the
tariff determination for the period between 25.05.2008 to
31.08.2009 which is a period prior to First Control Period tariff
order, in the same manner as was being done by MoCA i.e., by
relying upon provisions of Concession Agreement (Annexure A-3
& A-4) and other project agreements. These Concession
Agreements and other project agreements are the complete
Codes for tariff determination for the period prior to First Control
Period tariff order which is the period between 25.08.2008 to
31.08.2009.
171. We think it is necessary to examine this issue at greater length,
because the point, though narrow, goes to the root of AERA's
jurisdiction over a defined historical period. It is a fundamental
Page 107 of 546
rule of construction, restated by a Constitution Bench of the
Hon'ble Supreme Court in Commissioner of Income Tax
versus Vatika Township Private Limited, (2015) 1 SCC 1 ,
that no statute shall be construed to have retrospective
operation unless such a construction appears very clearly
in the terms of the enactment, or arises by necessary and
distinct implication . For ready reference Paragraphs no. 27 to
29 of the aforesaid judgement reads as under:
“27. A legislation, be it a statutory Act or a statutory rule or
a statutory notification, may physically consists of words
printed on papers. However, conceptually it is a great
deal more than an ordinary prose. There is a special
peculiarity in the mode of verbal communication by a
legislation. A legislation is not just a series of
statements, such as one finds in a work of fiction/non-
fiction or even in a judgment of a court of law. There is
a technique required to draft a legislation as well as to
understand a legislation. Former technique is known as
legislative drafting and latter one is to be found in the
various principles of “interpretation of statutes”. Vis-à-
vis ordinary prose, a legislation differs in its provenance,
layout and features as also in the implication as to its
meaning that arise by presumptions as to the intent of
the maker thereof.
28. Of the various rules guiding how a legislation has
to be interpreted, one established rule is that
unless a contrary intention appears, a legislation
is presumed not to be intended to have a
retrospective operation. The idea behind the rule
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is that a current law should govern current
activities. Law passed today cannot apply to the
events of the past. If we do something today, we
do it keeping in view the law of today and in force
and not tomorrow's backward adjustment of it.
Our belief in the nature of the law is founded on
the bedrock that every human being is entitled to
arrange his affairs by relying on the existing law
and should not find that his plans have been
retrospectively upset. This principle of law is
known as lex prospicit non respicit : law looks
forward not backward. As was observed in
Phillips v. Eyre [(1870) LR 6 QB 1] , a
retrospective legislation is contrary to the
general principle that legislation by which the
conduct of mankind is to be regulated when
introduced for the first time to deal with future
acts ought not to change the character of past
transactions carried on upon the faith of the then
existing law .
29. The obvious basis of the principle against retrospectivity
is the principle of “fairness”, which must be the basis of
every legal rule as was observed in L'Office Cherifien
des Phosphates v. Yamashita-Shinnihon Steamship Co.
Ltd. [(1994) 1 AC 486 : (1994) 2 WLR 39 : (1994) 1 All
ER 20 (HL)] Thus, legislations which modified
accrued rights or which impose obligations or
impose new duties or attach a new disability
have to be treated as prospective unless the
legislative intent is clearly to give the enactment
a retrospective effect; unless the legislation is for
purpose of supplying an obvious omission in a
former legislation or to explain a former
legislation . We need not note the cornucopia of case
law available on the subject because aforesaid legal
Page 109 of 546
position clearly emerges from the various decisions and
this legal position was conceded by the counsel for the
parties. In any case, we shall refer to few judgments
containing this dicta, a little later. ”
172. That the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Keshavan
Madhava Menon v. State of Bombay, AIR 1951 SC 128, on
prospective operation of the constitution and especially Article 13
thereof, had held as follows:
“13. Every statute is prima facie prospective unless it
is expressly or by necessary implications made to
have retrospective operation. There is no reason
why this rule of interpretation should not be
applied for the purpose of interpreting our
Constitution . We find nothing in the language of
Article 13(1) which may be read as indicating an
intention to give it retrospective operation. On the
contrary, the language clearly points the other way. The
provisions of Part III guarantee what are called
fundamental rights. Indeed, the heading of Part III is
“Fundamental Rights”. These rights are given, for the
first time, by and under our Constitution. Before the
Constitution came into force there was no such thing as
fundamental right. What Article 13(1) provides is that
all existing laws which clash with the exercise of the
fundamental rights (which are for the first time created
by the Constitution) shall to that extent be void. As the
fundamental rights became operative only on and from
the date of the Constitution the question of the
inconsistency of the existing laws with those rights must
necessarily arise on and from the date those rights came
into being. It must follow, therefore, that Article 13(1)
can have no retrospective effect but is wholly
prospective in its operation. After this first point is
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noted, it should further be seen that Article 13(1) does
not in terms make the existing laws which are
inconsistent with the fundamental rights void ab initio
or for all purposes. On the contrary, it provides that all
existing laws, insofar as they are inconsistent with the
fundamental rights, shall be void to the extent of their
inconsistency. They are not void for all purposes but
they are void only to the extent they come into conflict
with the fundamental rights.
14. In other words, on and after the commencement of the
Constitution no existing law will be permitted to stand
in the way of the exercise of any of the fundamental
rights. Therefore, the voidness of the existing law is
limited to the future exercise of the fundamental rights.
Article 13(1) cannot be read as obliterating the entire
operation of the inconsistent laws, or to wipe them out
altogether from the statute book, for to do so will be to
give them retrospective effect which, we have said, they
do not possess. Such laws exist for all past transactions
and for enforcing all rights and liabilities accrued before
the date of the Constitution.
29. According to the contention of the learned counsel, the
principles applicable to repealed statutes are not in
terms applicable to such a case, whether they are to be
found in the rules of the common law of England or
whether they are contained in the Interpretation Act or
the General Clauses Act. Those rules are applicable to
cases either of repeal or to cases of a statute dying a
natural death by efflux of time. None of those however
have any application to the construction of statutes
framed in languages like the one contained in Article
13(1) of the Constitution. Besides the rule of
construction which applies to repealed statutes or to
temporary statutes our attention was not drawn to any
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other rule of construction under which a person who
commits an offence against an Act during its existence
as a law becomes unpunishable on its termination. Both
on considerations of convenience and also on grounds
of justice and reason I am inclined to think that penalties
incurred under a law in force at the time when the act
was committed would survive its extinction so that
persons who violate its provisions might afterwards be
punished. Persons who during the continuance of
a statute have obtained rights under it cannot be
affected by a declaration that the statute with
effect from a certain date will become an
inoperative statute.
30. When in the case of repeal of a statute, which
according to Tindal, C.J. obliterates it completely from
the records of Parliament as if it had never been passed,
the common law rule has been abrogated by statute, it
is difficult to apply that rule on any sentimental grounds
at this date to the case of statutes which are declared
void or declared to have no effect whatsoever after a
certain date only. The expression “void” has no larger
effect on the statute so declared than the word “repeal”.
The expression “repeal” according to common law rule
obliterates a statute completely as if it had never been
passed and thus operates retrospectively on past
transactions in the absence of a saving clause or in the
absence of provisions such as are contained in the
Interpretation Act, 1889, or in the General Clauses Act,
1897, while a provision in a statute that with effect from
a particular date an existing law would be void to the
extent of the repugnancy has no such retrospective
operation and cannot affect pending prosecutions or
actions taken under such laws. There is in such a
situation no necessity of introducing a saving clause and
it does not need the aid of a legislative provision of the
Page 112 of 546
nature contained in the Interpretation Act or the General
Clauses Act. To hold that a prospective declaration that
a statute is void affects pending cases is to give it
indirectly retrospective operation and that result is
repugnant to the clear phraseology employed in the
various articles in Part III of the Constitution. ”
173. We reiterate that Chapter III of the AERA Act contains nothing,
whether in its text or by necessary implication, to suggest that
the tariff determining power conferred by Section 13 was
intended to reach back and govern a period that had already
elapsed before that Chapter was ever brought into force.
174. In the absence of any such indication, the presumption against
retrospective operation must prevail, and AERA cannot, merely
because it happens now to be exercising its Section 13 power in
the year 2021, apply the substantive methodology of that
provision to a period, namely 24th May 2008 to 31st August
2009, during which the provision itself had no existence in law.
175. At this juncture it is important to draw our attention to the
judgement of Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Selvi J.
Jayalalithaa Vs. State of Karnataka & Ors., 2014 2 SCC
401, wherein under Para 29, the Hon’ble Court has observed as
follows:-
Page 113 of 546
“29. We find force in the submissions advanced by the
learned Attorney General that this Court generally
should not pass any order in exercise of its extraordinary
power under Article 142 of the Constitution to do
complete justice if such order violates any statutory
provisions. We do not intend to say that it would be
illegal to extend the term of the Special Judge, but that
it is a matter within the jurisdiction of the State in
accordance with the relevant law.
There is yet an uncontroverted legal principle
that when the statute provides for a particular
procedure, the authority has to follow the same
and cannot be permitted to act in contravention
of the same. In other words, where a statute
requires to do a certain thing in a certain way,
the thing must be done in that way and not
contrary to it at all, are impliedly and necessarily
forbidden. The aforesaid settle legal proposition
is based on a legal maxim “Expressio unius est
exclusio alterius”, meaning thereby that if a
statute provides for a thing to be done in a
particular way, then it has to be done in that
manner and in no other manner and following
any other course in not permissible. In State of
Uttar Pradesh vs. Singhara Singh & Ors., AIR 1964 SC
358, this court held as under:-
“8. The rule adopted in Taylor vs. Taylor, (1876) 1
Ch D 426 is well recognised and is founded on
sound principle. Its result is that if a statute has
conferred a power to do an act and has laid
down the method in which that power has to
be exercised, it necessarily prohibits the
doing of the act in any other manner than
that which has been prescribed. The principle
behind the rule is that if this were not so, the
statutory provision might as well not have
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been enacted .” [See also: Accountant General,
State of Madhya Pradesh vs. S.K. Dubey & Anr.*,
(2012)4 SCC 578]”
176. It was submitted on behalf of AERA, that if the Appellant's
argument were accepted, AERA could not have determined tariff
for the First Control Period at all by taking into consideration any
factor that came into existence before the enactment of the AERA
Act, since every tariff order necessarily draws upon the airport's
asset base, traffic and financial history, much of which predates
the Act.
177. At the outset, we state that, this submission conflates two distinct
things; a statute is not rendered retrospective merely because
part of the requisites for its action is drawn from a time
antecedent to its passing. AERA is entitled, indeed obliged, when
exercising its current Section 13 power, to look at antecedent
facts, such as the Regulatory Asset Base as it stood on the date
a control period begins, or the traffic history of the airport, as
inputs into a computation that it is undertaking prospectively.
178. In our considered view, what AERA may not do is use its Section
13 methodology itself, a methodology that includes concepts
such as the shared till and the specific formula for computing an
Aggregate Revenue Requirement under the Act, as the yardstick
Page 115 of 546
for measuring what tariff ought to have been charged, or what
shortfall ought to be recognised, during a period when Section
13 did not exist and a different, contractual regime governed the
relationship between the Appellant and its users.
179. To clearly put it, the former is the ordinary and unobjectionable
use of antecedent facts in a current determination and the latter
is the retrospective application of a substantive statutory formula
to a period, which the formula never governed.
180. It is demonstrated by AERA's own conduct across three
successive tariff orders, the tariff order for the First Control
Period, being Order No. 08/2014-15 dated 10.06.2014, AERA
recorded its position on the pre control period in terms that leave
no room for doubt. For ready reference Para 5.33 & 5.34 of the
aforesaid order passed by AERA in First Control Period reads as
under:
“ 5.33 The Authority notes BIAL’s comments regarding the Pre-
control period that the losses incurred before Airport
Operation should be considered as part of Pre-Control
period loss. The Authority has examined this in detail
and provided its comments in CP 14. Also further, as
the Authority’s jurisdiction begins only from the
period September 2009, when the Authority was
formed (as elaborated in CP 22) the Authority
does not propose to consider any financial results
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before September 2009 leave alone the period
before the commencement of Airport Operations.
5.34 The Authority notes that BIAL has stated that the tariff
determined by MoCA was adhoc and the final
determination of the tariff did not take place. The
Authority notes that MoCA has not provided any
directive to the Authority to carry out an analysis
of the adhoc tariff that had been determined by
MOCA. Hence, as elaborated in CP 22, the
Authority decides not to reckon, in the current
tariff determination any period before the
Authority’s powers were notified effective
September 2009.”
181. Furthermore, AERA accordingly recorded, in Decision No. 2 of
that order, that from the date its powers under Chapter III were
notified, that is, 1st September 2009, the Appellant had posted
no losses in its profit and loss statements for the periods 2009 to
2010 and 2010 to 2011, and that the question of any pre control
period shortfall therefore did not arise.
182. In our considered view, AERA proceeded to premise that decision
upon the express note of the contours of AERA's jurisdiction, and
hence its power to reckon any shortfall at all, began only in
September 2009, and nowhere further back, as AERA cannot,
sua sponte , assume jurisdiction over the pre-control period. For
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ready reference, Decision No.2 of the aforesaid order reads as
under:
“ 5.36 The Authority decides not to consider any Pre-control
period losses to be reckoned in computation of
Aeronautical Tariffs for the current control period.
Decision No. 2. Pre-Control Period losses of BIAL
a. The Authority notes that from the date the
powers of the Authority under Chapter 3 of
the Act were notified (this date being 1st
September 2009 ) BIAL has not posted any
losses in its Profit and Loss statements for the
period 2009-10 and 2010-11. Hence the question
of considering any Pre-control period shortfall for
the purpose of determination of Aeronautical
Tariffs for the current control period does not
arise .”
183. Subsequently in the tariff order for the Second Control Period,
AERA modified this position, but only to the extent of deciding,
at paragraph 5.6.9 of that order, that it might take into
consideration any shortfall in revenues from the Aggregate
Revenue Requirement from the time of its formation, that is, 1st
September 2009, and not from any earlier date.
184. Even at that later stage, therefore, AERA continued to treat 1st
September 2009 as the outer limit of the period over which its
own statutory yardstick could operate. For ready reference
Page 118 of 546
Paragraph 5.6.9 of the Order No. 18 of 2018-19 dated
31.08.2018 for the Second Control Period i.e. 01.04.2016 to
31.03.2021 reads as under:
“5.6.9. Having regard to all the above factors, the
Authority has re-examined its approach to the claim
of the Airport Operator for pre-control period losses
and decides on the following:
5.6.9.1. Normally the Authority should confine its
Tariff determination process to the Control
Period.
5.6.9.2. In case an Airport Operator claims
that there were losses in the Pre
Control Period, the Authority may
take into consideration any shortfall
in revenues from the ARR from the
st
time of its formation i.e. 1
September 2009.
5.6.9.3. The Authority shall consider the shortfall in
revenues and not the losses as in the books
of accounts.
5.6.9.4. In case there is no shortfall, the Authority
shall limit its tariff determination process
only to the control period .”
185. It is only in the impugned order, passed for the Third Control
Period, that AERA has, for the first time, undertaken a
computation of the alleged shortfall commencing from the Airport
Opening Date, namely 24 May 2008. In carrying out that
exercise, however, AERA has applied to the entire pre control
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period regulatory concepts and methodologies which came to be
employed under the subsequent statutory regime.
186. It is important to note that Table No. 4 of the impugned order
presents an evident difficulty in this regard. While AERA records
that the pre control period from 24.05.2008 to 31.03.2011 is
being considered in accordance with the provisions of the
Concession Agreement, the computation which follows does not
confine itself to that contractual framework. It introduces
regulatory assumptions and building blocks which do not
emanate from the Concession Agreement and which formed part
of the regime subsequently administered by AERA. For ready
reference Table No. 4 reads as under:
Table 4
Changes proposed by the Authority to BIAL’s computation of
ARR for the pre-control period
Particulars Claim by BIAL Proposed changes by the
Authority
Duration of
pre-control
Consider shortfall
incurred from
inception of BIAL to
the start of the First
Control Period.
Consider the pre-control period from
the Airport Opening Date, 24 May
2008, to 31 March 2011, being the
commencement of the First Control
Period, as per the provisions of the
Concession Agreement.
Cost of
period
23.61 per cent Cost of Equity proposed at 16 per
cent, being the same rate as
approved for the First and Second
Control Periods.
Equity
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Opening
Opening
accumulated losses
as on 1 April 2008
amounting to Rs.
53.3 crore claimed as
shortfall in FY 2009.
Compute WACC considering
shareholders’ funds and reserves and
surplus, if positive.
P&L
Shortfall
CGF Treat CGF as non-
aeronautical.
Treat CGF revenues as aeronautical in
terms of the AERA Act, 2008, AERA
Guidelines, the BIAL Concession
Agreement and the judgment of this
Tribunal dated 16 December 2020.
Waivers and
Include as part of
operating
expenditure.
Exclude waivers and bad debts from
operating expenditure for
computation of ARR. AERA also relied
upon the judgment of this Tribunal
dated 16 December 2020 as having
accepted its position.
Adjustment
Bad Debts
No separate claim
recorded in Table 4.
Adjust the opening RAB of FY 2009 in
accordance with the EIL Report.
AERA also relied upon the judgment
of this Tribunal dated 16 December
2020 as having accepted its position.
Bifurcation
to RAB as
per EIL
Report
No separate claim
recorded in Table 4.
Bifurcate the asset block between
aeronautical and non-aeronautical
assets by adopting an approach
similar to that followed for the First
Control Period.
Utility
Recoveries
of Assets
No separate claim
recorded in Table 4.
Treat utility recoveries from non-
aeronautical concessionaires as non-
aeronautical revenues. AERA also
relied upon the judgment of this
Tribunal dated 16 December 2020 as
having accepted its position.
from Non-
Aeronautica
l
Concessiona
ires
Real Estate
Not considered as
part of non-
aeronautical
revenues.
Treat real estate revenue as non-
aeronautical revenue on the basis of
the AERA Act, 2008, AERA Guidelines,
the BIAL Concession Agreement and
the judgment of this Tribunal dated
16 December 2020.
Revenue
Page 121 of 546
Rental
Income on
No separate claim
recorded in Table 4.
Consider rental income in respect of
land leased to the airport hotel.
Land
Interest
Not considered as
part of non-
aeronautical
revenues.
Consider interest income in full,
without excluding interest earned on
cash received from the hotel as
deposit. AERA also relied upon the
judgment of this Tribunal dated 16
December 2020 as having accepted
its position.
Rent and
Land Lease
Income
No separate claim
recorded in Table 4.
Treat rent and land lease income
received from aeronautical
concessionaires as aeronautical
revenue. AERA also relied upon the
judgment of this Tribunal dated 16
December 2020 as having accepted
its position.
Taxation Add 30 per cent of
non-aeronautical
revenues to revenues
while computing
aeronautical tax.
Do not add 30 per cent of non-
aeronautical revenues to aeronautical
revenues while computing
aeronautical tax, with reference to
paragraphs 3.8.6, 3.8.7, 3.8.8 and
3.8.9 of the impugned order.
Till No separate claim
recorded in Table 4.
Compute ARR for the pre-control
period on the basis of a 30 per cent
shared till.
187. In our considered view, the period selected for examination and
the legal standard by which that period is examined cannot rest
upon two different regimes without a reasoned explanation.
AERA could not invoke the Concession Agreement as the
foundation for travelling back to the Airport Opening Date and,
at the same time, employ a subsequently evolved statutory
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methodology for determining the financial consequences of that
earlier period.
188. We are conscious that paragraph 47 of the judgment dated
16.12.2020, extracted hereinabove, directed AERA to examine
the relevant facts, figures and accounts pertaining to the earlier
period. A direction to examine a claim arising during an earlier
period necessarily requires the authority concerned to ascertain
the legal regime which governed that period. The present
jurisdiction of the authority and the substantive law applicable to
the claim are distinct matters. AERA presently possesses the
jurisdiction to complete the exercise because that task was
remitted to it by this Tribunal.
189. The rights and obligations which fall for determination, however,
arose between 24 May 2008 and 31 August 2009. During that
period, the contractual structure contemplated by Article 10 of
the Concession Agreement continued to govern the approval of
Regulated Charges. The statutory tariff determining powers of
AERA under Chapter III had not yet come into force. The remand
could not, by implication, confer retrospective substantive
operation upon provisions which were themselves brought into
force only from 1 September 2009.
Page 123 of 546
190. For the reasons aforesaid, we hold that Chapter III of the Airports
Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act, 2008, and the tariff
methodology deriving from the statutory regime which became
operative thereafter, could not have been applied for determining
the Appellant's tariff entitlement for the period from 24 May 2008
to 31 August 2009. To that extent, the decision embodied in
paragraph 2.5.2 read with Table 4 of the impugned order cannot
be sustained and is accordingly set aside.
191. We therefore, quash and set aside the decision of AERA
(Annexure A-1), whereby it has been decided that AERA
Act is applicable for determining pre-control period ARR
/shortfall as mentioned in paragraph 2.5.2 to be read
with Table no.4 of the impugned order.
192. We hereby direct AERA to apply the provisions of the
Concession Agreement (Annexure A-3 & A-4) and other
project agreements to carry out tariff determination for
the period running from 24.05.2008 to 31.08.2009 which
is the period prior to FCP tariff order. The financial
consequence of the fresh determination shall be appropriately
given effect to in the tariff determination and true up for the
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Fourth Control Period in accordance with law. Issue No. III is
accordingly answered in favour of the Appellant.
ISSUE IV: Non-consideration of expenses to the tune of
Rs.53.3 Crores incurred by the appellant prior to Airport
Opening Date (AoD).
rd
193. AERA by the impugned order for 3 Control Period has disallowed
expenses incurred by the Airport Operator prior to Airport
Opening Date which is the period prior to First Control Period
tariff order.
194. The Airport Opening Date for Bengaluru Airport is 24.05.2008.
First Control Period starts from 01.04.2011 to 31.03.2016. It
should be kept in mind that after Airport Opening Date i.e.
24.05.2008 till 31.03.2011, the Airport Operator has incurred
sizable expenditure to the tune of Rs.53.3 Crores. First Control
Period starts from 01.04.2011. Therefore, for the period prior to
01.04.2011, the expenditure actually incurred by the Airport
Operator ought to have been considered by AERA while
determining tariff under Section 13 of the AERA Act, 2008.
195. BIAL contended before AERA that the disputed expenditure
comprised, inter alia, of employee costs, administrative
expenditure, legal and professional charges, technical
Page 125 of 546
consultancy, travel, establishment costs and other expenditure
incurred while the greenfield airport was being developed.
196. Ld. Senior counsel appearing on behalf of BIAL had submitted
that there case is that these expenses were necessarily incurred
in bringing the Airport into existence, but could not be directly
attributed to an individual capital asset and were therefore
charged to the Profit and Loss Account in accordance with the
accounting standards then applicable.
197. It is worth nothing that AERA did not reject the claim on the
footing that the expenditure was fictitious or that the audited
accounts were unreliable. Nor did AERA identify the entire
amount as expenditure unrelated to the Airport project. In
paragraph 2.4.3 of the impugned order, AERA accepted that the
applicable accounting standards and Direction No. 5 permitted
costs not directly relatable to construction activity to be charged
to the Profit and Loss Account, but proceeded to hold that, since
the corresponding investment or building block was not available
for utilisation by passengers before 24.05.2008, the passengers
could not be required to bear such expenditure. AERA further
relied upon the fact that Schedule 6 of the Concession Agreement
permitted levy of UDF only from the Airport Opening Date, for
Page 126 of 546
ready reference Paragraph 2.4.3 of the Impugned Order reads
as under:
“ 2.4.3 The Authority noted from BIAL 's submission as well
as the comments from Siemens and APAO that BIAL
was unable to capitalize Pre - Airport opening expenses
due to the then prevailing accounting standards, and
hence, had expensed these costs to the P&L. The
Authority also noted BIAL's reference to the Direction 5
of the Authority's guidelines regarding capitalization
and non-capitalization of various costs. The Authority
accordingly reviewed and analyzed Accounting
Standard 10 and Direction 5 of its guidelines. The
Authority is of the view that though the accounting
standards and Direction 5 allow the airport operator to
expense the costs not related to construction activity as
part of the P&L, however, if the investment in the
building block is not available for utilization to the
users/passengers, they cannot be asked to pay for the
th
same. Since, BIAL started its operations on 24 May
2008. Any claims prior to the airport opening has no
logic. The Authority had also elaborated the same as
part of its decisions in the first and second control
period order as well as in the proposal presented in
Consultation Paper no. 1012021-22 for the Third
Control Period for BIAL . The same are reproduced
below:
Consultation Paper/ or the First Control Period
"The Authority proposes to compute WACC considering
the full value of Equity invested (without reducing the
Accumulated losses). Hence. the Authority proposes not
to allow accumulated losses as of Airport opening date
(i.e Rs. 53.3 Crores) to be added to the shortfall
computations."
Second Control Period Order
"5.6.9.3 The Authority shedl consider the shortfall in
revenues and not the losses as in the books of accounts.
Page 127 of 546
Consultation Paper for the Third Control Period
a) BIAL being a greenfield airport, the airport was
under construction/trial run prior to 24 May
2008.Thus, the investment/ expenditure in
regulatory building blocks by BIAL were not
available for utilization to users/ passengers.
There/ore. the users/ passengers cannot be asked
to pay before availing the services offered by the
airport. Further. the operational losses prior to the
airport becoming operational has no logic.
b) Schedule 6 of the Concession Agreement is given
below:
"BlAL will be allowed to levy UDF. w.e.f Airport
Opening Date. duly increased in the subsequent
years with inflation index as set out hereunder.
From embarking domestic and international
passengers, for the provision of passenger
amenities. services and facilities and the UDF will
be used/or the development, management,
maintenance, operation and expansion of the
facilities at the Airport.The Authority has reviewed
the Schedule 6 of the concession agreement which
states that BIAL's UDF shall be applicable only from
the airport opening date. Further, the Authority
noted that the investment in the aeronautical RAB
will get capitalized from the airport opening date
and consequently, the users should start paying
from that date onwards. Therefore, the Authority
proposes that the determination of airport
charges/or the pre-control period shall be
determined from the airport opening date.
c) The Authority proposes to compute WACC
considering the shareholders 'fund and the
reserves and surplus, if positive, that is. without
reducing the negative reserves and surplus on
account of the accumulated losses/or FY 2009.
Hence, the Authority proposes not to allow
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accumulated losses as of airport opening date in
the shortfall computations. ”
198. It is worth considering that Schedule 6 of the Concession
Agreement, upon which AERA has placed considerable reliance,
does not compel a contrary conclusion. The stipulation that UDF
may be levied with effect from the Airport Opening Date
determines the date from which the charge may be collected
from passengers. It does not state that the tariff collected after
that date can recognise only expenditure incurred after the
Airport has opened.
199. It must be noted that the date of commencement of a levy and
the historical cost base which may legitimately enter into the
determination of that levy are distinct concepts; were it
otherwise, a substantial portion of the cost of every greenfield
infrastructure facility would necessarily become unrecoverable
merely because, by definition, the expenditure required to create
the facility precedes its availability for public use.
200. It has been held as stated hereinabove in para 47 of the
judgment and order passed by this Tribunal in case of BIAL Vs.
AERA in AERA Appeal No. 8 of 2018 judgment dated 16.12.2020,
it has been held by this Tribunal that losses incurred for the
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period prior to Airport Opening Date must be factored in, during
tariff determination.
201. AERA has failed to carry out purposeful exercise for this appellant
for pre-control period losses in the impugned tariff order, as
directed by this Tribunal. A purposeful exercise would mean that
costs and expenses actually incurred for the purposes of the
airport ought to have been allowed while determining tariff in the
impugned tariff order (Annexure A-1). It has been held by this
Tribunal in the case of DIAL v. AERA , being AERA Appeal No.
10 of 2012 judgment dated 23.04.2018, under Paragraph
nos.67, 68 and 88 as follows:
“ 67. The aforesaid technical plea has been raised by
learned counsels appearing for different respondents
as well. In view of a clear and categorical reply that
it has no direct bearing with the substance of a tariff
formulation exercise, this plea is rejected outrightly
for the simple reason that none of the parties are
adversely affected on this account. Even if the rightful
authority, the Central Government had initiated the
exercise of tariff formulation for the period of 5 years
beginning from 01.04.2009, it would have remained
inclusive and liable to be criticized as an action by an
interested party and not an independent statutory
authority. Once AERA was legally constituted from
September 2009, the unfinished exercise could have
been finished only by AERA. Clearly, the Central
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Government had the authority to consult
independent expert body for the period between
01.04.2009 and 01.09.2009 when AERA came into
existence. The exercise by AERA for that period has
been within the knowledge of Central Government
which has issued communications relating to tariff
formulation. In absence of any objection from any
quarters including Central Government, it would be
futile to direct the Central Government to go through
the formality of fixing tariffs for the 5 months
between April 2009 and August 2009 when Central
Government cannot complete that exercise in a
meaningful and proper manner so as to avoid
retrospectivity and delay. Further, the Central
Government can always adopt and approve the
studied view of AERA which it appears to have done
by not raising any objections at any stage. Nothing
has been pointed out in the OMDA and SSA against
such action and Section 13 of the Act gives sufficient
latitude in selecting an appropriate beginning of the
first regulatory term of 5 years subject to rules of
transparency and fairness.
68. Even the criticism that Tariff Order published in May
2012 is bad for acting retrospectively for the earlier
period, in our view deserves to be rejected outrightly.
Such objection raised by many of the counsels
ignores the entire scheme of tariff formulation which
requires adequate consultation with all stakeholders
and transparency. The stakeholders are aware of the
need as well as principles relating to determination of
tariff. Allowing a significant period to escape from the
effect of periodic tariff revision, is bound to lead to
accumulation of financial burden for all the
stakeholders and shall cause difficulty to all, in
addition to defeating the very object and purpose for
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which the entire exercise has to be undertaken. The
purpose of OMDA and SSA as well as object of the
Act leave no manner of doubt that same delay in
finalizing the tariff for a specified period which has
started to run will not require aborting the entire
process. There is no adverse effect on any party and
no vested rights are taken away if a holistic and broad
view of the exercise is kept in mind. Rule against
retrospective action by the executive is only to
protect the vested rights getting affected from a back
date. Benefits can always be granted even from an
earlier date. The exercise of periodic formulation of
tariff to serve the purposes of OMDA, SSA and the
Act is to the benefit of all the stakeholders in the
ultimate analysis and hence mere delay in finalizing
the tariff order neither requires re-initiation of the
entire process nor to apply the revised tariff only for
a period which has yet not begun. Such a view is
impractical, unwarranted by the provisions of the Act
read in conjunction with OMDA and SSA and shall not
help any of the stakeholders. Such objection is,
therefore, also found to be without any substance.
88. On the other hand, on behalf of AERA, Mr.Dhir has
taken a firm stand that in the task of tariff
determination, the project cost can be looked at from
a narrow hole, only to examine the incurred cost as
per available records and see that it relates to the
approved and essential parts of the Airport.
According to him, this had to be done on the basis of
accounts bearing certificates granted or approved by
the Chartered Accountant. His clear stand is that such
cost cannot be re-examined on the yardstick of
efficient cost but has to be taken as the incurred cost
only, as appearing in the duly certified books of
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accounts. This submission appears to be weighty and
deserves acceptance. ”
202. In view of the aforesaid decision, AERA should have allowed
losses/expenses incurred by the Airport Operator-Appellant-BIAL
for the period prior to Airport Opening Date till the start of First
Control Period i.e., from 24.05.2008 to 31.03.2011.
203. We are unable to accept the proposition that an expenditure
otherwise incurred for bringing a greenfield airport into existence
becomes incapable of recognition merely because passengers
had not begun using the Airport on the date when the
expenditure was incurred and such an approach confuses the
time at which the cost is incurred with the time at which that cost
may be recovered from users. These are conceptually different
matters.
204. In our humble opinion, a greenfield airport cannot become
available for passenger use unless substantial expenditure is first
incurred in its planning, design, construction, commissioning and
organisational preparation. The Concession Agreement itself
proceeds on that basis. BIAL was obliged to design, procure,
construct, complete, test and commission the Initial Phase and
to organise the Site and undertake the multitude of activities
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necessary for achieving Airport Opening within the contractual
period. Expenditure incurred in performing those obligations
does not lose its nexus with the Airport merely because it
necessarily precedes the date on which passengers first enter the
facility.
205. AERA should have appreciated the fact that the present appellant
has to incur expenses for planning, designing, construction and
development of the Bengaluru airport from 24.05.2008 to
31.03.2011.
206. AERA ought to have appreciated that the Appellant had to incur
expenses for the planning, designing, construction and
development of the Bengaluru airport in the period leading up to
the Airport Opening Date. Pre Airport Opening Date losses are,
in substance, expenditure of the nature contemplated by Section
13(1)(a)(i) of the AERA Act, incurred to ensure the economic and
viable operation of the airport within the meaning of Section
13(1)(a)(iv).
207. It is contended by learned counsel for AERA that AERA has
denied these expenses because the said investment was not
available for utilization for users/passengers (as mentioned in
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para 2.4.6 of the impugned order). This contention is not
accepted by this Tribunal mainly for the reason:
(i) the Airport Operator is a joint venture incorporated to
construct, develop and manage a green field airport. Prior
to AoD, airport development was the only activity which
used to be carried out by the Airport Operator-BIAL and
therefore expenses actually incurred by the Airport
Operator were for the purpose of or were related to
making the airport operational and consequently these
expenses were for the benefit of the users of the airport;
(ii) BIAL, being a regulated entity, has no other means of
recovering pre-opening losses/expenses other than
through True-Up of the ARR being provided by AERA.
208. It has been pointed out to this Tribunal that in a similar case of
DIAL, AERA has allowed administrative expenses in the
operational expenses category in tariff order no.5 of 2022-23
order dated 03.06.2022 while determining tariff for M/s. BSSDPL
at IGI, Delhi. This bid award cost by AERA is an indirect cost
similar to the expenses which have been disallowed for BIAL.
Page 135 of 546
209. There is a nuanced legal position before us, which AERA has
given a complete go by, it is the elementary principle that there
is a distinction between the setting up of a business and the
commencement of that business, and the treatment to be
accorded to expenditure incurred in the interval between the two,
is well settled in the jurisprudence upon the Income Tax Act,
1961, and the underlying accounting and commercial principle is
of general application and not confined to that statute.
210. To appreciate the above, it would be wise to allude to the
decision of the Division Bench of the Hon’ble High Court of Delhi
in the case of ‘ Carefour WC&C India Pvt. Ltd. v. Deputy
Commissioner of Income Tax’, I.T.A. No. 42 of 2014 ,
judgement dated 22.09.2014, the relevant paragraph of which
reads as under:
“ 9. Having considered the rival submissions made by the
learned counsel for the parties, the question which
arises for consideration in the present appeal is as to
when does the assessee is said to have set up its
business? It has to be borne in mind that there is a
distinction between setting up of a business and
commencement of a business. The Bombay High
Court in Western India Vegetables Products Ltd.
vs. CIT [1954] 26 ITR 151 has examined the
concept and noticed the difference between
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commencement and setting up of a business by
observing:-
“The important question that has got to be
considered is from which date are the
expenses of this business to be considered
permissible deductions and for that purpose
the section that we have got to look to is
section 2(11) and that section defines the
“previous year‟ and for the purpose of a
business the previous year begins from the
date of setting up of the business. Therefore,
it is only after the business is set up that the
previous year of that business commences and
in that previous year the expenses incurred in
the business can be claimed as permissible
deductions. Any expenses incurred prior to
setting up a business would obviously not be
permissible deductions because those
expenses would be incurred at a point of time
when the previous years of the business would
not have commenced.”
10. The Gujarat High Court in a subsequent judgment in
the case of CIT, Gujarat Vs. M/s. Saurashtra Cement
and Chemical Industries Ltd. (1973) 91 ITR 170
(Guj.), has held a business is said to have commenced
as soon as an essential activity of that business is
started. On the question of setting up, the following
observations are relevant:-
“...A business activity consists of three stages:
the first stage relates to the activity necessary
for the purpose of acquiring the raw material
and establishment of plant and machinery and
the second activity comprises the processing
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and manufacturing by using the raw material
and the plants and machinery set up for the
purpose and the third category consisted of
the marketing thereof. The first in point of time
lays the foundation for the second activity and
the second activity when completed lays the
foundation for the third activity. Therefore, the
expenditure incurred for carrying on any of
these activities including the first activity is also
deductible in computing the profits and gains
of the assessee for the relevant year when the
activity is undertaken. In Sarabhai
Management Corporation Ltd. v. CIT, [1976]
102 ITR 25, the Gujarat High Court took the
same view and held that the business
commences with the first activity for acquiring
by purchase or otherwise, immovable
property. There may be an interval between
the setting up of the business and the
commencement of the business. All expenses
incurred during that interval are also
permissible for deduction. In CIT v. Sarabhai
Management Corporation Ltd., [1991] 192 ITR
151 (SC) the decision of the Gujarat High Court
was affirmed and went a step ahead that even
the activities at a preparatory stage is also
admissible.”
11. On a reading of the above referred quotations, it is
clear that it is only after the business is set up, that
the expenses incurred in the business can be claimed
as permissible deduction under Section 37 of the Act.
For commencement of a business, there must be in
place some income generating asset or income
earning structure. In several cases, there is a gap or
an interval between setting up and commencement.
Page 138 of 546
When the business is set up, is a mixed question of
law and fact and depends upon the line, nature and
character of the business /professional activity. For
example, for manufacturing business, purchase of
new material or electricity connection may be relevant
point to determine setting up but in case of a property
dealer, the moment, he puts up a chair and table, or
starts talking, his business is set up. ”
211. Moreover, the Hon’ble Supreme Court, in the case of
‘ Commissioner of Income Tax v. Sarabhai Management
Corporation Limited’, (1991) 192 ITR 151 , affirmed
precisely this proposition and reads as under:
“The question in this appeal which arises out of an
income-tax reference is as to the date of
commencement of the respondent-assessee's
business. The Tribunal was of the opinion that the
business of the assessee could not be said to have
commenced during the year which ended on March
31, 1965. The High Court has, however, taken a
contrary view [ vide judgment reported in [1976] 102
ITR 25 (Guj)] and answered the question in favour of
the assessee. Hence, this appeal by the
Department……
…
….It has analysed the various component activities of
the assessee's business and pointed out that two
categories of the activities of the business had been
carried on during the previous year in question. The
assessee had purchased a property; it was on the
look out for persons to whom it could be let out; it
had been able to get a customer; and it had carried
out repairs, rewiring, installation of lift and other
steps in the process of getting the premises
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converted from a residential house into a business
and storage accommodation conforming to the
requirements of the customer. Even if, as submitted
by Dr. Gauri Shankar, the first category of activity
referred to by the High Court, viz., the acquisition of
a property for being let out can be said to be only a
preparatory stage (analogous to the acquisition of
buildings, plant and machinery in a manufacturing
business), the subsequent activities certainly
constitute activities in the course of the carrying on
of the assessee's business. It would not be
correct, as rightly pointed out by the High
Court, to treat the assessee as having
commenced its business only when the
licensee or lessee occupied the premises or
started paying rent . In these circumstances, we
are of the opinion that the High Court was right in
interfering with the finding of the Appellate Tribunal
which was based on a misdirection in law .”
212. Therefore, applying aforesaid principle to the facts of the present
case, it appears to us that the Appellant was, from the date of
the Concession Agreement, a special purpose vehicle whose sole
business was the construction and development of the Bengaluru
airport. Every expense it incurred before the Airport Opening
Date was incurred for that business, and for no other, and the
circumstance that the airport was not yet open for passengers is
no more a ground for excluding those expenses from
consideration than it would be a ground for disallowing them as
a business deduction under ordinary principles of taxation.
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213. AERA's reasoning that operational losses prior to an airport
becoming operational have no logic does not survive this well-
established distinction between the setting up and the
commencement of a business, a distinction well known to
company law and accountancy, and one that AERA, as an
economic regulator, ought itself to have applied.
214. We are also of the view that the impugned order, does not meet
the standard of transparency that Section 13(4)(c) of the AERA
Act itself prescribes, namely that all decisions of AERA be fully
documented and explained. AERA does not, in the impugned
order, dispute that the sum of Rupees fifty three crore thirty lakh
was in fact expended, or that it was expended for purposes
connected with the construction of the airport, or that it stands
reflected in audited accounts.
215. For these reasons, the reasoning adopted by AERA in paragraphs
2.4.3 to 2.4.8 cannot be sustained insofar as it excludes the pre
Airport Opening Date claim merely because the Airport had not
become available for use by passengers. The decisive
consideration is whether the expenditure was genuinely incurred
for the establishment and development of the Airport, was
required for performance of BIAL’s obligations under the
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governing project framework and has not already been recovered
or recognised under another head.
216. We, therefore, quash and set aside the decision of AERA
dated 28.08.2021 (Annexure A-1) whereby AERA has
disallowed or not considered losses/expenses incurred
by BIAL from the period running from 24.05.2008 till
31.03.2011. We, hereby direct AERA to allow
losses/expenses actually incurred by Airport Operator
for the period running from 24.05.2008 till 31.03.2011.
Issue No. IV is answered accordingly in favour of the Appellant.
ISSUE V: Disallowance of Capital Expenditure towards
Eastern Connectivity Tunnel (ECT)
217. Looking to the impugned order passed by AERA (Annexure A-
1) AERA has not allowed capital expenditure incurred by the
Airport Operator towards Eastern Connectivity Tunnel (ECT) as
a part of RAB as of 01.04.2021.
218. Additional Commissioner of Traffic had requested for creating
access to the eastern side of Bengaluru Airport, a similar
request was also made by ACS (Home) for creating access to
the eastern side of the Bengaluru Airport. Even the
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Infrastructure Development Department, Govt. of Karnataka
had also stated that ECT is required for alternate access point
to the airport from security stand point.
219. The total length of the ECT is 2.76 Kms. which was to be
constructed in a phase-wise manner. In the first phase of ECT,
a 300 meters long tunnel was constructed, under the Eastern
Cross Field Taxiway which connects the existing and new
runway.
220. The construction of the first phase was completed in
November, 2019. In September 2020, the appellant obtained
an approval from Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) for
operationalization of the constructed part of ECT below the
eastern crossfield taxiway for men, material and vehicles for
project construction activities and airport related operational
purposes. The approval granted by BCAS is at Annexure A-24
(to the memo of this appeal).
221. Learned Counsel Ms. Shweta Bharti appearing for AERA has
submitted that AERA has disallowed capital expenditure
towards ECT as a part of RAB because it is not being used by
the passengers. This contention is not accepted by this
Tribunal mainly for the following reasons:
Page 143 of 546
(i) Eastern Connectivity Tunnel (ECT) is being used by the
Airport Operator-appellant-BIAL to perform the following
aeronautical activities –
(a) For regular patrolling of the airside perimeter wall and
perimeter road;
(b) Conducting safety checks on both the sides of the
ECT;
(c) For patrolling around the perimeter of the airport,
Phase-I of ECT provides easy access for security
personnel, as an alternate route from the west to the
east side is approximately 20 Kms. via roads outside
the premises and through villages. Thus, by the use
of ECT, instead of travelling 20 Kms. outside the
Bengaluru airport which takes approximately 1 hr.
time, east to west can be connected easily.
Sometimes, outside the Bangalore Airport, village
roads are not accessible all the time;
(d) ECT is highly useful for emergency response;
(e) Bird Aircraft Strike Hazard Management (BASHM)
Team has to carry out regular habitat monitoring for
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effective Wildlife Hazard Management Programme
(WHMP);
(f) Moreover, this is in accordance with the requirements
stated in ICAO 9981 Part 3, Paragraph 6.3.1 and ICAO
th
9137 5 Edition Chapter 9. The prominent habitat
areas, near airport vicinity, are located on the
southeast side of the runway 27L9 (Forest Belt) and
north of 27R (Bettakotte Lake) which are exposed to
bird and wildlife hazards and therefore the ECT is a
critical for a quick access to the east area of the
airport;
(g) AERA has failed to appreciate the aforesaid
aeronautical uses of the ECT;
(ii) The logic and reasons advanced by AERA that ECT cannot
be a part of RAB because it is not being used by the
passengers, this reasoning is thoroughly arbitrary and is
full of ignorance of the airport activities. There are several
activities at the airport to which the passengers have no
access like-
(a)
Airport Operations Control Center (AOCC);
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(b) Basement of Terminal for houses the baggage
management system;
(c) Airport rescue and firefighting unit, etc.
(iii) ECT is an essential for airport operations’ perspective and
it is being utilized for aeronautical and aviation related
activities. Hence, capital expenditure incurred by the
Airport Operator towards ECT should have been allowed
as a part of RAB;
(iv) AERA has failed to appreciate that if Phase-1 of ECT was
to be constructed after New South Parallel Runway (NSPR)
and the eastern crossfield taxiway were operational, the
eastern crossfield taxiway would have to be closed until
the ECT under it was constructed. Learned Counsel
appearing for the appellant has pointed out several
advantages of construction of ECT and has summarized
that the present appellant has saved Rs.180 Crores of
expenditure by constructing Phase-1 of ECT.
222. It is also pertinent to avert to the earlier decision of this
Tribunal in the case of HIAL Vs. AERA, being AERA Appeal No.
04 of 2021, judgement dated 14.02.2024, wherein under
paragraph 440, this Tribunal held as follows:
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“ 440. AERA has no jurisdiction to dictate, how the assets are
to be utilised by HIAL. Merely because HIAL has not
utilised an asset as desired by AERA, cannot be the
basis to arbitrarily reduce RAB. Both the aforesaid
buildings, IIDT and IDAT have been used for the
purposes of passengers and other stakeholders and,
therefore, the segregation in Aero and Non-Aero
cannot be done by AERA for the aforesaid two
buildings. ”
223. We are also noticing a recurrent feature in tariff orders passed
by AERA, where the Ld. AERA, has unique ability, which is
actually a curse, because said ability, ensures that AERA,
develops a myopic and forgetful nature while undertaking tariff
determination exercise. AERA it seems to us has mastered the
art of forgetfulness, where while determining the tariff for
subsequent control period, AERA conveniently forgets its own
earlier decision in preceding control period.
224. An exhibit to the above is found from AERA own conduct, while
passing the impugned order, AERA has failed to appreciate its
own Tariff Order No. 18/2018-2019 for Second Control Period
dated 31.08.2018, especially paragraph 9.2.12 thereof, which
reads as under:
“9.2.12 The Authority had noted submissions made by BIAL
with respect to the additional project viz. Eastern
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Tunnel Works. The Authority noted that this was at
a very initial conceptual stage and there is a need
for carrying out stakeholder consultations for the
project. The Authority accordingly proposed to not
consider the submission made relating to Eastern
Tunnel Works for the purpose of estimating the
additions to RAB. The Authority sought views
from stakeholders on the same and would true
up the same after these are incurred and
capitalized, based on detailed review and
evaluation of the actual costs incurred,
comments from stakeholders and the
reasonableness of costs incurred.
225. From the above, during the Tariff determination exercise for
Second Control Period for BIAL, AERA, identified the precise
reason why the project was not then included in the RAB and
the precise basis upon which it was to be reconsidered
thereafter. The exclusion during the Second Control Period was
because the project was at an initial conceptual stage. AERA
expressly contemplated a subsequent examination after the
expenditure had been incurred and capitalised, with the inquiry
then directed to actual cost, stakeholder comments and
reasonableness of the expenditure.
226. By the time the impugned order came to be passed, the factual
position had materially advanced from that which existed when
paragraph 9.2.12 was framed. The completed portion of Phase
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I had been capitalised and had been brought into operational
use. Indeed, paragraph 3.3.79 of the impugned order itself
records that BIAL had capitalised the ECT and was using it for
vehicular movement, security and safety related patrolling and
Bird Aircraft Strike Hazard Management. The conditions which
had led AERA to defer consideration of the project in the
Second Control Period had, therefore, ceased to exist in
relation to the completed Phase I. For ready reference
Paragraph 3.3.79 of the impugned order reads as under:
“Eastern Connectivity Tunnel
3.3.79 The Authority has examined the comments of
BIAL, Government of Karnataka and IDD (GoK)
on the inclusion of eastern connectivity tunnel
(ECT) in the RAB. The Authority noted from GoK
and IDD comments that the ECT construction
was finalized based on the Government of
Karnataka's directions. The Authority has
noted that BIAL has capitalized the ECT
and using it for vehicular movements,
security and safety related patrolling,
BASHM etc. However, the Authority is of
the view that the ECT was envisaged to
provide access to the airport for the
passengers from the eastern side. Since, it
is not being fully utilized for the purpose
for which it was built, the Authority cannot
consider it as part of RAB and hence
decides to exclude it from the RAB of
BIAL . ”
Page 149 of 546
227. At that stage, the regulatory course indicated in paragraph
9.2.12 required AERA to examine the actual expenditure
incurred upon the commissioned portion, its reasonableness,
the stakeholder comments and also its operational utility.
228. To us the bare perusal of Paragraph 3.3.79 indicates that AERA
did not reject the expenditure upon an examination of its actual
cost or upon a finding that the cost was imprudent or
unreasonable. Further AERA does not hold that the
commissioned portion is lying idle. To the contrary, the
Authority expressly acknowledges its operational use.
229. The expenditure is nevertheless excluded because, according
to AERA, the tunnel had originally been conceived as an
eastern passenger access and was not being fully utilised for
that purpose. The criterion applied in the impugned order is
therefore materially different from the criterion which the
Authority had announced in paragraph 9.2.12 of the Second
Control Period order. The impugned order contains no
explanation for this change.
230. We must underscore that a tariff order does not operate in
isolation from the regulatory history which precedes it. Where,
in an earlier Control Period, AERA has consciously adopted a
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particular treatment for a project and has indicated the manner
in which that treatment will be revisited at true up, elementary
regulatory discipline requires that AERA, in the succeeding
Control Period, either to follow that course or to disclose cogent
reasons for departing from it.
231. An unexplained departure from an earlier regulatory position
introduces uncertainty into a regime in which substantial and
long term investments are necessarily made on the basis of the
regulatory framework declared by AERA.
232. The Hon'ble Supreme Court, in Securities and Exchange
Board of India Vs. Sunil Krishna Khaitan, (2023) 2 SCC
643, decided on 11.07.2022 , has held that regularity and
predictability, along with certainty, are hallmarks of good
regulation and governance. For ready reference paragraphs
No. 59-60 reads as under:
“59. It is important for the regulator to be
consistent and predictable. Further regulations
must be clear as ambiguous regulations cause
confusion and uncertainty. Regularity and
predictability, along with certainty, are
hallmarks of good regulation and governance .
These principles underpin the “rule of law”, check
arbitrariness and are read as the intent of the
legislation, which the Courts, if need be, will enforce
as a principle of interpretation. The Board is entrusted
to preform legislative, executive, investigative and
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adjudicatory functions. A regulator when it
executes statutory functions interprets the
enactment and gives meaning and, in that
sense, lays down what it believes is the rule. As
a legislator who constructs and states at the
first instance what is the rule, the Board tacitly
promises and prophesies the interpretation
that appeals to them. Any good regulatory
system must promote and adhere to principle
of certainty and consistency, providing
assurance to the individual as to the
consequence of transactions forming part of
his daily affairs. [Union of India v. Raghubir Singh,
(1989) 2 SCC 754. Also see, The Nature of the Judicial
Process, Benjamin N. Cardozo, p. 33:“I am not to mar
the symmetry of the legal structure by the
introduction of inconsistencies and irrelevancies and
artificial exceptions unless for some sufficient reason,
which will commonly be some consideration of history
or custom or policy or justice. Lacking such a reason,
I must be logical just as I must be impartial, and upon
like grounds. It will not do to decide the same
question one way between one set of litigants and the
opposite way between another.”(emphasis supplied)]
Lord Diplock has aptly said “unless men know
what the rule of conduct is they cannot
regulate their actions to confirm to it”.
Otherwise the regulator “fails in its primary
function as a rule maker”. [ Francis Bennion,
Bennion on Statutory Interpretation, 5th Edn. (Indian
reprint), Section 266 at p. 801.] This does not mean
that the regulator/authorities cannot deviate from the
past practice, albeit any such deviation or change
must be predicated on greater public interest or harm.
This is the mandate of Article 14 of the
Constitution of India which requires fairness in
action by the State, and non-arbitrariness in
essence and substance. Therefore, to examine
the question of inconsistency, the analysis is to
ascertain the need and functional value of the
change, as consistency is a matter of
Page 152 of 546
operational effectiveness. Sometimes changes
are desirable and necessary. Referring to these
aspects, in some cases, the Indian courts have
applied the doctrine of substantive legitimate
expectatio n [ See, Council of Civil Service Unions v.
Minister for Civil Service, 1985 AC 374 : (1984) 3 WLR
1174 (HL), wherein it was observed in that case that
for a legitimate expectation to arise, the decisions of
the administrative authority must affect the person by
depriving him of some benefit or advantage which
either (i) he had in the past been permitted by the
decision-maker to enjoy and which he can
legitimately expect to be permitted to continue to do
until there has been communicated to him some
rational grounds for withdrawing it on which he has
been given an opportunity to comment; or (ii) he has
received assurance from the decision-maker that they
will not be withdrawn without giving him first an
opportunity of advancing reasons for contending that
they should not be withdrawn.] observing that the
change in policy should not be irrational or perverse
or one which no reasonable person could have made.
In other words, principles of Wednesbury's
reasonableness would apply. Such a principle
stems, but is somewhat different from the
foundational idea of procedural legitimate
expectation, which applies where a particular
mode is prescribed for doing an act and there
is no impediment in adopting the procedure,
the deviation to act in similar manner without
any reasonable principle, can be labelled as
arbitrary . [Bannari Amman Sugars Ltd. v. CTO,
(2005) 1 SCC 625]
60. In Punjab Communications Ltd. v. Union of India
[Punjab Communications Ltd. v. Union of India,
(1999) 4 SCC 727] , it is observed that for a legitimate
expectation to arise, the decisions of the
administrative authority must affect the person by
depriving him of some benefit or advantage which he
had in the past been permitted by the decision-maker
Page 153 of 546
to enjoy, and which he can legitimately expect to be
permitted to continue to do until he has been
communicated some rational grounds for withdrawing
it and he has been given an opportunity to comment.
It also means that the assurance given by the
decision-maker will not be withdrawn, without giving
him an opportunity of advancing reasons to contend
that they should not be withdrawn. Reference can
also be made to a recent decision of this Court in
State of Jharkhand v. Brahmputra Metallics Ltd. [State
of Jharkhand v. Brahmputra Metallics Ltd., (2021) 18
SCC 536 : 2020 SCC OnLine SC 968] wherein
reference was made to earlier judgment in National
Buildings Construction Corpn. v. S. Raghunathan
[National Buildings Construction Corpn. v. S.
Raghunathan, (1998) 7 SCC 66 : 1998 SCC (L&S)
1770] to reiterate that claims based on legitimate
expectations have been held to acquire reliance on
the representations and resulting detriment to the
complainant in the same way as claims based on
promissory estoppel. ”
233. Moreover, the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of ‘State of
Bihar Vs. Shyama Nandan Mishra’, (2022) 17 SCC 420,
decided on 05.05.2022, held that where a substantive
legitimate expectation is not ultra vires the power of the
authority, the State cannot be allowed to change course and
belie that expectation, and that regularity, predictability,
certainty and fairness are necessary concomitants of
governmental action. For ready reference paragraph no. 35 to
37 reads as under:
Page 154 of 546
“35. To understand the legal consequences arising
therefrom, useful reference can be made to R. v. IRC
[R. v. IRC, (1990) 1 WLR 1545] (1989) where
Thomas Bingham, L.J. while invoking fairness as a
rationale for protecting legitimate expectations,
expressed the following : (WLR pp. 1569-70)
“… If a public authority so conducts
itself as to create a legitimate
expectation that a certain course will
be followed it would often be unfair if
the authority were permitted to follow
a different course to the detriment of
one who entertained the expectation,
particularly if he acted on it . … The
doctrine of legitimate expectation is
rooted in fairness .”
36. Another facet of denial of legitimate expectations is
underscored by the Court of Appeal of England and
Wales in the seminal case of Coughlan [R. v. North
and East Devon Health Authority, ex p Coughlan,
2001 QB 213 : (2000) 2 WLR 622 (CA)] , where the
Court preferred to use abuse of power as one of the
criteria for testing whether a public body could resile
from a prima facie legitimate expectation. In the
Court's opinion, if the government authority
induced an expectation which was
substantive, the upsetting of that expectation,
through departure from the expected course of
action in the absence of compelling public
interest, would be so unfair, that it would
amount to abuse of power . In the present case,
the abuse of power is discernible in the State's
disparate decision in encadering the +2 lecturers with
the teachers of nationalised schools, notwithstanding
the contrary representation through the 1985
notification which created the +2 lecturer posts and
the 1987 advertisement under which, the
Page 155 of 546
respondents entered service. Such manifest
departure from the projected course smacks of
arbitrariness and the government action, to
selectively protect the interest of the BES cadre, does
not conform to rules of justice and fair play.
37. Taking a cue from above, where the substantive
legitimate expectation is not ultra vires the
power of the authority and the court is in a
position to protect it, the State cannot be
allowed to change course and belie the
legitimate expectation of the respondents. As
is well known, regularity, predictability,
certainty and fairness are necessary
concomitants of Government's action and the
Bihar Government in our opinion, failed to keep to
their commitment by the impugned decision, which
we find was rightly interdicted by the High Court. ”
234. It ought to be made clear that governing test for inclusion of
an asset in the Regulatory Asset Base is not one of AERA's own
devising, but is fixed by Clause 5.2.7(a) of the Airports
Economic Regulatory Authority of India (Terms and Conditions
for Determination of Tariff for Airport Operators) Guidelines,
2011, issued under Direction No. 5 of 2010-11 dated
28t.02.2011, which is at Annexure A-17 to the memo of this
appeal.
235. Thus, from the perusal of the aforesaid clause it is apparent
that it defines a Commissioned Asset as the accumulated value
of Work in Progress Assets attributable to all assets that have
Page 156 of 546
been put into effective operation during a Tariff Year. The test,
in terms, is whether the asset has been put into effective
operation. It is not whether the asset is being used for the
particular purpose originally envisaged for it, still less whether
it is being used by passengers specifically.
236. It is worth noting that AERA's itself notes at paragraph 3.3.79,
records in the same breath that the Appellant has capitalised
the tunnel and is using it for vehicular movements, security and
safety related patrolling, and activities connected with the Bird
Aircraft Strike Hazard Management programme. Upon AERA's
own recorded findings, the tunnel has plainly been put into
effective operation within the meaning of Clause 5.2.7(a).
237. Regulatory certainty assumes particular importance in capital
intensive infrastructure sectors. Investment decisions are
ordinarily taken years before the corresponding asset becomes
operational and are made against the regulatory framework
then prevailing.
238. In fact, where a specific project has already moved forward
under an identified regulatory treatment, an unexplained
alteration of the governing criterion after the expenditure has
been incurred undermines the predictability which an orderly
Page 157 of 546
regulatory regime requires. Section 13 itself obliges AERA,
while determining tariff, to take into account capital
expenditure incurred, timely investment in improvement of
airport facilities, efficiency and the economic and viable
operation of major airports.
239. In view of the aforesaid tariff order for Second Control Period
(Annexure A-6), it was held by AERA that once the cost for
Eastern Tunnel Works is already incurred and the project is
capitalized then true-up will be given based upon actual cost
incurred. This aspect of the matter has not been properly
rd
appreciated by AERA while passing the tariff order for 3
Control Period. This is an error apparent on the face of the
record. AERA should have maintained consistency in their tariff
orders, especially for the very same airport, AERA should have
appreciated their own observations in their earlier tariff order
while passing the latest tariff order. Inconsistency in the
decision by AERA brings uncertainty for those who are
managing the affairs of the airport. Consistency in the decision
allows the correct prediction about the future law.
240. These aspects of the matter have not been properly
appreciated by AERA while passing the impugned order
Page 158 of 546
(Annexure A-1) of disallowing the capital expenditure
incurred towards ECT as a part of RAB as of 01.04.2021
hence, the reasons given in paragraph 3.3.79 in the
impugned order passed by AERA deserves to be
quashed and set aside.
241. In the facts of the present case, AERA has failed to maintain
consistency for the very same airport. This is not permissible
in the eye of law hence also, the observations made by AERA
in impugned order in paragraph 3.3.79, so far as it relates to
the capital expenditure towards ECT is concerned, deserves to
be quashed and set aside. We, hereby direct AERA to allow
the capital expenditure actually incurred towards ECT
as part of RAB as of 01.04.2021. Issue No. V is
accordingly answered in favour of the Appellant.
ISSUE VI: Notional Lease Rentals for Bengaluru Airport
Hotel Ltd.
242. AERA has decided by the impugned order, in paragraph 2.4.5, to
consider notional lease rentals from Bengaluru airport hotel Ltd.
to BIAL from Airport Opening Date (AoD) (24.05.2008) as per
the notional lease rentals prescribed in a Second Control Period
tariff order.
Page 159 of 546
243. It appears from the facts of the case that notional lease rental
was also assigned by AERA in Second Control tariff order at
Rs.9.26 Crores per annum from FY2017 (Table No. 61 of the
rd
impugned order). This very reasoning is also applied for 3
Control Period tariff order (Annexure A-1) especially as stated in
paragraph 3.9.24 of the impugned order.
244. Looking to the impugned order especially paragraphs 3.9.24 and
2.4.5, it appears that AERA has considered “most suitable
data” but no such data or report have been provided by AERA
to the appellant, to indicate how the said amount of notional
lease rent is arrived at. Moreover, AERA has applied the notional
rent with retrospective effect from AoD which is 24.05.2008.
245. This decision of AERA is absolutely illegal since, it is in violation
of Section 13 of AERA Act, 2008 and is arbitrary in nature
because as on AoD, there was no hotel and there were no
Concession Agreement with the Bengaluru Airport Hotel Ltd.,
hence, no question of notional rent whatsoever arises.
246. Moreover, looking to the provisions of AERA Act especially
Section 13(1)(a)(v) while determining tariff AERA should take
into consideration the revenue “ actually received ”. The words
Page 160 of 546
“revenue received” do not include notional rent for the hotels
which were never in existence.
247. It ought to have been kept in mind by AERA that BIAL is a
greenfield airport, sometime is bound to be consumed in
construction of airport and hotels. Even after constructing hotels,
lease agreements may take sometime and therefore, actual
revenue received by the Airport Operator from BAHL should have
been considered under Section 13(1)(a)(v) of the AERA Act.
248. The very concept of notional rent is not applicable while
determining tariff by AERA u/s Section 13 of the AERA Act, 2008.
In fact, AERA has no power, jurisdiction and authority to take
into consideration any notional rent or any notional revenue while
determining tariff u/s Section 13 of the AERA Act because Section
13(1)(a)(v) has used the words “revenue actually received”.
For ready reference, section 13(1)(a)(v) of the AERA Act, 2008
reads as under:
“ Chapter III
POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE AUTHORITY
13. Functions of Authority.— (1) The Authority shall
perform the following functions in respect of major
airports, namely:—
Page 161 of 546
(a) to determine the tariff for the aeronautical
services taking into consideration—
..
..
(v) revenue received from services
other than the aeronautical
services ; ”
249. In view of the aforesaid provisions of the AERA Act, notional lease
rentals from BAHL can never be considered while determining
tariff for the airport by AERA, much less, the same can be
considered from airport operation date (24.05.2008). Too much
enthusiastic approach leads to illegality. The facts which
are not in existence, can never be presumed by AERA, this is very
true, especially in the case of “income or revenue”. It is highly
risky to presume income or revenue and it is always wise to
accept the actual income and revenue therefore, AERA Act, 2008
has used the words “ revenue received from services… ” as
per Section 13(1)(a)(v) of the AERA Act, 2008.
250. It is settled that where the words of a statute are plain and
unambiguous, effect must be given to them according to their
natural sense, since the legislature must be taken to have meant
what it has plainly said. This principle was reiterated by the
Hon'ble Supreme Court in Gurudevdatta VKSSS Maryadit Vs.
Page 162 of 546
State of Maharashtra, (2001) 4 SCC 534, for ready
reference paragraph No. 26 reads as under:
“26. Further we wish to clarify that it is a cardinal
principle of interpretation of statute that the
words of a statute must be understood in their
natural, ordinary or popular sense and
construed according to their grammatical
meaning, unless such construction leads to
some absurdity or unless there is something in
the context or in the object of the statute to
suggest to the contrary. The golden rule is that
the words of a statute must prima facie be
given their ordinary meaning . It is yet another
rule of construction that when the words of the
statute are clear, plain and unambiguous, then the
courts are bound to give effect to that meaning,
irrespective of the consequences. It is said that the
words themselves best declare the intention of the
law-giver. The courts have adhered to the
principle that efforts should be made to give
meaning to each and every word used by the
legislature and it is not a sound principle of
construction to brush aside words in a statute
as being inapposite surpluses, if they can have
a proper application in circumstances
conceivable within the contemplation of the
statute. Bearing in mind, the aforesaid principle of
construction, if the expression “any new member
society” occurring in the proviso to sub-section (3) of
Section 27 is construed, it conveys the only meaning
that it refers to the societies to be formed hereafter
and not of those societies which have already become
member societies of the federal society. Therefore,
the requirement of the completion of the period of
Page 163 of 546
three years from the date of its investing any part of
its fund in the shares of such federal society would
apply only to those societies which became member
society of the federal society after 23-8-2000. In this
view of the matter, the impugned judgment of the
High Court does not suffer from any infirmity. Even if
there remained any doubt in the matter of
interpreting the proviso, in the Ordinance that has
been promulgated on 27-2-2001, called Maharashtra
Ordinance 10 of 2001, after the first proviso to sub-
section (3), a second proviso had been inserted,
which has removed any doubt or controversy
inasmuch as it has been indicated therein that the first
proviso will not apply to the member society which
has invested any part of its fund in the share of the
federal society before the commencement of the
Maharashtra Cooperative Societies (Amendment) Act,
2000 dated 23-8-2000. The aforesaid Ordinance also
has been given a retrospective effect, to be effective
from 23-8-2000. The Ordinance having been held to
be valid by us as stated above, the so-called
prohibition contained in the first proviso to sub-
section (3) of Section 27 will not apply to all those
societies which have already become members of the
federal society prior to 23-8-2000 .”
251. The above principle was reiterated by the Hon’ble Supreme Court
in the case of Nasiruddin v. Sita Ram Agarwal, (2003) 2
SCC 577, wherein, under the Paragraph No. 20 & 37, the
Hon’ble Court observed as follows:
“20. This Court in Bhavnagar University v. Palitana Sugar
Mill (P) Ltd. [(2003) 2 SCC 111 : (2002) 9 Scale 102]
has observed: (SCC p. 121, para 25)
Page 164 of 546
“25. Scope of the legislation on the
intention of the legislature cannot be
enlarged when the language of the
provision is plain and unambiguous . In
other words statutory enactments must
ordinarily be construed according to its plain
meaning and no words shall be added,
altered or modified unless it is plainly
necessary to do so to prevent a provision
from being unintelligible, absurd,
unreasonable, unworkable or totally
irreconcilable with the rest of the
statute.”[See also Unique Butyle Tube
Industries (P) Ltd. v. U.P. Financial Corpn.
[(2003) 2 SCC 455 : (2002) 9 Scale 778] ]
37. The court's jurisdiction to interpret a statute
can be invoked when the same is ambiguous.
It is well known that in a given case the court
can iron out the fabric but it cannot change the
texture of the fabric. It cannot enlarge the
scope of legislation or intention when the
language of the provision is plain and
unambiguous. It cannot add or subtract words
to a statute or read something into it which is
not there. It cannot rewrite or recast
legislation. It is also necessary to determine
that there exists a presumption that the
legislature has not used any superfluous
words. It is well settled that the real intention
of the legislation must be gathered from the
language used. It may be true that use of the
expression “shall or may” is not decisive for arriving
at a finding as to whether the statute is directory or
mandatory. But the intention of the legislature must
be found out from the scheme of the Act. It is also
equally well settled that when negative words are
Page 165 of 546
used the courts will presume that the intention of the
legislature was that the provisions are mandatory in
character. ”
252. Moreover, looking to Annexure A-14 to the memo of this appeal,
dated 12.01.2011, AERA’s Order No.13/2010-11 which is in the
matter of Regulatory Philosophy and Approach in Economic
Regulations of Airport Operators. It has been observed in
paragraph 5.12 which reads as under:
“ 5.12. Authority thus notes that ICAO's guidelines speak of
" contributions from non-aeronautical
revenues accruing from the operation of the
airport to its operators ". Common reading of
these words would indicate that whatever
contributions from non-aeronautical revenues accrue
to the Airport Operators should be taken into account
for determination of aeronautical charges .”
253. As per aforesaid order, the guiding principle for deciding airport
tariff provides for consideration of revenues accruing or
accrued to the Airport Operator and not notional
revenue . Moreover, looking to paragraph 30 of ICAO’s Policies
on Charges for Airports and Air Navigation Service being -ICAO
Document 9082, Eight Edition, 2009 reads as under:
Page 166 of 546
“30. The Council also states that in determining the cost
basis for airport charges the following principles
should be applied:
i) The cost to be shared is the full cost of
providing the airport and its essential ancillary
services, including appropriate amounts for
cost of capital and depreciation of assets, as
well as the costs of maintenance, operation,
management and administration but allowing
for all aeronautical revenues plus
contributions from non-aeronautical revenues
accruing from the operation of the airport to
its operators.
ii) In general, aircraft operators and other
airport users should not be charged for
facilities and services they do not use, other
than those provided for and implemented
under the Regional Air Navigation Plan.
iii) Only the cost of those facilities and
services in general use by international
air services should be included, and the
cost of facilities or premises exclusively
leased or occupied and charged for
separately should be excluded.
iv) While airports should maintain cost data in
sufficient detail to facilitate consultation,
transparency and economic oversight, it may
be beneficial to develop more aggregated
cost bases in certain circumstances for the
purpose of settling charges However, the
aggregation should be done in a logical and
transparent manner accompanied by
Page 167 of 546
safeguards, as appropriate regarding
consultation and where possible, agreements
with users to avoid discrimination among
users.
v) An allocation of costs should be considered in
respect of space or facilities utilized by
government authorities.
vi) The proportion of costs allocable to various
categories of users including State aircraft
should be determined on an equitable basis,
so that no users shall be burdened with costs
not properly allocable to them according to
sound accounting principles.
vii) Costs related to the provision of approach and
aerodrome control should be separately
identified. (Principles applicable to the
recovery of such costs are addressed in
paragraph 5O.)
viii) Airports may produce sufficient revenues to
exceed all direct and Indirect operating costs
(including general administration. etc.) and
so provide for a reasonable return on assets
at a sufficient level to secure financing on
favorable terms In capital markets for the
purpose of investing in new or expanded
airport infrastructure and, where relevant, to
remunerate adequately holders of airport
equity.
ix) The capacity of users to pay should not be
taken into account until all costs are fully
assessed and distributed on an objective
Page 168 of 546
basis. At that stage the contributing capability
of States and communities concerned should
be taken into consideration, it being
understood that any State or charging
authority may recover less than its full costs
in recognition or local, regional or national
benefits received .”
254. In view of the aforesaid ICAO Airport Charging Policy, while
determining tariff for airport consideration of revenues accruing
or accrued to the Airport Operator is to be appreciated and not
the notional revenues. These aspects of the matter have not
been appreciated by AERA while passing the impugned order.
255. AERA has presumed about the tenant and the rent. Even in
absence of a hotel or a contract between lessor and lessee the
rent has been presumed which tantamount to excessive usage of
powers by AERA while determining tariff under Section 13 of the
AERA Act. The guiding factors given under Section 13 should
have been followed by AERA while determining tariff. AERA has
applied notional rental values under the lease for hotel activities
from AoD (24.05.2008) without appreciating the fact that as on
24.05.2008, hotel concessionaire was not even in operation. This
unnecessary presumption about the tenant/lessee and its rent
leads to reduction of ARR for the AO.
Page 169 of 546
256. From bare perusal of Section 13(1)(a)(v) it is clearly evident that
the same speaks of revenue received, a participial phrase in the
past tense that denotes an event that has actually occurred, and
not revenue that might, could, or in the regulator's estimation
should, have been received had the Appellant conducted its non-
airport business differently.
257. We find that there is no ambiguity in the provision calling for any
departure from this plain reading, and AERA has advanced no
reason, beyond its own view of administrative convenience, for
reading into the provision a power to impute revenue that the
text does not confer.
258. This Tribunal vide its judgement dated 14.02.2024 in the case of
HIAL Vs. AERA, being AERA Appeal No. 04 of 2021 , has
held that income from real estate development is revenue from
a non airport activity, that it can be treated neither as
aeronautical nor as non-aeronautical revenue, and that AERA has
no power or jurisdiction over such revenue at all. For ready
reference paragraph no. 341-342 reads as under:
“341. AERA has relied upon the decision of Learned Single
Bench dated 16.12.2020 in case of BIAL. This judgment
has not appreciated the clauses of the Concession
Agreement as stated hereinabove to be read with the
clauses of Land Lease Agreement. The said judgment
Page 170 of 546
has also not appreciated the fact that "site" as defined
in the Concession Agreement includes Airport but
reverse is not true meaning thereby to "airport" and not
to be construed as "site". This distinction has been
overlooked and we therefore do not agree with the
interpretation of the Learned Single judge of this
tribunal in judgment dated 16.12.2020 in case of BIAL.
In fact, both the terms have been defined separately
and, therefore, "Site" and "Airport" are not inter-
changeable terms otherwise there would have been no
need to define them separately.
342. In view of the aforesaid facts and reasons, provisions
of land lease agreement to be read with provisions of
AERA Act, 2008, the decision of AERA to consider
income of appellant from Real Estate Development
under its regulatory purview is incorrect, improper and
not justified. We, hereby, hold that income from
Real Estate Development (RED) is from Non-
Airport Activities and it cannot be treated as
Aeronautical, nor it can be treated as Non-
Aeronautical but they are simply "Non-Airport
Activity" revenue. AERA has no power or
jurisdiction over such revenue.”
259. Further, this Tribunal in the case of GMR Goa International
Airport Limited Vs. AERA , being AERA Appeal No. 01 of
2024 , vide judgement dated 11.09.2025, under paragraph no.
215 has held as follows:
“215. In view of the aforesaid provision of Section
13(1)(a)(v) of the AERA Act, 2008, AERA has to
appreciate “revenue received” from services
other than aeronautical services, meaning
thereby to, AERA has to accept the figures of
Page 171 of 546
revenue from services other than aeronautical
services, as it is. AERA cannot fix minimum non-
aeronautical revenue, it is beyond the powers
conferred upon AERA under Section 13 of the AERA
Act, 2008. ”
260. At this point we would also like to reiterate that this Tribunal in
the case of Mangaluru International Airport Ltd. v. AERA,
being AERA Appeal No. 01 of 2023 , vide judgement dated
11.09.2025, under paragraph no. 186 has held as follows:
“186. AERA cannot presume that the Airport Operator
must earn a particular amount of non-
aeronautical revenue . On the contrary, once the
bidding process is just, proper and equitable and there
are no allegation of arbitrariness, illegality and
unfairness, non-aeronautical revenue received by
airport operator neither can be increased nor can be
decreased by AERA. In the present case, AERA has
presumed nonaeronautical revenue at Rs.17.36 Crores
for FY 2022-23. AERA has further presumed that there
must be a 5% increase in non-aeronautical revenue
every year. Instead of these presumptions, AERA
should have looked at the actual non-
aeronautical revenue received by the Airport
Operator through a Master Service Provider.
261. Thus, it follows from above that as AERA has no jurisdiction over
actual income from the commercial exploitation of land at an
airport, it follows, a fortiori, that it can have no jurisdiction to
Page 172 of 546
impute income from such exploitation where none has in fact
been realised.
262. We must also state that earlier L&T Bangalore Airport Hotel
Limited had been incorporated in December 2006 for
development and operation of the airport hotel and land
measuring approximately 4 acres and 19 guntas had been made
available for that purpose under a long term arrangement. The
project thereafter encountered difficulties arising, inter alia, from
the restriction imposed upon the permissible height of the hotel
structure. These dispute led to the an Arbitration proceeding.
263. Subsequently, BIAL acquired the entire shareholding of the hotel
company and undertook completion of the remaining works. The
hotel eventually commenced commercial operations on
30.09.2016. Thereafter, with effect from 01.04.2019, an
arrangement providing for annual lease rent of Rs. 2.48 crore,
with escalation, became operative.
264. We have also considered the submission of AERA that the
agreement to construct the hotel was itself in existence from the
year 2006, and that it was accordingly reasonable to reckon
notional rent from the Airport Opening Date onward. An
Page 173 of 546
arrangement to construct a hotel is not the accrual of rent for its
use.
265. By following the literal rule of construction it is obvious to us that
the Section 13(1)(a)(v) is concerned with revenue received from
services, and no service was rendered, and no rent fell due under
any instrument, until the hotel came into existence and a lessor
and lessee stood in relation to one another. The existence of a
plan to build is not the receipt of revenue from what is built, and
AERA has conflates the two.
266. In this vein we are equally unable to accept the contention that
the mere existence of land earmarked for a hotel establishes that
rental revenue must be notionally presumed from the Airport
Opening Date. The existence of an asset capable of
commercial exploitation is not synonymous with receipt
or accrual of revenue. The statutory tariff exercise does not
authorise AERA to reconstruct, with hindsight, the commercial
decisions which the airport operator might ideally have made and
then treat the income which might have resulted as if it had
actually arisen. We cannot permit the Regulatory scrutiny of
prudence to turn into a creation of a fictional historical revenue
stream.
Page 174 of 546
267. The submission of AERA that the present issue cannot be
examined because a challenge concerning the Second Control
Period is pending before the Hon’ble Supreme Court also does
not conclude the matter. The impugned order is a fresh tariff
determination for the Third Control Period and produces
independent financial consequences. The earlier judgment dated
16.12.2020 did not adjudicate the merits of the BAHL notional
rental issue.
268. More importantly, the present order itself extends and applies
the treatment afresh, including from the Airport Opening Date.
In the absence of any order staying adjudication of the present
statutory appeal on this issue, the legality of the operative TCP
determination must necessarily be examined by this Tribunal.
269. In our considered view, approach of AERA in attributing to BIAL
a notional lease of Rs. 9.26 Crore Per annum is also inconsistent
with the express language of Section 13(1)(a)(v) of the AERA
Act, 2008. The statutory consideration is the “revenue
received from services other than the aeronautical
services.” Parliament has thus made the revenue received by
the Airport Operator a relevant consideration in tariff
determination. The provision does not authorise AERA, while
Page 175 of 546
carrying out a historical true up, to substitute for such revenue
an assumed earning capacity of the Airport Operator.
270. We reiterate that the Capacity to earn is a matter of
commercial possibility; revenue received is a matter of
financial fact. The former may depend upon assumptions as to
how an airport operator could have commercially exploited an
asset, whereas the latter reflects the revenue which has in fact
arisen under the relevant commercial arrangement.
271. AERA cannot convert the former into the latter merely because,
in its assessment, the Airport Operator could or ought to have
earned a higher amount. Which is to say that AERA cannot
convert a hypothetical earning capacity into historical revenue at
true-up, contrary to Section 13(1)(a)(v), its own commitment to
true up non-aeronautical revenue on actuals, and without
identifying the evidentiary basis by which the hypothetical
amount was derived.
272. It ought to be kept in mind that capacity to earn is different from
actual revenue received under what is permitted under Section
13 to be considered as aeronautical a is the revenue received
by the Airport Operator and not the capacity of the
Airport Operator to receive the revenue .
Page 176 of 546
273. We therefore hold that AERA was not justified in
attributing to BIAL a notional lease rental of Rs. 9.26
crore per annum merely upon the assumption that such
revenue ought to have been earned from the hotel land.
We quash and set aside Paragraphs 2.4.5 and 3.9.24 of
the impugned order, to that extent, as they cannot be
sustained in law and facts.
274. We accordingly hold that, for the purpose of true up,
AERA must take into account the revenue received or
otherwise shown to have legally accrued to BIAL under
the applicable contractual arrangements and cannot
impute a hypothetical rental merely by reference to
BIAL’s perceived capacity to earn from the land. Any
actual contractual arrangement may, of course, be
examined for its genuineness, but the statutory inquiry
cannot be replaced by a notional reconstruction of the
commercial income which AERA considers BIAL might
have earned. Issue No. VI is accordingly answered in
favour of the Appellant.
Page 177 of 546
ISSUE VII. Notional lease rentals from AAI
275. Looking to the impugned order, it has been decided by AERA
that notional lease from AAI to the extent of Rs.39.09 Crores in
rd
Second Control Period and Rs.80.13 Crores in 3 Control Period
has been considered while determining tariff order as per
paragraph 8.2.34 to be read with Table no.161 to be read with
paragraph 8.6.1 and Table no.169 to be read with paragraph
3.9.13 and paragraph 3.9.14 of the impugned order (Annexure
A-1 to the memo of this appeal).
276. As per Annexure A-25 to the memo of this appeal, prior to
AERA’s establishment, CNS/ATM agreement dated 06.04.2005
was executed between the present appellant and AAI under
which space was leased to AAI to provide CNS/ATM services
which continues to be provided by AAI at Bengaluru Airport. For
ready reference Clause 7.4. of CNS/ATM agreement dated
06.04.2005, which is at Annexure A-25 to the memo of this
appeal reads as under:
“7.4. Rental Fee payable by AAI
AAI shall pay a rental fee to BIAL in consideration for
providing the Facility and office space as set out in
Schedule 2. The rental rate shall be calculated on cost
Page 178 of 546
recovery basis and mutually agreed. It shall not exceed
the rental rate applicable to other similar Government
agencies. The lease rental shall be payable in advance
on a quarterly basis effective from the Airport Opening
Date until the termination of this Agreement. The rental
fee shall not be increased by more than 10% once in
every three years. ”
277. In view of the aforesaid provision of the agreement, Airport
Operator can recover the cost of the assets of the control tower,
etc. which was at Rs.14,69,61,924/- was to be recovered
(Annexure A-26). This amount is to be paid by AAI by way of
rent. AAI had requested for a waiver of Rs.22,586/- as rental
which was accepted by BIAL (A-27).
278. Thus as the cost is to be recovered from AAI by way of rent, once
the cost recovery has completed there are no further lease
rentals payable by AAI to BIAL. This aspect has not been properly
appreciated by AERA and, therefore, AERA has wrongly
presumed notional lease rentals from AAI. This presumption of
AERA of notional rent from AAI to BIAL even after the cost
recovery has completed is running counter to Clause 7.4 of
CNS/ATM agreement dated 06.04.2005 (Annexure A-25).
279. The contract entered into between Airport Operator and AAI
dated 06.04.2005 has to be considered by AERA meaning
Page 179 of 546
thereby to AERA cannot ignore CNS/ATM Agreement. AERA
cannot rewrite the Clauses of the agreement between AAI and
Airport Operator. AERA cannot decide airport tariff under Section
13 of the AERA Act in violation of Clause 7.4 of CNS/ATM
Agreement dated 06.04.2005.
280. Pursuant to operationalization of new runway-NSPR and
considering the terminal expansion, AAI was given additional
office space to carry out CNS/ATM activities. This additional
space was provided to AAI in pursuance of Greenfield Airports
Policy, 2008 (Annexure A-28), issued by MoCA which provides
as under:
“ Air Traffic Services (ATS): Functions related to ATS are
being discharged by AAI. The Applicant will have to
enter into a CNS/ATM Agreement with AAI for
the provision of ATS services at the proposed
airport. ATS would be provided on a cost
recovery basis and AAI would publish a standard
agreement for this purpose. The Airport
Company would also provide the acquired
infrastructure to AAI free of cost for provisions
of ATS.”
281. AERA has itself observed in paragraph 3.9.25 of the impugned
order as under:
Page 180 of 546
“3.9.25 The Authority's noted BIAL's comment related to the
notional lease rental from AAI. The Authority noted
that BIAL has submitted the following clause on the
CNS/ATM agreement dated 6 April 2005:
"AAI shall/ pay a rental fee to BIAL in consideration/or
providing the facility and office space and the rental
rate shall be calculated on cost recovery basis ... " and
shared the correspondences between AAI and BIAL in
which both parties have mutually agreed that the cost
recovery is completed and AAI is no longer required to
pay the rental fee. However, the Authority noted that
the capital cost of the office space leased to AAI is part
of the RAB of the airport operator. Therefore, the
Authority decides to consider the notional lease rental
for AAI office space.
282. The aforesaid reasoning given by AERA is running counter to the
provisions of AERA Act especially, Section 13(1)(a) thereof
because the amount recovered by BIAL under the agreement has
been considered as aeronautical revenue for ARR calculations
meaning thereby to, the amount recovered by BIAL has reduced
the tariff to that extent and thereby benefitted passengers for
First Control Period and Second Control Period. Thus, the entire
benefit has already been passed on to the airport users.
283. Moreover, BIAL has to recover the original capital expenditure
and associated returns over a longer period of 30 years and
therefore, merely because AAI has paid the rentals which is equal
to the cost of capital expenditure incurred for construction of
Page 181 of 546
control tower etc. cannot allow AERA to presume the notional
rent from AAI to BIAL even after the cost is recovered.
284. Learned Senior Counsel Mr. Sajjan Povayya appearing for the
appellant has drawn our attention to Annexure R-28 of rejoinder
filed by BIAL to AERA’s reply and especially to Clause 7.5 thereof
which is a standard agreement by AAI which indicates that no
lease rentals are payable by AAI in line with Greenfield Airports
Policy, 2008 which is at Annexure A-28 to the memo of this
appeal. It also prescribes that infrastructure should be provided
to AAI free of cost hence also, AERA cannot prescribe notional
lease and cannot presume notional rent for the said
infrastructure.
285. In fact, BIAL is precluded by Greenfield Airports Policy, 2008 from
levying lease rentals. These aspects of the matter have not been
appreciated by AERA while passing the impugned order and
hence also, the decision of AERA whereby AERA has presumed
notional lease rentals by AAI deserves to be quashed and set
aside.
286. Moreover, looking to the impugned order, AERA has categorized
the lease rentals from aeronautical to non- aeronautical on
erroneous premises that for the First Control Period and Second
Page 182 of 546
Control Period the same was treated as non- aeronautical. In
fact, looking to First Control Period and Second Control Period
tariff orders, AERA has considered the entire lease rentals from
AAI as aeronautical income. Thus, incorrect facts have been
taken into consideration by AERA while passing the impugned
order.
287. We are of the opinion that AERA has no jurisdiction to take into
account notional revenue while determining tariff under Section
13 of the AERA Act 2008. The AERA’s jurisdiction is confined to
the factors enumerated in Section 13 and none of those factors
permits the Authority to take into account notional revenue. The
Authority cannot import into the statute a power that the
legislature has not conferred upon it. The Authority is a creature
of the statute and must act within the four corners of the statute.
288. The submission of AERA that Section 13 of the AERA Act 2008
empowers it to consider any other revenue for tariff
determination is misconceived. The words any other revenue
must be read in the context of the other factors enumerated in
Section 13 and those factors relate to actual revenues and actual
costs. AERA cannot use the residuary clause to expand its
jurisdiction beyond the scope of the statute.
Page 183 of 546
289. It ought to be understood that merely the inclusion of an asset
in the RAB and the existence of revenue receivable from a third
party are two separate regulatory questions. RAB reflects the
regulatory treatment of capital invested in an aeronautical asset
and revenue represents an actual or legally accruing receipt. The
continued presence of an asset in RAB cannot, without more,
create a contractual revenue stream which does not otherwise
exist in the peculiar facts of the present case.
290. AERA’s has argued in substance, that because users continue to
bear depreciation and return on the asset through the RAB,
cessation of rental payments from AAI confers a double benefit
upon BIAL. This contention could not be allowed simply invent
another stream of revenue.
291. The record before us depicts in BIAL’s specific case that the
amounts earlier recovered from AAI were themselves treated in
the tariff computation as aeronautical revenue and were
therefore brought into account in determining the amount
recoverable from airport users. BIAL accordingly contends that
the benefit of those receipts already stood passed through in the
tariff exercise, whereas depreciation and return upon the
underlying asset arise over its regulatory useful life.
Page 184 of 546
292. AERA has not demonstrated in paragraph 3.9.25 that the same
capital cost has in fact been recovered twice. It merely assumes
duplication because the asset remains in RAB. If a regulator
apprehends double recovery, the answer is to trace the relevant
cost and revenue through the building blocks and identify the
duplication. It cannot cure an assumed duplication on the asset
side by manufacturing hypothetical income on the revenue side.
293. The matter is placed beyond doubt by the statutory language
considered by us while deciding Issue No. VI. Section 13(1)(a)(v)
permits AERA to take into consideration “revenue received
from services other than the aeronautical services.” A
capacity to charge rent is not revenue received. Nor does
continued inclusion of an asset in the RAB transform a non-
existent contractual receivable into revenue. For the reasons
already recorded under Issue No. VI, the distinction between
actual or legally accrued revenue and a hypothetical earning
capacity applies with equal force to the present issue.
294. The later decisions of this Tribunal concerning notional revenue
reinforce this conclusion. In GMR Goa International Airport
Limited v. AERA, AERA Appeal No. 1 of 2024, this Tribunal held
that Section 13(1)(a)(v) requires consideration of the revenue
Page 185 of 546
received and does not authorise AERA to prescribe a minimum
non-aeronautical revenue which the operator is assumed to have
earned. Likewise, in Mangaluru International Airport Limited v.
AERA, this Tribunal rejected substitution of a hypothetical
amount for revenue generated under an actual commercial
arrangement. The principle stated in GMR Hyderabad
International Airport Limited v. AERA that an actual figure cannot
casually be displaced by a notional estimate, though arising in
the context of capital expenditure, rests upon the same
regulatory discipline.
295. We therefore hold that AERA was not justified in imputing a
notional lease rental merely because the CNS/ATM facilities
continued to form part of the RAB. In relation to the original
facilities governed by the agreement dated 06.04.2005, AERA
was required to give effect to the actual contractual
arrangement and to the subsequent settlement between BIAL
and AAI which AERA itself records as having brought the rental
obligation to an end upon completion of cost recovery.
296. In view of the aforesaid facts and reasons and also
looking to CNS/ATM Agreement and Greenfield Airports
Policy, 2008, and provisions of AERA Act, 2008; AERA
Page 186 of 546
cannot consider a notional lease from AAI to the extent
of Rs.39.09 Crores in Second Control Period and Rs.80.13
rd
Crores in 3 Control Period. We, therefore, quash and set
aside this decision of AERA in the impugned order. We,
rd
hereby direct AERA to carry out necessary true-up for 3
th
Control Period in 4 Control Period tariff orders. Issue
No. VII is accordingly answered in favour of the
Appellant.
ISSUE VIII. Disallowance of additional transportation
cost to the tune of Rs.8.25 Crore incurred towards
Terminal - 2 Apron
297. By the virtue of the impugned order, AERA has excluded the
additional transportation cost of Rs.20.50 Crores, which
currently stand at Rs. 8.25 Crore towards construction of
Terminal-2 Apron phase-2 from RAB as stated in paragraph
5.5.17.
298. Terminal-2 apron construction works were planned to be
carried out using ECT. Terminal-2 apron is located on western
side of ECT with the batching plant and earth’s stock piles being
Page 187 of 546
located on the eastern side of ECT. Soil from the batching plant
and soil excavated during construction activities at Terminal-2
apron site had to be transported through the ECT.
299. It should have been noted by AERA that ECT was completed in
November, 2019, but, could not be used till September, 2020
because though BIAL applied for clearance from Bureau of Civil
Aviation Security (BCAS) the said authority gave its approval
for operationalization of ECT for movement of construction
men, material and vehicles for project construction activities at
Bengaluru airport on 04.09.2020 (Annexure A-24).
300. Thus, application was made on 12.02.2019 by the appellant for
usage of ECT, but, permission was given by BCAS on
04.09.2020, the appellant had to incur additional cost of
Rs.20.50 Crores, which was renegotiated for Rs. 8.25 Crore for
removal of the earth excavated through a longer route having
a distance of approximately 20 Kms.
301. Upon operationalisation of the new south parallel runway, the
Bureau of Civil Aviation Security, by its approval dated 5th
December 2019, imposed a condition that both ends of the
newly constructed tunnel be closed. It was this condition that
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rendered the tunnel unavailable for the movement of
construction material from that date.
302. Thus, for the period for which ECT was not allowed to be used
by BCAS through a circuitous route, the earth excavated was
to be removed through trucks which has resulted with an
additional cost of Rs.20.50 Crores, which BIAL renegotiated
and currently account for Rs. 8.25 Crore. This aspect of the
matter has not been properly appreciated by AERA while
passing the impugned order. In fact, this additional
expenditure incurred by AERA to the tune of Rs.8.25 Crores
towards Terminal-2 apron construction has to be included in
RAB.
303. The reasons given by AERA that there was a delay on part of
BIAL in receiving necessary approvals from BCAS. This
reasoning is incorrect and away from facts. BIAL can apply for
permission to use ECT, but, it is in the hands of BCAS to grant
the approval for operationalization of ECT. an Application was
preferred on 12.02.2019 by BIAL for usage of ECT. This
application was preferred to BCAS which had the expert
committee constituted from the members from:
Page 189 of 546
a. BCAS;
b. AAI;
c. DRDO;
d. SIB; and
e. BIAL.
304. An expert committee, comprising the members of government
departments named above, thereupon inspected the site and
the drawings of the tunnel and recommended that a standing
committee be constituted to examine the security aspects of
its operationalisation. That standing committee was constituted
on 7th January 2020, and the Appellant made a presentation
before it on 14th January 2020, citing, among other things,
protests by villagers along the alternative route, congestion on
the main approach road affecting passengers, adverse impact
upon the environmental targets set for the project, and a ban
imposed by the State Mining department upon the movement
of soil between the affected areas.
305. The standing committee recommended, on 14th January 2020,
that the tunnel be opened as an interim measure for one and
a half hours each day, when the runway was not operational
and subject to security checks by the Central Industrial Security
Force, and it was only thereafter, on 4th September 2020, that
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the Bureau of Civil Aviation Security granted approval for its
fuller operationalisation.
306. The unavailability of the tunnel between December 2019 and
September 2020 was accordingly the direct consequence of a
security condition imposed by a statutory aviation security
authority, followed by a structured and multi-agency review
process in which the Appellant participated but which it did not
control at any stage.
307. We must observe that AERA's finding, that the delay is
attributable to the Appellant, is in substance a finding about
the pace and adequacy of the process followed by the Bureau
of Civil Aviation Security, a statutory authority responsible for
aviation security and not a party to the proceedings before
AERA or before us. AERA possesses no jurisdiction to
adjudicate upon the reasonableness of the security clearance
process of that Bureau, and has, without any material capable
of supporting such a finding, attributed the consequences of
that process to the Appellant.
308. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of ‘ The Cheran
Transport Co Ltd v Kanan Lorry Services, 1977 1 SCC
604 has held that a party who has suffered a detriment on
Page 191 of 546
account of circumstances beyond its control is entitled to relief.
For ready reference paragraph 7 reads as under:
“7. (1) No permit or renewal, except to the extent
expressly saved by Section 68-F(1-D), can be granted
by the RTA during the period between the date of
publication of any scheme and the date of publication
of the approved scheme. (2) If a permit expires after
the publication of any draft scheme such permit is
eligible for renewal for a limited period as set out in
the proviso. This special provision cannot be
stretched, on the ground of possible anomalies or
unjust consequences, to cover permits expiring even
before the publication of the draft scheme. Where the
language is plain, interpretation cannot take the
shape of addition or interstitial legislation. (3) A rider
to Proposition 2 has to be added. If a permit holder
whose permit is about to expire, diligently does, in the
normal course, all that he need and all that he can,
that is to say, apply for renewal before 120 days, in
the manner laid down in Section 58 of the Act, he sets
in motion the legal machinery for the grant of renewal
which must ordinarily culminate in renewal within 120
days. The fact that a scheme is published before the
actual grant of renewal will not intercept or extinguish
the process of law set in motion by the application for
renewal. In such cases the RTA has to act
promptly and if the application for renewal is
in conformity with the law it has to consider it
and grant or reject according to merit. If, for
reasons beyond the control of the applicant,
the renewal process gets delayed or prolonged
he cannot be penalised. Renewal is a legal
process, not the final act. Save in this category of
cases, all other permits which have expired before the
Page 192 of 546
draft scheme is published, suffer the ban of Section
68-F(1-D). However, no permit can enure beyond the
time of the publication of the approved scheme. This
saves cases of bona fide applications for renewal of
permits, not calculated to thwart a scheme, and helps
the travelling public during the interregnum when the
scheme is under scrutiny. The wider proposition
accepted by the High Court that all permits which
have expired before the draft scheme is published can
be renewed does not appear to be correct and does
not have our approval.”
309. Applying these principles to the facts of the present case the
delay in the grant of security clearance by the Bureau of Civil
Aviation Security was a circumstance beyond the control of the
appellant. The appellant is therefore entitled to the
consequential costs including the additional transportation cost
incurred due to the non-availability of the Eastern Connectivity
Tunnel.
310. We are concerned by the flip flop and zig zag approach of
AERA, as it can be seen from the AERA’s treatment of the ECT
which we have noticed while dealing with Issue No. V. For the
purpose of denying capitalisation of Phase I, AERA proceeds
on the basis that the tunnel was not being fully utilised for its
originally conceived passenger access function.
Page 193 of 546
311. For the present issue, however, AERA proceeds on the footing
that the tunnel ought to have been available for construction
traffic at an earlier stage and places the financial consequence
of its non-availability upon BIAL. These two regulatory
positions are irreconcilable in law, the impugned order was
required to explain how BIAL could simultaneously be faulted
for not having the tunnel available for unrestricted construction
use while its actual use was itself subject to mandatory BCAS
security vetting.
312. It only trite to state that the statutory scheme does not proceed
upon a principle that airport users bear only those costs which
they themselves cause. They bear the efficient and prudent
cost of providing airport infrastructure and aeronautical
services and security compliance is an inseparable incident of
providing those services. A cost reasonably and necessarily
incurred because an airport operator was required to comply
with aviation security restrictions cannot be excluded simply by
saying that passengers were not at fault.
313. In view of these facts, the reasons given by AERA in paragraph
5.5.17 of the impugned order that there was a delay on the
part of BIAL in getting the necessary approvals from BCAS is
Page 194 of 546
not tenable at law. In fact, there is no delay on part of BIAL in
receiving the necessary approvals from BCAS for using ECT. In
fact, AERA has no power to find out fault with BCAS and,
therefore, has thrown the burden upon BIAL.
314. For the reasons stated herein above decision of AERA
in disallowing the additional transportation cost is
quashed and set aside. The Authority is directed to
allow the additional transportation cost actually
incurred by the appellant for the construction of the
Terminal 2 Apron due to the non-availability of the ECT.
The Authority shall consider the revised cost of Rs 8.25
crores as submitted by the appellant. The Authority
shall carry out the necessary true up in respect of the
additional transportation cost during the Fourth
Control Period. Issue No. VIII is accordingly answered
in favour of the Appellant.
ISSUE IX. Exclusion of KIA West Metro Station from RAB
rd
of 3 Control Period
315. By the impugned order dated 28.08.2021, under paragraph
5.5.28, AERA has decided that capital expenditure incurred on
Page 195 of 546
the KIA West Metro Station would not be considered in the
Regulatory Asset Base for the Third Control Period and the
aforesaid paragraph reads as under :
“5.5.28 The Authority noted BIAL's comment for
consideration of the City Side Metro Station (KIA
West Metro Station) in the RAB. The Authority is of
the view that the city side metro station is
constructed by BIAL for its employees and the users
of commercial services and does not serve the airport
passengers. Hence, the airport operator cannot
charge the passengers/airlines for the facility which
is not used by them. Therefore, the Authority decides
to exclude the capital expenditure of city side metro
station from the RAB of BIAL. ”
316. For ready reference, and to make the spatial relationship between
the two stations, it may be recorded that the airport premises, as
they stand, contain two metro stations, one being the Airport
Terminal Station, situated within the terminal complex itself and
serving embarking and disembarking passengers directly, and the
other being the KIA West Metro Station, situated at the western
periphery of the airport, in proximity to the office buildings, utility
centres, cargo terminal, ground handling facilities and other
support installations located on that side of the airport. A detailed
Map of KIAB has been submitted to us by the Appellant and forms
part of the record of the Appeal, however due to sensitive nature
Page 196 of 546
of the information in the map, we have decided not to reproduce
the same.
317. Nevertheless, it is worth nothing that AERA has allowed the
capital expenditure for the Airport Terminal Metro Station to be
included in the Regulatory Asset Base, whereas the capital
expenditure incurred for the KIA West Metro Station has not been
allowed inclusion, mainly on the ground that it is utilised by the
employees of the Appellant and by users of commercial services
and does not serve airport passengers. This reasoning is arbitrary
in nature and runs counter to the provisions of the AERA Act.
318. At this juncture it would be prudent to allude to certain definition
as contained in the AERA Act, 2008, wherein Sections 2(c), 2(n)
and 2(o) of the AERA Act define airport user, service provider and
stake holder respectively, and read as under:
“ 2(c) airport user means any person availing of
passenger or cargo facilities at an airport;”
2(n) service provider means any person who provides
aeronautical services and is eligible to levy and
charge user development fees from the embarking
passengers at any airport and includes the authority
which manages the airport;”
2(o) stakeholder includes a licensee of an airport,
airlines operating thereat, a person who provides
aeronautical services, and any association of
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individuals, which in the opinion of the Authority,
represents the passenger or cargo facility users; ”
319. In view of the aforesaid definitions, in our view the KIA West
Metro Station is used by airport users, and it ought to be kept in
mind that the expression airport user does not mean exclusively
passengers travelling by air. Even a person availing cargo
facilities at the airport, though not himself a passenger, falls
within the definition, and the capital expenditure incurred by the
Appellant for the KIA West Metro Station ought accordingly to
have been included in the Regulatory Asset Base to that extent.
320. Similarly, looking to the definitions of service provider under
Section 2(n) and stake holder under Section 2(o), stake holders
include cargo facility users . This aspect of the matter has not
been appreciated by AERA, and the reasoning given in paragraph
5.5.28 of the impugned order runs counter to the provisions of
the AERA Act.
321. The decision of AERA is also in violation of Section 13(1)(a)(ii),
Section 13(1)(a)(iii) and Section 13(1)(a)(iv) of the AERA Act,
because the Appellant has built two metro stations inside the
airport to ensure decongestion of traffic, by ensuring that while
passengers alight at the Airport Terminal Station, other airport
Page 198 of 546
users, including those connected with cargo facilities, alight at
the KIA West Metro Station. The presence of two stations
increases the quality and efficiency of the airport's operations and
ensures smooth and decongested movement for passengers.
322. Looking to Annexure A10, being the Appellant's response to the
consultation paper, at page 1855-56 of the memo of this appeal,
the Appellant has pointed out the major users and beneficiaries
of the KIA West Metro Station as under:
“ Major Users or Beneficiary of West Metro Station at
KIAB
The total airport wide employees working at KIAB
(including BIAL and Concessionaires) are
approximately 22,000 in year 2019.
There will be a substantial requirement for skilled,
semi-skilled personnel to helm the growth at KIAB.
Hence, a potential increase is expected in aviation
related employment at the airport and
approximately 117000 employees are expected by
the end of the final / ultimate development phase
of BIAL i.e. by FY 33-35.
The forecast details are shown in the table below.
Total Users
(including both
Total
Cargo
personn
Forecast
BIAL and
Concessionaires
Total
el
)
Page 199 of 546
FY 24-
26500 30000 56500
25
FY 29-30 41000 46000 87000
FY 33-35 61000 56000 117000
• Out of these employees, 50% of them are working
in and around terminal forecourt area and the
remaining 50% are working with:
Cargo Terminal Operators
Cargo Warehouses
Ground Handling Agencies
IOCL Fuel Farm
LSG and Taj Stats Catering
CISF and Other Government Agencies
Retailers and Other Concessionaires at the
Airport
BIAL and Airlines staff on landside and airside
BIAL staff working at Utility Centers and other
airport support facilities ”
323. In view of the aforesaid figures, approximately twenty two
thousand employees, including those of the Appellant and its
concessionaires, were working at the airport in the year 2019,
and the projected number of employees for the years 2033 to
2035 is approximately one lakh seventeen thousand. For a
workforce of this magnitude, two metro stations were envisaged
in advance, and upon the approval of the appropriate
construction committee, the KIA West Metro Station came to be
constructed. Its capital expenditure must accordingly be added
to the Regulatory Asset Base.
Page 200 of 546
324. Moreover, looking to page 1856 of Annexure A10 to the memo of
this appeal, being the Appellant's response to the consultation
paper, a year wise forecast of airport users has been set out
herein above.
325. In view of the aforesaid probable users of the appellant airport
by no stretch of imagination it can be concluded by AERA that
KIA West Metro Station is not being used by “Airport Users”. It
has not been appreciated by AERA that if no stretch of
imagination would not have been planned, it would increase the
traffic movement in and around the terminal forecourt area
creating congestion on landside roads due to provision of shuttle
service to commute from Terminal metro station to the areas
located on west and vice versa. Moreover, additional
infrastructure would be required to meet the increased ridership
to the terminal metro station which will further increase the
terminal metro station capex, apart from causing congestion.
326. Furthermore, AERA's reason for the impugned decision, that the
KIA West Metro Station is used only by employees of the
Appellant and by non aeronautical users, that is, commercial,
concessionaires, is incorrect, because the station will be used by
airport users as defined in Section 2(c) of the AERA Act, including
Page 201 of 546
the Central Industrial Security Force, customs and other
government agencies, staff of the Appellant and of the airlines on
the landside and the airside, staff of the Appellant working at
utility centres and other airport support facilities, retailers and
other concessionaires at the airport, catering agencies, and
ground handling, fuel facility and cargo facility users.
327. It would be worth noting that the West Station was not conceived
merely as a private amenity for BIAL’s employees. The proposal
formed part of the airport metro alignment prepared by BMRCL
and approved by the Government of Karnataka. The Government
proceedings dated 19.12.2017 expressly identify West KIA
Station and the Kempegowda International Airport Terminal
Station as part of the approved alignment.
328. The State’s letter dated 13.12.2017 to AERA further recorded that
two stations were proposed within KIA, that BMRCL expected
BIAL to provide financial support of approximately Rs.1,000 crore
towards airport metro connectivity, and that a user fee
comparable to that considered for metro connectivity at Mumbai
and Delhi be examined.
329. AERA’s own response dated 05.02.2018 stated that where KIA
funded the portion of the metro line within the airport premises,
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such asset could be considered as a Regulatory Asset for
determination of aeronautical tariff upon commissioning, subject
to ownership, capitalisation and the asset being put to use. For
ready reference AERA’s response dated 05.02.2018 is reproduced
below:
“S. MACHENDRANATHAN
Chairman
Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India
AERA Building, Administrative Complex
Safdarjung Airport, New Delhi-110003
Tel.: 011-24695043, Fax: 011-24695040
E-mail: [email protected]
D.O. No. AERA/20010/MYTP/BIAL/CP-II/2016-
17/Vol.II
5th February, 2018
Dear Shri Sandeep Dave,
1. I am happy to learn that the Government of
Karnataka has proposed to construct a metro line
from Nagwara to Kempegowda International
Airport (KIA) at a cost of Rs. 5950 crores. This
will lead to enhanced connectivity to the Airport
and greater passenger convenience and
satisfaction. It has also been informed by you
that the Karnataka Government expects the
Kempegowda International Airport (KIA) to
contribute Rs. 1,000 crores towards the cost of
metro line on non-refundable basis. For this
purpose, it has also been suggested that a User
Fee be levied on the passengers for the same.
Page 203 of 546
2. In this regard I wish to bring to your notice that
the AERA Act empowers AERA to determine
Development Fee (DF) as provided in the Airport
Authority of India Act, 1994 and DF is applicable
only to AAI airports. In the case of Delhi and
Bombay airports, the orders for levying of DF
were issued by Ministry of Civil Aviation under
Section 22A of Airports Authority of India Act as
these are AAI airports, under lease to the Joint
Ventures i.e., DIAL & MIAL. KIA, being a private
greenfield airport, the AAI Act cannot be applied
to it. Therefore, levying DF may not be legally
possible.
3. However, in case the KIA funds that
portion of the metro line within the airport
premises, the same can be considered as a
Regulatory Asset of KIA for determination
of aeronautical tariff of KIA on
commissioning of the asset. The assets
related to the metro line can be considered
as Regulated assets only if these assets
belong to KIA and a fair rate of return shall
be paid on the capital amount incurred by
KIA to create such assets, once the assets
are capitalised and put to use .
4. Hence, in this situation, it may not be possible
for the Authority to approve any special levy
upfront to fund the construction of the proposed
metro line.
With regards,
Yours sincerely,
(Sd/-)
(S. Machendranathan)
Dr. Dr. Sandeep Dave, I.A.S. Addl. Chief Secretary
to Government Infrastructure Development
Department Room No. 28, Ground Floor,Vikas
Soudha, Bengaluru-56001. ”
Page 204 of 546
330. As it can be seen from paragraph 3 of the communication, that it
does not confine this statement to the Terminal Station alone. It
speaks in terms of the portion of the metro line within the airport
premises. However, AERA, while dealing with this issue in
Paragraph 5.5.28 of the impugned order does not advert to or
explain any cogent reason for departure from that earlier
regulatory position.
331. We accordingly hold that paragraph 5.5.28 of the impugned
order, insofar as it directs the categorical exclusion of KIA West
Metro Station from RAB merely because it was expected to be
used principally by BIAL employees and users of commercial
services rather than airline passengers, cannot be sustained.
332. For the reasons recorded in the body of this judgment and in the
supplemental reasoning above, we quash and set aside the
decision of AERA, contained in paragraph 5.5.28 of the
impugned order, excluding the capital expenditure of the
KIA West Metro Station from the Regulatory Asset Base.
We direct AERA to include the capital expenditure
incurred by the Appellant for the KIA West Metro Station
as a part of the Regulatory Asset Base as on 1st April
2021, and to give effect to this direction in the
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determination of tariff for the Fourth Control Period,
subject to verification of the actual cost incurred against
the Appellant's audited and certified books of account.
Issue No. IX is accordingly answered in favour of the
Appellant.
ISSUE X: Disallowance of CapEx to be incurred for metro
enabling works to be capitalized as a part of Multi Model
Transportation Hub (MMTH).
333. It ought to be kept in mind by AERA that metro enabling works
are an integral part of MMTH structure and not the metro as it is
effectively one side of the wall of the MMTH. Without the
completion of enabling work, MMTH cannot be completed and
capitalised. Moreover, the enabling works are enclosed and
protected, within the MMTH to enable the construction of the
Terminal Metro Station – while isolating this construction work
from the operating Terminal 2 and related passenger moments.
334. The metro enabling works relates to construction of retaining wall
on either side of metro station and columns to support various
levels of the Terminal Metro Station, relocation of existing drains
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and utilities, earth work, etc., on the route taken by while
entering the MMTH.
335. Metro enabling works have already been capitalised in FY2023
which is during the 3CP hence in our opinion, the capex incurred
by the AO for metro enabling works which is already capitalised
as a part of MMTH should have been included in RAB for 3CP.
336. AERA ought to have understood that as per Sec 13(1)(a)(i) of
the AERA Act, 2008 while determining the tariff, capex incurred
towards metro enabling works must be considered by AERA.
337. “ Metro Commissioning " and “ Metro Enabling Works ” are
different, AERA has linked both these aspects and therefore has
erroneously disallowed the capex for capitalised “ Metro
Enabling Works ” as part of RAB. Once the scope works plan
for MMTH was allowed in TCP, “metro enabling works” which is
a part thereof ought to have been considered as a part of RAB.
The outcome of “metro enabling works” was to make MMTH
operational and not the metro station.
338. This Tribunal, in GMR Hyderabad International Airport
Limited v. Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of
Page 207 of 546
India, AERA Appeal No. 4 of 2021, judgment dated 14.02.2024,
has held under paragraphs 384 and 385 as follows:
“384. This decision of AERA is far away from the facts that
the actual construction is 2,58,089 sq. mtrs. AUCC
document is nothing but merely a statement of intent
instead of the actual final design of the expansion in
question. AERA ought to appreciate that it is within the
power, jurisdiction and authority of airport operator to
propose the need and nature of construction and the
same has to be approved by the committee which is a
multimember committee including the members of
Government and other experts.
385. Once, this committee is approving the need, nature,
and expenditures of construction that perhaps there is
little or practically no scope of interference by AERA
and that too with the help of some consultant’s report
under the guise of “efficient cost”. If this type of
interference by AERA is permitted by this Tribunal,
then it tantamount to sitting in appeal against the
decision of the committee which is a multimember
committee .”
339. From AERA's own consultation paper, which reproduced within
the impugned order and recorded in paragraph 5.2.29, and Table
78 accompanying it, which discloses that Phase I of the hub,
proposed to be commissioned in the financial year 2022,
comprises several distinct components, bifurcated floor by floor
into aeronautical, non-aeronautical and common categories. Of
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these, the baggage sorting area, located at Basement 3, is
classified by AERA itself as aeronautical.
340. This classification is tied to the function the space performs,
namely the sorting of passenger baggage, a function that has
nothing to do with whether or when the metro station above or
beside it begins to operate. However, Paragraph 5.5.15 of the
impugned order nonetheless excludes the metro enabling works
and the baggage sorting area together, as a single bundled item,
deferring both to the year of metro commissioning upon the sole
footing that neither will be put to use until that event occurs.
341. We ought to remind ourselves that the governing regulatory
framework reinforces this distinction. Clause 5.2.6 of the 2011
Guidelines describes Commissioned Assets as investments
“brought into use during Tariff Year t” , while Clause 5.2.7
treats Commissioned Assets as the accumulated value
attributable to assets which have been “put into effective
operation during Tariff Year t.”
342. Therefore, the test is thus directed to the condition and
operational status of the asset whose capitalisation is under
consideration. It does not permit the commissioning of one asset
to be indefinitely postponed merely because another future
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facility with which it is associated has not yet commenced
operations.
343. The general principle is the one already applied by us under Issue
No. V above, in connection with the Eastern Connectivity Tunnel,
namely that the test for inclusion of an asset in the Regulatory
Asset Base, fixed by Clause 5.2.7(a) of the Tariff Guidelines of
2011, is whether the asset has been put into effective operation,
and not whether it continues to serve the particular purpose
originally envisaged for it.
344. As per AERA's own order records that the metro enabling works
were undertaken by the Appellant in the financial year 2022 and
were capitalised as part of the hub. If the hub itself, or a floor or
component of it, has in fact been brought into effective
operation, whether for baggage sorting, for bus or taxi
movement, or for the passenger circulation Table 78 itself
records at Level 1, the components physically necessary to that
operation, including the enabling works that support the
structure housing them, cannot be excluded merely because one
further component of the same structure, the metro station itself,
remains to commission.
Page 210 of 546
345. In the peculiar facts of the present case, it would not be wise to
postpone necessary structural works until the future
commissioning of the Metro Station would have produced the
very inefficiency which Section 13 requires the Authority to guard
against. Undertaking retaining walls, supporting columns, utility
relocation and excavation after completion and operation of the
MMTH would require reopening completed infrastructure and
carrying out substantial construction activity within an
operational passenger environment. In our opinion, AERA was
required to examine that engineering reality and economic cost
of the same, while undertaking tariff determination exercise and
perusal of Paragraph 5.5.15, it is evident that AERA did not do
so.
346. In view of these facts, the decision of AERA is in violation of
provisions of AERA Act and AERA has failed to consider that
completion of “metro enabling works” was an economically
prudent decision because if such work is undertaken after the
completion of MMTH, its cost will be too high and there will be
lot of inconvenience to the airport users. These aspects have not
been appreciated by AERA hence we quash and set aside the
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decision of AERA in Clause 5.5.15 of the impugned tariff order
(Annexure A-1).
347. For the reasons recorded in the body of this judgment and in the
supplemental reasoning above, we quash and set aside the
decision of AERA, contained in paragraph 5.5.15 of the
impugned order, deferring the capitalisation of the metro
enabling works and the baggage sorting area to the year
of metro commissioning. We direct AERA to include the
baggage sorting area, and the metro enabling works to
the extent they are shown, upon verification, to have
been put into effective operation as part of the hub
independently of the commissioning of the metro line, as
a part of the Regulatory Asset Base for the Third Control
Period, with the necessary true up in the determination
of tariff for the Fourth Control Period. Issue No. X is
accordingly answered in favour of the Appellant .
ISSUE XI: Notional lease rentals on commercial land
development
348. Looking to the facts of the case and especially the Impugned
order under Paragraph No. 8.5.8, AERA has deiced to factor in
notional income from real estate development for cross-
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subsidization in future tariff orders. For ready reference para
8.5.8 of the impugned order (Annexure A-1) as under:
“ 8.5.8 The land lease agreement of BIAL and the state support
agreement provide that the land provided (at
concessional rates) by the State government to BIAL for
development and commercial viability of the airport for
benefit of the public in general. However, by not
developing the real estate and bringing more non-
aeronautical revenues for cross-subsidization, BIAL is
not fulfilling that mandate. The Authority would urge
the State Government of Karnataka to direct BIAL to
take action in this regard. The Authority may decide to
take notional income from real estate development for
cross-subsidization in future tariff orders if no efforts
are made in this regard. ”
349. Under the provisions of AERA Act, especially Section 13(1)(a)(v)
of the AERA Act, AERA can consider the revenue received and
not the notional revenue , the language of the section is plain
and clear. The language of this section is unequivocal and
unambiguous. We are of the firm view that words cannot be
added in the statute by AERA. The Hon’ble Supreme Cour in the
case of Union of India v. Pfizer Ltd., (2018) 2 SCC 39 , under
Paragraph 26, has observed as follows:
“ 26. Also, as a matter of statutory interpretation,
words can only be added if the literal
interpretation of the section leads to an absurd
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result . As has been stated by us, the construction of
Section 26-A on a literal reading thereof does not lead
to any such result. Dr Singhvi's argument to read in
words to save Section 26-A must, therefore, be
rejected. ”
350. The principle governing the construction of Section 13(1)(a)(v)
is does not require elaborate restatement. In Gurudevdatta
VKSSS Maryadit v State of Maharashtra , Supra, the Hon’ble
Supreme Court affirmed that the words of a statute must be
understood in their natural, ordinary or popular sense and
construed according to their grammatical meaning, unless such
construction leads to absurdity or unless the context or the object
of the statute suggests to the contrary.
351. It is the golden rule of statutory construction that the words of a
statute must prima facie be given their ordinary meaning. When
the words are clear, plain and unambiguous, the court is bound
to give effect to that meaning irrespective of the consequences.
It is not open to the court to brush aside words as surplusage if
they can have a proper application.
352. This principle was reiterated by Hon’ble Supreme Court in
Nasiruddin v Sita Ram Agarwal , supra, where it was held that
the court cannot enlarge the scope of legislation when the
language is plain. It cannot add or subtract words. It cannot read
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into the statute something which is not there. The real intention
of the legislature must be gathered from the language used, and
there is a presumption that the legislature has not employed
superfluous words.
353. We are of the opinion that upon application of above principles,
the conclusion is inescapable as Section 13(1)(a)(v) of the AERA
Act 2008 speaks of revenue received from services other
than aeronautical services . The word ‘received’ is not
surplusage and it is certainly not a stray expression. In fact it is
of vital importance as it fixes the character of the revenue that
the Authority may take into account. The legislature has
deliberately employed the past participle of the verb to
receive .
354. It is worth noting had the legislature intended that the Authority
may take into account revenue that ought to have been received,
or revenue that could have been received, it would have said so
and as per the prevailing statutory language it has not.
355. Therefore, the words are plain and they are unambiguous. They
admit of no other construction. To read into the section a power
to impute notional revenue would be to add words to the statute.
It would be to change the texture of the fabric. The Authority has
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therefore acted beyond its jurisdiction in directing that it may
take notional income from real estate development for cross
subsidization. The direction is contrary to the plain language of
Section 13(1)(a)(v) and cannot be sustained.
356. It ought to be noted that BIAL is a greenfield airport. Plain barren
land was given to the Airport Operator. Rome was not built in
a day . Development takes time and therefore, it cannot be said
that notional rent for the open rent can be considered as revenue
received under the AERA Act, 2008.
357. The fanciful idea of AERA as pointed out in para 8.5.8 of the
impugned order was never mentioned in the Consultation Paper
published by AERA (Annexure A-9) therefore, in absence of any
proposal in the Consultation Paper, no opportunity was given to
the appellant to point out that why notional rent cannot be the
part of revenue received. Thus, there is a violation of principles
of natural justice. The authority has failed to maintain
transparency as envisaged by Section 13(4) of the AERA Act.
358. The land to be developed for commercial purposes is a non-
airport activity. AERA has no power, jurisdiction and authority to
decide about how non- airport activities should be carried out.
Commercial land development is absolutely a non-airport activity
Page 216 of 546
and, therefore, AERA has no jurisdiction to reckon revenues from
commercial land development activities and, therefore, also the
observations of AERA in paragraph 8.5.8 of the impugned order
deserves to be quashed and set aside.
359. In fact, AERA does not have jurisdiction to direct Airport Operator
to undertake non-airport activities. Neither the Concession
Agreement (Annexures A-3 & A-4) nor the Land Lease Deed
(LLD) confers any power to AERA with respect to non-airport
activity. Similarly, neither under Concession Agreement nor
under LLD AERA can consider how and to what extent BIAL
should develop non-aero activities.
360. Looking to Annexure R-23 which is a State Support Agreement
between State of Karnataka and BIAL dated 20.01.2005, SSA
does not mandate that BIAL necessarily has to develop the land
within a particular stipulated time therefore, any such
interpretation by AERA will be in violation of SSA (Annexure R-
23).
361. It has also been contended by the Appellant that the Consultation
Paper contained no proposal to apply notional rent to
undeveloped commercial land or it contained any proposal to
write to the State Government. It was urged to us that Section
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13(4) of the AERA Act requires the Authority to hold due
consultations with all stakeholders, to allow all stakeholders to
make their submissions, and to make all its decisions fully
documented and explained.
362. We tend to agree with the argument of appellant that a direction
born after the consultation process has ended is not a
documented and explained decision and indeed it is a surprise
sprung upon the appellant as the appellant had no opportunity
to meet it. Which resulted into a scenario that the appellant had
no opportunity to place before the Authority the commercial
realities of land development, the time required for obtaining
statutory approvals, the market conditions, or the terms on which
the land had been leased.
363. The Land Lease Deed and the industrial policy under which the
land was given are not a concessional gift that carries a duty,
enforceable by the Authority, to build malls on a timetable that
the Authority prefers. The appellant has placed on record its
calculation of the lease payable to the State over the first sixty
years. That calculation shows a liability of Rs 3503.55 crores.
364. From perusal of Paragraph 8.5.8 of the impugned order it is
evident that it does not answer this calculation and in fact it does
Page 218 of 546
not even mention it. The Authority has proceeded on the
assumption that the land was given at a concessional rate,
despite the fact that such assumption is factually contested. The
Authority has not examined the terms of the lease or the terms
of the industrial policy. The Authority has not examined the
payment obligations of the appellant. The finding that the land
was given at a concessional rate is therefore without any
evidentiary basis.
365. The direction contained in paragraph 8.5.8 is in terrorem. It
threatens the appellant with a notional income entry in future
tariff orders if the appellant does not develop the land. The threat
is coercive. It is intended to compel the appellant to act in a
particular manner. The Authority has no power to issue such a
direction. The Authority's function is to determine tariff on the
basis of actual revenues and actual costs. It is not to threaten
the appellant with notional entries in order to achieve a
regulatory objective that the Authority has set for itself. The
direction is beyond the jurisdiction of the Authority and is liable
to be set aside.
366. In view of the aforesaid facts and reasons and provisions of AERA
Act, we hereby quash and set aside the observations in
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paragraph 8.5.8 in impugned order passed by AERA and
we hereby hold that notional lease rentals on commercial
land development cannot be considered by AERA . It is
beyond the power, jurisdiction and authority of AERA to consider
notional rent; what is permitted under AERA Act, 2008 is
“ revenue received ”, as per Section 13(1)(a)(v) of the AERA
Act.
367. We hold that AERA has no power under Section
13(1)(a)(v) of the AERA Act to impute notional income
from commercial land development, whether presently
or in any future tariff order, in the absence of revenue
actually received, and that the direction to the State
Government of Karnataka, and the intimation of a future
notional imputation, recorded in that paragraph, are
accordingly without jurisdiction and are set aside. Issue
No. XI is accordingly answered in favour of the Appellant .
ISSUE XII: Cap on cost of debt and fixing the same at
7.85% throughout as interest rate
368. By the impugned tariff order dated 28.08.2021, AERA has, in
paragraph 6.6.3, considered 7.85% as the Cost of Debt for the
entire Third Control Period commencing from 01.04.2021 and
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ending on 31.03.2026. Paragraph 6.6.4 further provides that the
Cost of Debt shall be trued up on actuals subject to its
reasonableness and efficiency. Thus, 7.85% has been adopted as
the Cost of Debt for purposes of determining the tariff during the
Control Period, while the final adjustment has been reserved for
true up.
369. Whereas it is contended by the counsel for appellant that AERA
should consider rate of interest at actuals. Looking to the
provisions of Section 13 (1) (a) (i) of AERA Act, 2008, AERA has
to consider “ capex incurred ”, meaning thereby to AERA should
have considered the actual rate of interest on debt. AERA has no
power, jurisdiction and authority to put a cap upon the Cost of
Debt.
370. AERA has failed to appreciate that 7.85% per annum interest rate
was a floating rate with an annual reset clause linked with MCLR
levels prevailing at the time of reset and therefore fixing the rate
of interest or putting a cap of Cost of Debt at the rate of 7.85%
for 5 years is not only in violation of provisions of AERA Act but
would also impede viability of the operations at the airport. BIAL
has taken a loan of Rs.10,206 crores and the financial impact of
1% change in the interest rate would be approximately Rs.100
Page 221 of 546
crores. The current Cost of Debt as claimed by BIAL is 8.88%
which is substantially more than 7.85% which is considered for
rd
3 Control Period and, therefore, the overall impact due to
variation of 1% will tantamount to Rs.100 crores for every year
rd
of 3 Control Period.
371. Upon examination of Paragraph 6.6.3, it takes the rate prevailing
on the day of the tariff order to be applicable for five years. It
ought to be understood that the loans are not fixed rate loans
and as they are floating loans they reset with the marginal cost
of funds based lending rate.
372. The appellant placed before us at Page No. 1882 of Volume IX
which is at Annexure A-10, the average of historic rates of the
State Bank of India and Axis Bank, which works out to about 8.8
to 8.9 percent. The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and
Development forecast placed at page 1883 pointed to a rise in
Indian long term rates from the first quarter of 2022. For ready
reference the same reads as under:
“ In the second control period, SBI 1-year MCLR has
ranged between 7%-9.20%. In the first six months
of calendar year 2020, it has fallen from 7.90% to
7%. In a rising interest rate scenario also, we may
see such rapid rate increases as well. It may be noted
that the transmission of interest rate reduction by
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private sector banks has not been to the same extent
as SB! or other public sector banks. BIAL also has a
private sector bank (Axis Bank) in its fold and the
MCLR of this bank will also be a determinant of
interest rate on BIAL's expansion loan.
BIAL's loan for Expansion is based on SBI 1-year
MCLR with a spread of 50 basis points or Axis Bank
1-year MCLR with a spread of 30 basis points,
whichever may be higher, subject to the effective
lending rate of any lender not being less than the
MCLR of that lender.
Historical MCLR Rates movement for SBI & Axis Bank is
given below.
Average 1-year FY 17 FY 18 FY 19 FY20 FY 21
MCLR %
Axis Bank 8.28 8.69 8.42 7.57
9.01
SB! 8.81 8.00 8.39 8.14
7.05
Average 1-year
For 4 years
MCLR %
(excluding Covid
yearofFY21)
8.60
Axis Bank
SBI 8.33
Adding the spreads as described above, the interest
rates work out to 8.8-8.9% and hence the Authority
has to take cognizance of this trend and not consider
the rock bottom interest rates that is currently
applicable for BIAL.
..
..
The long-term interest rate forecast by the
Organisation for Economic Co-operation and
Development (OECD) indicates interest rates in India
Page 223 of 546
going up from Ql 2022, with an increase of 50 bps
during the year.
373. We again place reliance upon Section 13(1)(a)(i) of the AERA
Act requires AERA, while determining tariff, to take into
consideration the capital expenditure incurred and timely
investment in improvement of airport facilities. At the same time,
clauses (iii) and (iv) require consideration of the cost of improving
efficiency and the economic and viable operation of major
airports. These provisions ought to be read together.
374. In our considered view, the statute neither permits an inefficient
borrowing to be passed through merely because it has actually
been incurred, nor does it permit an efficiently incurred financing
cost to be displaced by an artificial ceiling unrelated to the
contractual and market conditions governing the borrowing.
375. This Tribunal has already considered the same question in
Mumbai International Airport Limited v. Airports
Economic Regulatory Authority of India , AERA Appeal No.
2 of 2021 along with AERA Appeal No. 9 of 2016, decided
on 06.10.2023 , wherein under paragraphs no. 313 and 321,
this tribunal held as follows:
Page 224 of 546
“313. This contention of respondent no.1 is not accepted
by this Tribunal mainly for the reason that there
cannot be a fixed cost of debt for the entire 3rd
Control Period of five years which is from 2019-2024.
The cost of debt which is actually incurred by the
appellant should have been considered by AERA. The
cost of debt depends upon marginal cost of funds-
based lending rate and the time period within which
the loan is to be repaid. Inflation is one of the most
important factor for determination of market forces
for further determination of MCLR rates. Moreover,
the spread for the time within which loan is to be
repaid depends upon the credit profile of the entity.
321. In view of the aforesaid provision, AERA ought
to have allowed actual cost of debt incurred by
the appellant especially looking to the fact that
debt availed by this appellant is from reputed
lenders. Putting a cap upon cost of debt is
uncalled for,as AERA has in fact, allowed
actual interest rate for First Control Period and
Second Control Period and therefore the same
methodology should be applied for Third
Control Period as well. We therefore direct
AERA to consider actual cost of debt and
necessary true up shall be done accordingly.”
376. The same principle was thereafter reiterated by this Tribunal in
Hyderabad International Airport Limited v. Airports
Economic Regulatory Authority of India, AERA Appeal No.
4 of 2021 , decided on 14.02.2024, under paragraphs 462 to
463, which reads as under:
Page 225 of 546
“ 462. In view of the aforesaid facts, it appears that the
actual interest expenditure incurred by HIAL for the
FY 2018 is 9.28% and AERA has reduced the same
at 7.94%. This is not permissible mainly for the
reason that while passing the tariff order for the 2nd
Control Period, it has already been decided by AERA
as per paragraph number 4.3.6 of the impugned
order that tentatively the Cost of Debt has been
considered at 7.90% but the true up shall be given in
3rd Control Period based on actual interest
expenditure incurred by HIAL.
463. HIAL has already pointed out in its MYTP that during
FY 2018, this appellant has incurred actual interest
expenditure at 9.28% and hence, this aspect of the
matter has not been appreciated by AERA and hence,
the Impugned decision of AERA of not to give
correction in Cost of Debt is hereby quashed and set
aside. ”
377. Further this Tribunal in the case of Goa International Airport
Limited v. Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of
India, AERA Appeal No. 1 of 2024 , judgment dated
11.09.2025, under Paragraph No. 122 & 134 held as follows:
“ 122. As per Clause 5.1.4 (b) of the AERA Tariff Guidelines,
it requires AERA to forecast future CoD considering
the floating Rate of Interest. For ready reference,
Clause 5.1.4 (b) of the AERA Tariff Guidelines, 2011
reads as under:
“5.1.4. Cost of Debt… (b) The Authority shall
consider the forecast for future cost of: (i)
debt proposed to be raised during the
Page 226 of 546
Control Period; or (ii) such debt which may
be subject to a floating rate of interest
subject to the Authority being assured of the
reasonableness of such costs, based on a
review including of its source(s),
procedure(s) and method(s) to be used for
raising such debt(s)…”
…
…
134. The Section 13(1)(a)(iv) obliges the regulator to
secure the “economic and viable operation of major
airports.” A CoD below actual market incidence
achieved by transplanting a parent’s credit or by
cherry-picked comparators does not serve viability; it
suppresses legitimate financing costs, strains debt
covenants, and can destabilise the regulated
enterprise, particularly in the ramp-up years of a
greenfield asset. That outcome is antithetical to the
statutory object. ”
378. From above it can be seen that Clause 5.1.4(b) of the Airport
Guidelines, 2011, which requires AERA, when forecasting cost of
debt, to consider a floating rate of interest on debt that is subject
to reset, subject only to assurance of reasonableness upon a
review of source, procedure and method.
379. For the reasons stated herein above the decision of the
Authority in paragraph 6.6.3 of the impugned order fixing
the cost of debt at 7.85 percent for the entire Third
Page 227 of 546
Control Period is quashed and set aside and directions
contained in Paragraph 6.6.4 shall be applied
accordingly . Consequently, an actual Cost of Debt cannot be
reduced merely because it exceeds 7.85%.
380. At the stage of true up, AERA shall ascertain the actual
weighted average Cost of Debt incurred by BIAL during
the relevant years of the Third Control Period on the basis
of the financing agreements, actual debt drawls,
applicable benchmark rates and resets, interest
payments and other admissible financing components.
The exercise shall be confined to debt properly
attributable under the applicable regulatory framework.
Issue No. XII is accordingly answered in favour of the
Appellant .
ISSUE XIII: Non-recognition of COVID relief measures
given to the airlines in True Up in SCP
381. Looking to the impugned order, especially paragraph 3.10.11, the
Authority has not allowed the aeronautical tariff discounts given
by the appellant in the financial year 2021 to be considered as
aeronautical revenue for the true up of aeronautical revenues of
Page 228 of 546
the Second Control Period. For ready reference Paragraph
3.10.11 reads as under:
“3.10.11 The Authority noted comments of BIAL and lATA and
the response by BIAL to IATA's comment on the
aeronautical tariff discounts of INR 4.61 cr. given by
the BIAL to the airlines in FY21. The Authority noted
BIAL's submission that it has offered these discounts
on account of the requests to extend support from
airlines and MoCA in the wake of the COVID-19 crisis.
The Authority appreciates the efforts taken by BIAL
to support the aviation ecosystem by offering tariff
discounts to the other stakeholders in the COVID-19
crisis. However, BIAL is asking for reimbursement of
such support. If the Authority allows such
reimbursement of these discounts, then such
reimbursement could no more be termed as discounts
but such amount would have to be termed as
deferred payment by the users to whom the discounts
were given. If the intention of BIAL at the time of
giving discounts to the users was to consider it as
passthrough then it should have entered into an
agreement with the users to repay it at a later date.
However, in the absence of such agreement. the
Authority cannot permit BIAL to charge its users to
repay its ' discounts' . Therefore, the Authority
decides to consider the aeronautical tariff discounts
given by BIAL in FY21 as aeronautical revenues for
the true-up of the aeronautical revenues of the
Second Control Period.”
382. AERA should have appreciated the fact that it was UOI through
MoCA sought for waiver of landing charges by the Airport
Operator in the wake of COVID 19. This request was made by
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MoCA vide their communication dated 15.09.2020 (A-32).
Similarly, the airlines operating committee had also requested
BIAL and sought for similar relief from BIAL vide their
communication dated 10.06.2020 (Annexure A-33).
383. As the cumulative effect of the aforesaid communications of the
Ministry of Civil Aviation and the Airlines Operating Committee,
and in order to sustain the community of airlines operating at the
airport, discounts were extended by the Appellant towards
parking and housing charges during the period of restrictions, to
the extent of Rupees four crore sixty one lakh (Rs. 4.61 crore).
This sum was not received by the Appellant, on account of the
discount so extended at the behest of the aforesaid
communications, and AERA cannot treat it as though it had been
notionally received.
384. We must state that certain facts concerning the period in question
are of such notoriety, and are so widely and officially
documented, that it is a matter of public record, evidenced by
the circulars of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation itself, that
scheduled international commercial passenger services to and
from India were suspended with effect from 23rd March 2020,
and that scheduled domestic commercial passenger services
Page 230 of 546
were suspended with effect from midnight on 24th March 2020,
both suspensions continuing, with only limited and calibrated
relaxation, through the whole of the year 2020, being the very
year in which the discounts in question were extended. It is
equally a matter of public record that international scheduled
services remained suspended well beyond that year.
385. We are of the opinion that Section 13(1)(a)(v) of the AERA Act
permits AERA to have regard to revenue received from services
other than aeronautical services, and we have held, that this
expression, cast as it is in the past participle, does not extend to
revenue a regulator considers ought to have been received. If the
imputation of revenue that never existed is impermissible under
Section 13(1)(a)(v), the imputation of revenue that was
deliberately waived, in response to a request from the
administrative ministry responsible for the sector, is
impermissible a fortiori.
386. We have considered the reasoning advanced in paragraph
3.10.11 itself, that if the discount were reimbursed it would cease
to be a discount and would instead become a deferred payment
recoverable from the very users to whom it was extended, and
that the Appellant ought to have entered into an agreement with
Page 231 of 546
those users to that effect, and we do not accept this rationale of
AERA; because this reasoning treats a concession granted in
response to an unprecedented and unforeseen public emergency
as though it were an ordinary commercial transaction capable of
being structured in advance with the foresight such structuring
requires. It ought to be kept in mind that in April 2020, when the
request for relief first came from the Ministry of Civil Aviation, no
airport operator could reasonably have been expected to
negotiate a bilateral repayment instrument with every airline it
chose to support, in the midst of a crisis whose duration and
severity were themselves unknown, without risking the very
appearance of self-interest that would have undermined the relief
being extended.
387. We quash and set aside the decision of AERA at paragraph
3.10.11 of the impugned order, treating the aeronautical tariff
discounts of Rs. 4,61,00,000/- extended by the Appellant in the
financial year 2021 as aeronautical revenue for the truing up of
the Second Control Period. We direct AERA to exclude this
sum from the computation of aeronautical revenue
actually received for that period, and to give effect to this
direction as part of the true up to be carried out in the
Page 232 of 546
determination of tariff for the Fourth Control Period .
Issue No. XIII is accordingly answered in favor of the
Appellant.
ISSUE XIV. Capping of pre-operative expenses for true-
up
388. The challenge under this issue is to the decision of AERA
contained principally in paragraphs 3.3.70 to 3.3.72 and
paragraph 5.5.23 of the impugned tariff order whereby pre-
operative expenses relating to the capital expenditure projects
approved in the Second Control Period and deferred into the
Third Control Period have been subjected to an overall ceiling of
₹156 crore. For ready reference the aforesaid paragraphs of the
Impugned Order reads as under:
“ Pre-operative expenses
3.3.70 The Authority has examined the comments of
BIAL, FIH, Siemens, APAO and IATA on the
preoperative expenses . In the Second Control
Period order of BIAL, the Authority has noted
that it had approved pre-operative expenses of
INR 156 cr. (incl. GST) and decided that it will
review and trueup the same after the projects
are commissioned based on a study of the actual
cost incurred and its reasonableness . The
Authority examined its decisions with regards to
Page 233 of 546
the pre-operative expenses for other airports.
The Authority notes that it is a general practice
at airports to employ a project management
team whose expenses are capitalized with the
commissioning of the project. The Authority has
also taken a note of the segregation of roles and
responsibility of the project team and the PMC
consultants for the PAL I projects .
3.3 .71 The Authority has noted its guidelines which
specify the requirement to submit separately the
payroll costs of capitalized projects and the costs
related to administrative and general expenses
incurred for capital projects. The Authority has
also examined the statutory auditor's opinion
submitted by BIAL on the capitalization of the
pre-operative expenses . The auditor's certificate
has given detailed reasoning of capitalization for
each expense. Based on the above evaluation,
the Authority decides to allow pre-operative
expenses upto INR 156 cr. for the projects
proposed to be capitalized in the Second Control
Period order of BIAL to provide consistent
treatment of the pre-operative expenses across
airports.
3.3 .72 The Authority further noted that the pre-
operative expenses proposed to be capitalized in
the second control period is INR 93.61 cr. which
is less than the approved amount of INR 156cr.
(incl. GST) since the remaining cost is proposed
to be capitalized in the Third Control Period. The
Authority decides to consider the pre-operative
expenses capitalized in the second control period
for true-up of the second control period. The
treatment of pre-operative cost beyond INR
Page 234 of 546
93.61 cr has been provided in Chapter 5 on
regulatory asset base and depreciation for the
Third Control Period.
…
…
…
5.5.23 Based on the Authority's decision to allow the
pre-operative cost of BIAL's project monitoring
division in the true-up of the SOP in para 3.3.71,
the Authority decides to allow the pre-operative
on the capital expenditure projects deferred
from the Second Control Period to the Third
Control Period subject to the total cap of INR 156
cr. The Authority noted that BIAL has capitalized
INR 93.61 cr. in SCP and therefore, decides to
allow the remaining INR 62.39 cr. in TCP. The
Authority based on its decision in the Second
Control Period Order decides to true-up the pre-
operative expenses for the capital expenditure
projects deferred from the Second Control Period
to the Third Control Period after the projects are
commissioned based on the review of the actual
cost incurred and its reasonableness. ”
389. From the bare perusal of Paragraph No. 5.5.23, it appears that
there is an irreconcilable internal contradiction. In one breath, the
paragraph stipulates that pre-operative expenses will be trued-
up after the commissioning of projects, based on a rigorous
review of actual costs incurred and their economic
reasonableness. In the very next breath, it subjects the entirety
of these expenses to a rigid, absolute ceiling of Rs. 156 crores.
Page 235 of 546
390. AERA has in access to their jurisdiction put a cap upon pre-
operative expenses of Rs.156 Crores without assigning any
reasons. There were no justifications by AERA as to why and how
the figure of Rs.156 Crores was fixed.
391. We empathically state that remind AERA that a "true-up" exercise
is, by statutory design, a retrospective reconciliation intended to
replace prospective estimates with actual, audited expenditures.
To hold that actual costs will be trued-up, but only up to the
threshold of the preliminary estimate itself, renders the statutory
mechanism of a true-up illusory and devoid of practical meaning.
392. AERA has placed reliance in its reply upon paragraph 3.3.36 of
the impugned order as furnishing cogent reasons for refusing pre
operative expenses. That paragraph is a proposal recorded at the
stage of the consultation paper, in which the AERA proposed to
exclude a sum of Rs. 77 crore as a redundant cost, upon the view
that design and project management cost had already been
accounted for. For ready reference the same reads as under:
“ 3.3.36 The Authority further noted that the pre-operative
expenses proposed to be capitalized in the Second
Control Period is INR 77 cr. The Authority noted that the
pre-operative expenses includes the cost of employees
involved in undertaking the capital expenditure in
Second Control Period and other miscellaneous
Page 236 of 546
administrative expenses. The Authority has already
accounted the design and PMC cost for the capital
expenditure in the Second Control Period and is of the
view that the pre-operative expenses are redundant
cost. The Authority proposes to exclude the pre-
operative expenses from the asset additions of the
Second Control Period.
393. In our view paragraph 3.3.36 does not provide any reasons and
it merely notes the proposal. The decision is rendered, after
stakeholder comments, which is in paragraphs 3.3.70 to 3.3.72,
and it is materially different as AERA in aforesaid paragraphs
records that it is a general practice at airports to employ a project
management team whose expenses are capitalised with the
commissioning of the project, and that it has taken note of the
segregation of roles and responsibilities between the project
team and the consultants. The premise of redundancy on which
the earlier proposal rested was thus abandoned by the Authority
itself.
394. The vacillation of AERA is evident from the Order No. 18/2018-
19, being Tariff Order for KIAB for Second Control Period
(01.04.2016 to 31.03.2021), wherein under Paragraph 9.2.11;
AERA stated that it would undertake a study of the actual cost
incurred and its reasonableness after commissioning. In the
Page 237 of 546
impugned order, the contemplated study has disappeared and
the earlier estimate has instead become the ceiling. There is no
explanation as to what intervening material justified that change
in methodology. For ready reference Para 9.2.11 of SCP reads as
follows:
“ 9.2.11. The Authority had reviewed the certificate provided.
The Authority also noted that certain costs relating to
Pre-Operative Expenses were carried over from the
year 2015-16 (and may be before too). The Authority
also noted that BIAL had submitted details of the
personnel deployed, cost of which would be debited to
Pre-Operative Expenses. The Authority noted that there
was a need to have an own Project Management Team
when large scale Capital Expenditure Projects are being
executed. The Authority urged BIAL to ensure that the
costs relating to Pre-Operative Expenses be optimally
managed based on the requirements of the stated
projects only. As these costs were proposed to be
incurred over the second control period, the Authority
proposed to consider an amount of Rs. 150 crores
towards the same, as against BIAL's submission, for the
purpose of estimating the costs and capitalisation for
MYTP. The Authority would review and true up
the same after the Projects are commissioned
based on a study of the actual cost incurred and
its reasonableness . ”
395. In our view, having announced this regulatory methodology,
AERA was bound to adhere to it or provide a compelling, legally
sustainable justification for its departure as regulatory certainty,
Page 238 of 546
predictability, and consistency are fundamental tenets of
economic governance, and any departure from an established
regulatory approach must be justified by an overriding public
interest or clear statutory imperative
396. It is reiterated that this Tribunal in DIAL v AERA, being AERA
Appeal No 10 of 2012 dated 23.04.2018 under paragraph
88, considered the challenge to project cost and recorded the
Authority’s stand that project cost is to be seen as the incurred
cost appearing in the duly certified books of accounts, relating to
approved and essential parts of the airport, and that such cost
for ready reference Paragraph 88 reads as under:
“ 88. On the other hand, on behalf of AERA, Mr.Dhir has taken
a firm stand that in the task of tariff determination, the
project cost can be looked at from a narrow hole, only
to examine the incurred cost as per available records
and see that it relates to the approved and essential
parts of the Airport. According to him, this had to be
done on the basis of accounts bearing certificates
granted or approved by the Chartered Accountant. His
clear stand is that such cost cannot be re-examined on
the yardstick of efficient cost but has to be taken as the
incurred cost only, as appearing in the duly certified
books of accounts. This submission appears to be
weighty and deserves acceptance.”
397. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in Delhi International Airport
Limited v. Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of
Page 239 of 546
India (2024) 1 SCC 716 , noted in paragraph 139 the stand of
the Authority, accepted by this Tribunal in AERA Appeal No. 10
of 2012, that project cost is to be seen as the incurred cost
appearing in the certified books, relating to approved and
essential parts of the airport, and that such cost cannot be re-
examined on the yardstick of efficient cost and in paragraphs
149 and 150 the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that Section
13(1)(a)(i) and Section 13(1)(a)(iii) are distinct, that clause (i)
requires capital expenditure incurred to be taken into
consideration, for ready reference the relevant paragraph reads
as under:
“ 139. AERA sought to rebut these contentions before TD SA T .
It was contended that the avowed task of determining
the project cost could only be looked at from a narrow
hole - i.e. in order to e x amine the incurred cost as per
available records and verify whether it relates to the
approved and essential parts of the airport . Th i s i n turn
had to be taken on the basis of a c counts bearing
certificates granted or approved by the Chartered
Accountant. It was vehemently argued that such c ost
cannot be reexamined on the yardstick of efficient cost
but has to be taken as the incurred cost only, as
appearing in the duly certified books of accounts. The
aforesaid plea of AERA found favour with TD S AT and
was accepted.
Page 240 of 546
140. If we turn to TDSAT's order dated 20-3-2020~, this
aspect has been dealt with in sec Online TDSAT paras
22, 23 and 24. It was held that AERA could not have
had much latitude in dealing with rising project costs as
it had little or no scope to do so within its limited
statutory role under the said Act. TDSAT found that
AERA had referred to the reports of the two experts and
had consulted with all stakeholders, who had been
given sufficient opportunity to make their submissions.
This would meet the requirement of Section 13(4) of
the said Act which requires AERA to ensure
transparency in exercising its powers and discharging
its functions. The only caveat put by TDSAT was that
the exclusions mandated by AERA from DIAL's project
cost to the tune of Rs 354.14 crores should be allowed.
TDSAT's order dated 16-7-2020 with respect to MIAL's
project cost held that no new grounds had been raised
and the issue stood settled in DIAL's case.
144. On the other hand, the airport operators contended that
Section 13(1)(a)(i) of the said Act deals with capital
expenditure while Section 13(1)(a)(iii) deals with the
cost of improving efficiency. The said provisions read as
under:
"13. Functions of Authority.-(1) The Authority
shall perform the following functions in
respect of major airports, namely-
(a) to determine the tariff for the
aeronautical services taking into
consideration-
(i) the capital expenditure incurred
and timely investment in
improvement of airport facilities;
Page 241 of 546
*
(iii) the cost for improving efficiency;"
145. The cost for improving efficiency as used in sub-
clause (iii) was submitted to be very different
from efficient cost in respect of capital
expenditure and, thus, elements of (iii) could be
read into (i). There is no test of efficiency laid out
in the said Act in terms of capital expenditure
and thus AERA only had a limited role qua
determining the project costs .
150. In our view, the provisions have been separately made
because the concept of Section 13(1)(a)(i) requires
AERA to determine the tariff by including capital
expenditure incurred and timely investment in
improvement of airport facilities. One of the other
distinct factors to be considered is the cost of improving
efficiency as under Section 13(1)(a) (iii). These aspects
have no doubt been examined by the authority
concerned, although not necessarily in the manner FIA
seeks them to. Does it really lie with us to superimpose
a view which has not been found feasible in the given
conspectus of the large number of reports and
documents before AERA as well as TDSAT. We thus
reject the contention.
151. In the end, we do believe that the matter having
traversed from AERA to the appellate authority to this
Court, the parties and the counsel may have become
fully aware of the nitty-gritties of the various matters
and thus sought to embark on canvassing the case
almost as we are some kind of first authority on these
aspects. We are unwilling to do so. We have analysed
all the contentions in a broad perspective, keeping in
mind that the Authority has performed its task and so
Page 242 of 546
has the appellate authority. Despite the course of action
followed by the counsel, we have still analysed the
matter in such depth as was required to be done by this
Court in rejecting all aspects in these appeals and cross-
appeals except one aspect which arose from
terminology and its definition. ”
398. In DIAL v. AERA; being AERA Appeal No 1 of 2021, judgement
st
dated 21 July 2023, in paragraph 165(f), this Tribunal has held
that once the committee is approving the need nature and
expenditures of construction there is little or practically no scope
of interference by the Authority under the guise of efficient cost,
for ready reference the aforesaid paragraph reads as under:
“ 165…(f) As per Section 13 (1)(a)(i) of the AERA Act, 2008, it
was a power coupled with a duty vested in AERA to
determine the tariff for the aeronautical services taking
into consideration, “the capital expenditure incurred
and timely investment in the improvement of airport
facilities” which is on “actual basis” meaning thereby, if
the actual capital expenditure is incurred by the
appellant, the same has to be considered by AERA as
per aforesaid provision of AERA Act and it cannot be so
easily brushed and set aside by AERA under the guise
of “the efficient cost ” ;
399. As stated in several decisions rendered by this Tribunal in
different AERA Appeals and also in present decision herein above,
even at the cost of repetition, we emphatically point out that
under Section u/s 13(1)(a)(i), AERA has to consider while
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determining tariff actual expenses incurred by the Airport
Operator. AERA has no power, jurisdiction and authority to put a
cap upon the capex.
400. Moreover, the projects approved in Second Control Period and
which were started in Second Control Period and completed by
rd
31.12.2022 (during 3 Control Period), its capex cannot be
curtailed by putting imaginary cap on notional basis, without
assigning any reasons at Rs.156 Crores. The benefit which is
already accrued to BIAL cannot be withdrawn with retrospective
effect by AERA. Hence, the decision of AERA is arbitrary and
irrational.
401. AERA ought to be mindful of fundamental jurisdictional facts that
neither Concession Agreement (Annexure A-3 to be read with
Annexure A-4) nor SSA (Annexure R-23) nor airport tariff
guidelines, 2011, nor AERA Act,2008 permits AERA to ‘put a cap
upon capex’ or ‘they never permit AERA to ignore the actual
capex incurred’ and to allow only notional and imaginary capex.
402. We have considered AERA’s submission that a certificate issued
by statutory auditors is evidence of accounting entry and
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incurrence, but does not conclusively establish economic
reasonableness. We accept that proposition as a matter of
regulatory law.
403. It is trite law that an auditor’s certificate confirming that an
expense was incurred and properly capitalized in accordance with
accounting standards does not divest AERA of its statutory
mandate to examine whether the expenditure was efficient and
reasonable.
404. However, the record demonstrates that AERA examined the
statutory auditor’s opinion and noted that the certificate provided
itemized justification for the capitalization of each expense.
Having recorded this, AERA did not identify a single
expenditure entry as extravagant, unviable, duplicated,
or unrelated to the approved expansion works . Hence,
AERA found nothing deficient in any expenditure, yet proceeded
to enforce a fixed financial cap.
405. It ought to be noted that the statutory power under Section
13(1)(a)(i) to test individual expenses for reasonableness cannot
be expanded into an unbridled license to impose a pre-emptive
ceiling on aggregate expenditure without conducting a line-item
prudence review.
Page 245 of 546
406. We are likewise unable to accept AERA’s contention that
recognition of expenditure beyond ₹156 crore would necessarily
result in unjust enrichment or double counting. The Guidelines
themselves require payroll costs attributable to capital projects
and the corresponding administrative and general expenses to be
separately disclosed. AERA has also accepted that the
responsibilities of the internal project team and those of the
external PMC are distinct.
407. It bears repetition that Section 13(1)(a)(i) requires consideration
of capital expenditure incurred, while the other factors in Section
13(1)(a), including efficiency and viable operation, continue to
inform the tariff exercise. At true up, AERA may therefore require
BIAL to establish the incurrence, capitalisation, project nexus and
regulatory eligibility of every material component claimed.
408. It may exclude any amount which is unincurred, unrelated to the
approved project, incorrectly capitalised, duplicated, already
recognised under another regulatory head or otherwise shown on
identifiable material to be inadmissible.
409. For the reasons recorded herein above, we quash and set
aside the decision of AERA in paragraph 5.5.23 of the
impugned order, in so far as it caps the pre operative
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expenses for the capital expenditure projects deferred
from the Second Control Period to the Third Control
Period at Rs. 156 crores . We direct AERA to consider the
actual pre operative expenses incurred by the Appellant
on those projects, on the basis of its audited financial
statements and the certification of its statutory auditors,
and to give effect to the result in the true up to be carried
out in the determination of tariff for the Fourth Control
Period.Issue No. XIV is accordingly answered in favour of
the Appellant.
ISSUE XV: Capping of design and Project Management
Consultancy Cost for expansion works
410. The present issue concerns the decision of AERA to consider
Design and Project Management Consultancy costs at 5% of the
project cost for the Third Control Period. Ld. Senior Advocate for
the Appellant has directed his challenge principally against
paragraph 5.5.18 of the impugned tariff order, which reads as
under:
“5.5.18 The Authority has noted BIAL's request to consider
the design and PMC cost as per its justification
Page 247 of 546
provided in the true-up of the second control period.
The Authority in the true-up of the Second Control
Period had decided to allow design and PMC cost as
5% of the project cost based on the independent
consultant's study . In line with the decision for the
true-up of the Second Control Period, the Authority
decides to consider the Design and PMC cost as 5%
of the project cost for the Third Control Period.”
411. From bare perusal of the aforesaid paragraph, it can be seen that
as per impugned tariff order, AERA has put a cap upon design
rd
and PMC cost at 5% of the project cost for 3 Control Period
which is under challenge in this AERA Appeal.
412. It ought to be seen that Consultation Paper No. 10 of 2021-22,
at paragraph 5.2.41 , proposed to allow five per cent of the
project cost for design and Project Management Consultancy
cost, and, in the very same paragraph, proposed to review and
true up that cost after the project is commissioned and subject
to its reasonableness. The impugned order, at paragraph 5.5.18,
carries the five per cent figure forward but drops the true up
altogether. The words review and true up, present in the
proposal, do not appear in the decision. For ready reference
Paragraph 5.2.41 reads as under:
“5.2.41. The Authority has decided to allow 5% of the project
cost for Design and PMC costs based on the
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independent study undertaken by RITES Limited in the
Second Control Period order. The Authority proposes to
consider 5% of the project cost for Design and PMC
costs for the capital expenditure deferred from Second
Control Period. The Authority proposes to review
and true-up the design and PMC costs after the
project is commissioned and subject to its
reasonableness .”
413. In our view, it is evident that the Authority has not explained why
a review it had proposed to conduct was silently abandoned
between the consultation paper and the final order. It must be
noted that Section 13(4)(c) of the AERA Act requires every
decision of the Authority to be fully documented and explained.
Since the decision of AERA rests substantially upon what it
describes as an independent study undertaken by RITES Limited,
it becomes necessary to examine that study itself.
414. The RITES report is annexed to the memo of this appeal as
Annexure R-16 to the Rejoinder filed by BIAL and is dated
January 2018 with titled being “Analysis of Capital Expenditure
on Expansion of Bangalore International Airport (Terminal
Building, Taxiway and Apron) for the Second Control Period
(01/04/2016 to 31/03/2021)”.
415. We have examined the report of Rail India Technical and
Economic Service Limited, upon which the Authority rests its five
Page 249 of 546
per cent figure. The report compared the Appellant's soft costs,
including design and Project Management Consultancy costs,
against projects at Jaipur International Airport, Chennai
International Airport, Lokapriya Gopinath Bordoloi International
Airport at Guwahati, Tiruchirappalli International Airport and
Chaudhary Charan Singh Airport at Lucknow.
416. In our humble opinion, none of these projects, upon the material
before us, involved the construction of a new runway or a scale
of airside works comparable to the Appellant's own expansion,
which includes a new runway and a second terminal.
417. We are of firm belief that a benchmark drawn from projects of a
materially different scale and complexity does not become a
reliable benchmark merely because it is contained in an expert
report and a regulator that adopts such a benchmark in a manner
of rubber stamping without examining whether the comparators
are truly comparable has not brought an independent mind to
bear upon the question.
418. From the record it is apparent that AERA has failed to test the
comparators chosen by RITES against the scale of the Appellant's
own works and a report that has not been so tested cannot be
treated as conclusive of what a reasonable design and Project
Page 250 of 546
Management Consultancy cost for this Appellant's expansion
would be.
419. The Hon’ble Supreme Court of India in the case of Gastrade
International versus Commissioner of Customs, Kandla,
2025 INSC 411 , decided on 28.03.2025, has held that an expert
opinion, however weighty, is not binding, and is subject to
scrutiny where it suffers from shortcomings, ambiguity or a lack
of clarity and such a report is not binding upon the court, and the
court is expected to analyse the report, read it in conjunction with
the other evidence on record, and then form its own conclusion,
the relevant paragraph of the judgement reads as under:
“ 56. Section 45 of the Evidence Act of 1872 deals with
expert opinion, which reads as follows:
“Section 45. Opinions of experts. When the Court
has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign
law, or of science or art, or as to identity of
handwriting or finger impressions, the opinions
upon that point of persons specially skilled in
such foreign law, science or art, or in questions
as to identity of handwriting or finger-
impressions are relevant facts. Such persons are
called experts
57. The opinion of the experts, however weighty
they may be, are not binding on the court and is
only relevant for the court to consider it to come
to a final decision on any fact in issue. However,
Page 251 of 546
since courts are not experts in the discipline of
science, they ordinarily accept the scientific
report and act upon it. But where the expert
opinion suffers from certain shortcomings or
ambiguities, lack of clarity, or inadequacy it
would be subject to judicial scrutiny and it
would not be safe to rely wholly on the same
under such circumstances .
59. This Court in State of H.P. v. Jai Lal, (1999) 7 SCC 280
observed that the credibility of expert witness depends
on the reasons stated in support of his conclusions and
the data and material furnished which form the basis
of his conclusions. It was thus observed as follows:
“18. An expert is not a witness of fact. His evidence
is really of an advisory character. The duty of an
expert witness is to furnish the Judge with the
necessary scientific criteria for testing the
accuracy of the conclusions so as to enable the
Judge to form his independent judgment by the
application of this criteria to the facts proved by
the evidence of the case. The scientific opinion
evidence, if intelligible, convincing and tested
becomes a factor and often an important factor
for consideration along with the other evidence
of the case. The credibility of such a witness
depends on the reasons stated in support of his
conclusions and the data and material furnished
which form the basis of his conclusions”
(emphasis added)
60. This Court in Dayal Singh v. State of Uttaranchal,
(2012) 8 SCC 263 reiterated the aforesaid view. It was
also observed that the essential principle governing
expert evidence is that the expert is not only to rovide
Page 252 of 546
reasons to support his opinion but the result should be
directly demonstrable. Thus, if the report of an expert
is slipshod, inadequate or cryptic and the information
of similarities or dissimilarities is not available in his
report and his evidence in the case, then his opinion is
of no use.
It was reiterated that the purpose of an expert opinion
is primarily to assist the court in arriving at the final
conclusion. Such report is not binding upon the court.
The court is expected to analyse the report, read it in
conjunction with the other evidence on record, and
then form its final opinion as to whether such report is
worthy of reliance or not. It was thus observed as
follows:
“35. This brings us to an ancillary issue as to how
the Court would appreciate the evidence in such
cases………………. The courts, normally, look at
expert evidence with a greater sense of
acceptability, but it is equally true that the courts
are not absolutely guided by the report of the
experts, especially if such reports are
perfunctory, unsustainable and are the result of
a deliberate attempt to misdirect the
prosecution…………
xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
39. The Indian law on expert evidence does not
proceed on any significantly different footing.
The skill and experience of an expert is the ethos
of his opinion, which itself should be reasoned
and convincing. Not to say that no other view
would be possible, but if the view of the expert
has to find due weightage in the mind of the
court, it has to be well authored and convincing.
………………..
Page 253 of 546
40. We really need not reiterate various judgments
which have taken the view that the purpose of
an expert opinion is primarily to assist the court
in arriving at a final conclusion. Such report is not
binding upon the court. The court is expected to
analyse the report, read it in conjunction with the
other evidence on record and then form its final
opinion as to whether such report is worthy of
reliance or not…………………. ”
420. We apply that principle here by analogy, since a regulator's
reliance upon a consultant's report stands upon no firmer footing
than a court's reliance upon an expert witness. AERA does not
appear to have applied its own independent mind to the RITES
report.
421. AERA has not considered the objections raised by the Appellant
to the report specifically contained in MYTP dated 24.07.2020
annexed as Annexure A-8 to the Memo of this Appeal and
specifically looking to pages 1210 to 1213 of Vol VI . AERA has
not considered the fact that the comparators are not comparable.
The submission of AERA that the report furnishes a sufficient
basis for the cap cannot be accepted.
422. This Tribunal, in the case of Delhi International Airport
Limited versus AERA, being AERA Appeal No. 1 of 2021 ,
judgment dated 21.07.2023, under 165(f), has held as under.
Page 254 of 546
“ 165…(f) As per Section 13 (1)(a)(i) of the AERA Act, 2008, it
was a power coupled with a duty vested in AERA to
determine the tariff for the aeronautical services taking
into consideration, “the capital expenditure incurred
and timely investment in the improvement of airport
facilities” which is on “actual basis” meaning thereby, if
the actual capital expenditure is incurred by the
appellant, the same has to be considered by AERA as
per aforesaid provision of AERA Act and it cannot be so
easily brushed and set aside by AERA under the guise
of “the efficient cost ” ;
423. AERA ought to have appreciated that Section 13(1)(a)(i)
requires AERA, while determining tariff for aeronautical services,
to take into consideration the capital expenditure incurred
and timely investment in improvement of airport
facilities . Design and PMC expenditure, to the extent properly
attributable to creation of the approved capital assets, forms part
of the capital expenditure required for execution of such projects.
424. Moreover, this Tribunal, in the case of Hyderabad
International Airport Limited versus AERA, being AERA
Appeal No. 4 of 2021 , judgment dated 14.02.2024, under
paragraphs 380 and 381, has held that AERA lacks jurisdiction to
intervene in capital expenditure decisions in the absence of
irregularity, fraud or malice, and cannot rely upon a notional or
Page 255 of 546
estimated price when the actual price is available, and the same
reads as under:
“ 380. In the absence of any claims of procedural irregularities,
fraudulent conduct, or malicious intent, AERA lacks the
jurisdiction to intervene in the capital expenditure
decisions made for this significant expansion project. It
is beyond AERA’s scope to revise or override a legally
sound and valid contract between HIAL and the
foremost successful bidder. Consequently, this Tribunal
does not uphold the arguments presented by the
counsels for respondent no.1 and respondent no.2
seeking the disallowance of a portion of the capital
expenditure incurred by HIAL for the enhancement
project designed to expand the capacity of RGIA,
Hyderabad to 34 MPPA.
381. Looking to the Section 13(1)(a)(i) of AERA Act, 2008,
AERA cannot rely on any notional or estimated price
when the actual price is available for the expansion
project in question. AERA has relied upon estimated
cost for the project in question given by the consultant
– RITES - appointed by AERA, ignoring the actual
“Market Discovered Price” (MDP) arrived at through
competitive bidding process .”
425. As stated hereinabove, as per the provisions of AERA Act
especially Section 13 (1) (a) (i), capex actually incurred should
have been considered by AERA while determining tariff.
426. In view of the aforesaid facts, reasons and judicial
pronouncements we hereby quash and set aside the
Page 256 of 546
decision of AERA for putting a cap upon design and PMC
Cost for expansion works undertaken by the appellant.
We, therefore, direct AERA to consider actual cost
incurred by Airport Operator towards design and PMC
costs for expansion work based on audited financial
rd th
statements in true up of 3 Control Period and 4 Control
Period tariff orders. Issue No. XV is accordingly
answered in favour of the Appellant .
ISSUE XVI. Consideration of Depreciation
427. The challenge under this issue concerns the manner in which the
Authority has determined depreciation for the Second Control
Period at the stage of true up and for the Third Control Period.
They relate to the useful life of Plant and Machinery, the useful
life of the Canopy, New Project Office and Nursery, the useful life
of the existing Runway and Taxiway, the treatment of the top
layer of the Runway, and the methodology for determining
aeronautical depreciation.
428. Before we begin to examine each head individually, it is pertinent
to denote that depreciation necessarily proceeds upon
identification of the asset or component, its prescribed or
Page 257 of 546
technically established useful life, and its regulatory classification.
In fact, Order No. 35/2017-18, which is annexed as Annexure R-
18 & 41 to the rejoinder of this appeal itself recognises this
distinction.
A. Plant and Machinery
th
429. As per third control period tariff order dated 28 August, 2021
(Annexure A1) of AERA especially looking to paragraph 3.6.29
thereof has considered useful life for plant and machinery as 15
years for true-up for second control period. For the ready
reference, paragraph 3.6.29(a) of the impugned order reads as
under:
“ 3.6.29 The Authority has carefully examined comments from
BIAL, FIH, Siemens, MIAL and APAO on the true-up of
the depreciation of SCP and have given its analysis and
decision below:
a) Asset Class - Plant and Machinery (Aerobridges,
Airport Communication, Baggage Handling,
Escalators/ Elevators, HVAC Equipment, Other
Airport Equipment and Security/ Safety Equipment):
The Authority has given its detailed reasoning for
considering the useful life of 7.5 years for these assets
in para 3.6.6 of the Consultation Paper no. 10/2021-22
for BIAL. The Authority would clarity to BIAL that the
amendment no. I to the Order no. 35/ 2017-18 dated
Page 258 of 546
9th April 2018 provided the clarity that the airport
operators can adopt extra shift depreciation subject to
consideration of the technical justification to the
satisfaction of the Authority. The Authority has
evaluated the submission of the addendum to the
technical evaluation for considering the lower useful life
for these assets. Below are extracts from the technical
evaluation report:
"Item-wise explanation for having reckoned Useful Life
of Equipments as 7.5years is given below:
I. Baggage Handling System. Passenger Boarding
Bridges. Escalators, Elevators, Travellators, HVAC
etc.
Unlike other industries. these systems/equipments
in a busy airport which works 24/7 get
loaded/unloaded continuously for 365 days. Also,
these systems/equipments undergo very frequent
ONOFF cycles resulting in the reduction of useful
life.
2. Baggage Handling System (BHS) are more than a
simple mechanical system and are built along with a
complex SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data
Acquisition) system to move the passenger
baggage/bags from check-in to aircraft baggage
trolleys and during this process, pass through
Screening System, Diverters. Position Sensors at
multiple levels. A complex baggage system comprises
of more than 100 smaller segments and many 0/the
sections operate in different speed controlled through
the SCADA system. As such, the life gets reduced
compare to a conventional and more predictable
manufacturing/process systems. Due to faster
Page 259 of 546
technology improvements/changes the SCADA
operating system gets redundant sooner and needs
to be upgraded/replaced due to global/local
regulation changes. Reckoning the above factor s,
the baggage handling system can be qualified for
lesser Use/iii Life and also supported by AERA
amendment No. I to order number 35 clause 2.7.1
3. Equipments such as Passenger Boarding Bridges,
during operation are extended, retracted raised
lowered, Swiveled to connect the bridge to various
types of aircrafts and are also exposed to various
open weather conditions.
4.Equipments such as Escalators. Elevators and
Travellators are used continuously or 24 hours in
busy airports. Hence serviceability and safety
compliance requirements are exclusively)' high since
these are exclusively used by airport
personnel/passengers.
5. VDCS (Visual Docking Guidance System) which helps
safe docking of aircraft to stands are installed in
"open to sky " environment. These systems are
operating with Laser technology and in severe
weather conditions, they deteriorate/aster and as
such with Electronic circuits playing a major role have
a useful life of not greater than 7.5 y ears.
6. Automatic sliding doors: There are multiple
automatic sliding doors installed at the Departure
Entrance, Boarding gates and Arrival entry/exit.
These doors operate continuously based on people
movement and is subject to heavy number of ON-
OFF cycles. which deteriorates the normal design life
of the equipment.
Page 260 of 546
Managements strategic ally assess the investment in
capital expenditures for acquisitions, along with
ancillary costs and the costs associated with the repair
and maintenance requirements of those assets while
they are in service. For this reason, determining
accurate costs using an LCC (Life Cycle Costing)
approach is critical. In the Airport's case. this is
necessary to safely and cost-effectively accommodate
the growing number of passengers with the efficiency
that passengers expect. The airports must manage risk
since the failure of older assets car, pose a danger to
travelers, airport Personnel and visitors.
It may also be noted that sometimes new technology is
likely to render these e running equipments obsolete
much before the scheduled useful life as reckoned.
Hence to avoid risks of spares availability and drop in
efficiency, these equipments will need to replaced much
earlier.
In view of all the above and considering that the
process of determining the useful life of the equipment
is permitted to be reduced for 2/3 shift operation, it is
recommended that, the useful life of Electromechanical
equipment working in the airports to be determined at
7.5 years instead of 15 years.
Order 35 provides for specific determination of life
through technical evaluation for specific assets other
than those listed in the Order based on specific
requirement of the Airport. The Authority notes from
the above technical evaluation that the shorter life is
proposed by the airport operator for the assets under
Plant and Equipment which are already included in the
order and therefore, these are not new equipment for
Page 261 of 546
specific requirement of the airport. The Authority has
also noted that BIAL has requested for a usefuI life of
7.5 years for some of the items, yet many of them still
continue to be in operation even after 7.5 years.
Therefore, the Authority does not find any merit in
reducing the useful life of such assets.”
430. Moreover, for third control period, AERA has decided useful life
for plant and machinery, aero bridges, airport communication,
baggage handling, escalators, elevators, HVAC equipment, other
airport equipment and security safety equipment, as revised from
7.5 years to 15 years.
431. Learned Senior Counsel, Mr. Sajan Povayya appearing on behalf
of appellant, has drawn our attention to AERA's order
th
No.35/2017-18 dated 12 January, 2018, as amended by
th
Amendment No.1/2017-18 dated 9 April 2018, of useful life,
asset category, which is one of the guiding principles of AERA's
tariff determination methodology (Annexure R41 to the memo of
rejoinder).
432. Looking to this Annexure R41, which is the amendment No. 01
dated 09.04.2018 to AERA Order No. 35/2017-18 dated
12.01.2018, it appears that Clause 2.5 and Clause 2.7.1 are
relevant for the purpose of determination of issue raised in the
present AERA appeal and said clauses reads as under:
Page 262 of 546
“2.5. The Authority notes that certain Plant & Machinery in
certain very large Airports / Airports with higher volume
of operations would need to be running continuously or
run extra shifts. Accordingly, appropriate considerations
as detailed in aforementioned pronouncements should
be factored and given effect to.
2.7.1 Useful lives of Plant & Machinery iş determined as 15
years. In case the airport operator wants the useful life
to be lower due to extra shift operations, it will be
considered based on technical justification to the
satisfaction of the Authority. "
433. In view of the aforesaid order issued by AERA, the present
appellant carried out technical assessment and the appellant had
th
technical report dated 12 April, 2018 by Chartered Engineer and
detailed justification was provided (Annexure R19 to the memo
of rejoinder affidavit). This technical assessment was submitted
to AERA during tariff determination process of second control
period as well as tariff determination process of third control
period.
434. In view of the full set provisions of useful life of assets years
passed by AERA, (Annexure R-41), and looking into the technical
assessment report of the Chartered Engineer (Annexure R-19), it
appears that AERA has to consider the same. AERA cannot brush
aside the technical assessment report at (Annexure R-19).
“Useful life of Assets Order” provides 15 years’ life, but it is
Page 263 of 546
mere indication and not a gospel truth about the life of assets at
the airport. If lesser useful life is prescribed by the airport
operator along with the technical report by Chartered Engineer,
the said report must have been considered by AERA and if AERA
is accepting the said report of lesser useful life, then reasons
ought to have been given by AERA for rejecting the technical
reasons given by the Airport Operator, this mandatory
requirement is reinforced by Section 13(4) of the AERA Act, 2008,
which obliges AERA to ensure transparency and, inter alia, to
make its decisions fully documented and explained.
435. In the facts of the present case, AERA has never given any notice
to the airport operator that why AERA is not accepting the
technical report of useful life of the assets, which is given by the
Chartered Engineer in Annexure R19, is not accepted by AERA.
AERA cannot ignore the technical report given by the Chartered
Engineer in view of useful life of assets order issued by AERA in
Annexure R41.
436. It has been held by this Tribunal in Mangaluru International
Airport Ltd. Vs. AERA in AERA Appeal No.1 of 2023 dated
11.09.2025 , paragraphs 289 to 296, which reads as under:
Page 264 of 546
“ 289. AERA has decided to make an adjustment in
depreciation on account of change in Useful Life and
revision in asset addition whereby AERA had considered
depreciation for Mangaluru Airport for First Control
Period at Rs.130.96 Crores as against Rs.239.51 Crores
as proposed by the appellant. The Respondent No.1-
AERA has relied upon Order No.35/2017-18 dated
12.01.2018 as amended by AERA regarding
determination of Useful Life of the Airports (Useful Life
of Asset Order).
290. Looking to the Useful Life of Asset Order, it is
mentioned, if the period of Useful Life of Asset is
considered differently, the Airport Operator shall
document the same and provide the
reasons/justifications and basis for period
considered in determination of Useful Life of
Asset for purpose of tariff determination which
shall be examined and considered by the
Authority.
291. The aforesaid aspect of the matter which is mentioned
in “useful life of assets order” has not been properly
appreciated by AERA.
292. The appellant has provided a detailed report,
document, justification and reasons by way of an
independent expert report. “Technical report of Useful
Life of Assets has already been submitted by the Airport
Operator” which is a technical report with reasons and
justifications as to why the shorter life-span should not
be considered. This report provided by airport operator
is absolutely in consonance with “useful life of assets
order passed by AERA” and as stated hereinabove, if
the Airport Operator canvassing the shorter life of the
assets for the purpose of tariff determination, the same
should have been documented and reasons and
Page 265 of 546
justifications should have been given and in that
eventuality, AERA shall examine the same while
considering the same. In the facts of the present case,
when Airport Operator has presented a detailed
technical study and has given detailed reasons and
justifications for shorter useful life of assets, the
purpose of justification has neither been considered nor
has been examined by AERA.
293. Thus, AERA has committed violation of “useful life of
assets order”.
294. It ought to be kept in mind that the Useful Life
of Assets Order prescribes the life of assets as
guidelines only. In case, if the Airport Operator
gives any document or provides reasons for
justification and basis for shorter useful life of
assets then what is mentioned in the “Useful Life
of Asset Order”, in that eventuality, AERA is
bound to examine and consider the same. The
life span of the assets mentioned in “useful life
of assets order” is not conclusive or a gospel
truth, it is just an indication and nothing beyond
it. If the Airport Operator is not treating shorter
life-span of their assets as what is mentioned in
the “useful life of assets order”, then in that
eventuality, the life span of the assets
mentioned in “useful life of assets order” shall be
accepted as it is. Thus, whenever any Airport
Operator is claiming shorter life span than what
is mentioned in “useful life of assets order” then
in that eventuality the Airport Operator shall
submit the documents and provide reasons,
justification and basis for shorter life span and
AERA is bound to examine and consider the same
and without any analysis of the report submitted
by Airport Operator, it cannot be brushed aside
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or overlooked nor can it be rejected without any
reasoning. Meaning thereby to, such
justifications/reasons and the basis supplied by
Airport Operator ought to be examined and
considered by AERA and if the same is to be
rejected, AERA should give reasons for rejecting
and not accepting the justification/basis
supplied by Airport Operator.
295. AERA has failed to acknowledge that increase in
depreciation will result in decrease of RAB and
accordingly the return on RAB as sought by the
appellant is adjusted to the said extent. Thus, the
statement made by AERA with respect to “shorter useful
life of the asset would increase the per year rate of
depreciation of the airport assets and would result in
higher amount of Depreciation (D) to be added in ARR
formula” is incorrect as on one hand, there will be
increase in depreciation and on the other hand, there
will be decrease in return on RAB.
296. In the facts of the present case, the reasons,
justifications and with basis for claiming shorter life
span than what is mentioned in “useful life of assets
order” have been given by AO in the form of Report.
This report is not appreciated at all by AERA. No reasons
have been given by AERA for rejecting the said report.
The report was given by “Kanti Karamsey and Co.
(Govt. registered valuers)”. This report cannot be
brushed aside by AERA without any reason. We
therefore quash and set aside decision of AERA for
mechanically following “useful life of assets order”
No.35/2017-18 dated 12.01.2018 amended from time
to time for determination of depreciation. ”
Page 267 of 546
437. The approach AERA has adopted in the present case, of reciting
the existence of a technical report without engaging with its
contents, and of treating the continued physical operation of an
asset beyond its claimed useful life as though this were, by itself,
an answer to the report.
438. It is worth noting that useful life, for the purpose of depreciation,
is an accounting and a regulatory construct, which has to be
measured for the period over which an asset is expected to be
economically used in the ordinary course, and is distinct from the
outer limit of an asset's physical survival. An asset that continues
to function after its useful life has expired, whether through
additional maintenance, reduced efficiency or simple good
fortune, does not thereby demonstrate that its useful life was
wrongly assessed, any more than a person who lives beyond the
actuarial life expectancy for their age demonstrates that actuarial
tables are wrong.
439. The Hon’ble Supreme Court has held in Delhi Electricity
Regulatory Commission Vs. BSES Yamuna Power Limited,
(2007) 3 SCC 33 , at paragraph 43, that the basic object of
providing depreciation is to allocate the amount of depreciation
Page 268 of 546
of an asset over its useful life and not its actual life. For ready
reference Paragraph 43 reads as under:
“43. Before concluding, we may state that the basic object
of providing depreciation is to allocate the
amount of depreciation of an asset over its useful
life and not actual life so as to exhibit a true and
fair view of the financial statements of an
enterprise. Useful life is a period over which a
depreciable asset is expected to be used. Useful
life of an asset in a capital intensive industry is
generally shorter than its physical life. Useful life
is predetermined by contractual limits or by
amount of extraction or consumption dependent
on the extent of use and physical deterioration
on account of wear and tear which depends on
operational factors such as the number of shifts,
repair and maintenance policy of the utility and
reduced by obsolescence arising from
technological changes, improvement in
production methods, etc. In the present case,
DERC has not considered the difference between
the physical life of an asset and the useful life of
the asset . ”
440. AERA's stated reason for rejecting the technical report, that many
of the assets continue to operate beyond seven and a half years,
does not engage with the report at all, and is not a reason within
the meaning of Clause 2.7.1 of the Useful Life of Assets Order,
which requires that a shorter life be considered upon technical
Page 269 of 546
justification, not accepted or refused upon the coincidence of
continued physical survival.
441. AERA had taken a decision to consider useful life of plant and
machinery at 7.5 years for second control period. Now when the
time of true-up is coming, AERA cannot change its decision. Time
to give true-up is always given in next control period. Truing-up
is not the stage where any new principle, methodology can be
adopted by AERA nor AERA can do denovo re-determine or
modify principles, premises and issues involved in the initial
projections of ARR.
442. While truing-up, AERA has to undertake only financial true-up, or
in other words, adjusted calculation based on the principles
already applied. Not to give true-up in next control period after
deciding to give a true-up in a previous tariff control period order,
tantamount to modification, alteration or re-revising the decision
of tariff order of earlier control periods. This is not permissible in
the eye of law. Once operating year is passed for the earlier tariff
control period, it cannot be altered or modified while passing the
next control period tariff order.
443. It has been held by Hon'ble the Supreme Court of India in
BSES Rajdhani Power Limited Vs. DERC reported in
Page 270 of 546
(2023) 4 SCC 788 in paragraph 55 and 56 , which reads as
under:
“ 55. "Truing up" has been held by APTEL in State Load
Dispatch Centre v. Gujarat Electricity Regulatory
Commission to mean the adjustment of actual
amounts incurred by the licensee against the
estimated/projected amounts determined under
the ARR. Concept of "truing up" has been dealt with in
much detail by APTEL in its judgment in North Delhi
Power Ltd. v. Delhi Electricity Regulatory Commission®
wherein it was held as under: (North Delhi Power
case®, SCC OnLine APTEL para 60)
60.Before parting with the judgment we are
constrained to remark that the Commission has
not properly understood the concept of truing
up. While considering the Tariff Petition of
the utility the Commission has to
reasonably anticipate the Revenue
required by a particular utility and such
assessment should be based on practical
considerations. ...The truing up exercise is
meant (sic) to fill the gap between the
actual expenses at the end of the year and
anticipated expenses in the beginning of
the year. When the utility gives its own
statement of anticipated expenditure, the
Commission has to accept the same except
where the Commission has reasons to
differ with the statement of the utility and
records reasons thereof or where the
Commission is able to suggest some
method of reducing the anticipated
expenditure. This process of restricting the
Page 271 of 546
claim of the utility by not allowing the
reasonably anticipated expenditure and
offering to do the needful in the truing up
exercise is not prudence ."
56. This view has been consistently followed by APTEL in its
subsequent judgments and we are in complete
agreement with the above view of APTEL. In our
opinion, "truing up" stage is not an opportunity
for the DERC to rethink de novo on the basic
principles, premises and issues involved in the
initial projections of the revenue requirement of
the licensee. "Truing up" exercise cannot be
done to retrospectively change the
methodology/principles of tariff determination
and reopening the original tariff determination
order thereby setting the tariff determination
process to a naught at "true- up” stage.”
444. In view of the aforesaid facts and also looking to the fact that
AERA has never given any reason for not accepting the technical
report submitted by the Airport Operator for useful life of 7.5
years. In these circumstances AERA ought to have accepted
useful life of 7.5 years instead of prescribed 15 years for third
control period. AERA has mechanically followed Useful Life Order
th
dated 9 April, 2018 (Annexure R-41), without appreciating the
fact that there is a provision that there can be useful life which
may be shorter than what is prescribed, but, in that eventuality
airport operator shall supply the technical report.
Page 272 of 546
445. In the facts of the present case, the airport operator- appellant,
is claiming useful life as 7.5 years instead of 15 years for which
technical assessment was carried out and the report was also
th
submitted (Annexure R-19), dated 12 April, 2018, which was
never denied by AERA, which was never controverted by AERA,
for which notice/ communication given by AERA to the appellant
that why AERA is not accepting (Annexure A-19) technical report
submitted by the airport operator.
446. In fact, useful life order issued by AERA, which is an order
th
35/2017-18, amended as Amendment No.1 of 2017-18, dated 9
April, 2018 (Annexure R41), is just an indication of useful life.
The figures of useful life mentioned in the order number 35/2017-
18 is not a final one. Airport operator can always claim useful life
shorter than what is prescribed. This aspect of the matter is not
being properly appreciated by AERA. Hence, we hereby quash
and set aside the decision of AERA given in paragraph number
3.6.29 and in paragraph number 5.2.99 of the impugned tariff
order (Annexure A1). We, hereby direct AERA to consider useful
life for plant and machinery as 7.5 years for the second control
period and third control period and for that purpose true-up shall
be given by AERA.
Page 273 of 546
B. Canopy, New Project Office and Nursery
447. As per the impugned tariff order, paragraph 3.6.29(b), AERA has
considered the useful life of canopy, new project office and
nursery as 30 years at par with building asset class. For ready
reference Paragraph 3.2.29 (b) reads as under:
“b) Asset class - Buildings: The Authority has noted the
technical justification submitted by BIAL in relation to
useful life of Canopy, New Project office and Nursery.
Below are extracts from the technical evaluation report:
"As regards to buildings/items like canopy. New Project
Office. Nursery etc are not general buildings/items.
Apart from their design and sustenance to the required
cause of operatable on temporary nature and
constructed in areas meant for future development as
per Master plan, the material used for construction also
temporary in nature to reduce the cost of construction
of these temporary structures.”
The Authority is of the view that the canopy is part of
the building and therefore, it cannot have a separate
useful life than the building's useful life of 30 years.
Further. New Project Office and Nursery forms part of
the building asset class and therefore, their useful life is
also considered as 30 years. ”
448. In paragraph 3.6.29(b) of the impugned order, AERA has treated
these assets as part of the building asset class and has
consequently applied the useful life associated with buildings and
Page 274 of 546
the appellant, on the other hand, has relied upon the technical
assessment carried out in respect of these assets and has claimed
separate useful lives, namely 9 years for the Canopy, 10 years
for the New Project Office and 10 years for the Nursery.
449. Looking to Annexure R41, airport operator – appellant- BIAL had
submitted a detailed project assessment report and has claimed
useful life for canopy, new project office, and nursery. This
technical report has been submitted in pursuance of AERA's order
th
No.35/2017-18 by Amendment No.1/2017-18 dated 9 April,
2018 (Annexure R41).
450. Hence, here also technical assessment report submitted to AERA
was accepted by AERA for second control tariff order. AERA has
failed to appreciate the shorter life of the assets as the airport
th
that with the help of technical assessment report dated 12 April
2018 (Annexure R19).
451. Looking to paragraph 10.1.5 and 10.2.3 of the Tariff Order for
Second Control Period (Annexure A6), this technical assessment
submitted by BIAL has been accepted by AERA in second control
tariff order for third control period as well. The technical
assessment was submitted by BIAL to AERA. For ready reference
Paragraph 10.1.5 and 10.2.3 reads as under:
Page 275 of 546
“ 10.1.5 BIAL had, on 25th April 2018 and 27th April 2018
submitted the computations relating to Extra shift
depreciation and impact of changes to useful life in line
with Authority's Order No. 35/ 2017-18.
"...KIA is a fast-growing airport and has witnessed
rapid passenger growth and high air traffic
movement. Airport specific equipment such as aero
bridges, baggage handling system, escalators,
elevators, travellite, HVAC equipments, cargo ASRS,
ETV Equipment, X Ray machine, RT set, DFMD,
HHMD, security equipment are continuously used and
need maintenance. Being used in triple shift, these
equipments undergo wear and tear and this reduces
their useful life. BIAL wishes to submit that it would
adopt lower useful life for certain assets used 24/7 on
triple shift based on technical justification. Based on
the above AERA Order and technical evaluation done,
summary of changes in useful life of assets, and one-
time impact to opening reserves are summarised in
below table...."
xxx
10.2.3 The Authority noted that in certain cases, BIAL had
projected a higher useful life and in certain cases BIAL
had projected a lower useful life as compared to Order
No. 35. The Authority noted that BIAL had submitted its
estimate regarding the same as detailed in Para 10.1.6
above. The Authority noted that this estimate included
a charge for assets where useful life had ended and
extra shift depreciation for certain asset categories. The
Authority also noted that BIAL had considered useful life
of 20 years for Runway and Taxiway along with
considering certain unique assets at specific rates,
which needed to be technically justified. The Authority
proposed to consider the estimates as provide by BIAL
Page 276 of 546
for the purpose of considering depreciation and Average
RAB for the consultation paper. The Authority asked
BIAL to submit the complete calculations and
relevant technical justifications and details for
Authority's review, which would be evaluated
and considered at the time of Order . ”
452. However, in the impugned order, at the time of giving true-up of
second control period, AERA has revised the useful life for
canopy, new project office and nursery. This is not permissible.
Moreover, for third control period, AERA has considered useful
life of its own, ignoring technical assessment report at Annexure
R19. Never any reasons have been given by AERA that why AERA
is not accepting the technical report submitted by BIAL, because
useful life prescribed in AERA's order No.35/2017-18, as
th
amended by Amendment No.2017-18 dated 9 April, 2018, is
mere indication of useful life.
453. There can be shorter useful life for several items at the airport.
If airport operator is claiming any shorter life than what is
prescribed by AERA in order 35/2017-18, then, in that
eventuality, separate assessment order ought to have been
supplied. In the facts of the present case, airport operator -
appellant, has claimed the shorter useful life for canopy, new
project office and nursery for which technical assessment report
Page 277 of 546
has already been submitted to AERA during second control period
and third control period tariff determination process, which has
been thoroughly ignored by AERA.
454. The technical assessment report submitted by airport operator
for claiming shorter useful life for certain items at the airport, the
same cannot be brushed aside without giving any reasons by
AERA. “Read and Rejected” approach followed by AERA is not
permissible. Reasons must have been given by AERA as to why
AERA is not accepting the technical report for shorter useful life
than what is prescribed in AERA in AERA’s order number 35/2017-
18.
455. It is pertinent to refer to Note 7 to Annexure 1 of Order No.
35/2017-18 (R-41), which in our view has assumed importance
in this regard. It recognises that specific assets, other than those
expressly listed in the Order, may be created at different airports
on account of airport-specific requirements and that such assets
are required to be individually evaluated technically for
determination of their useful life. For ready reference relevant
part of Annexure R-41 on Pages 4789-90 reads as under:
Annexure - I
Page 278 of 546
USEFUL LIFE OF ASSETS
(Effective from 01.04.2018)
S.
No.
Asset
Category
Useful
Depreciation
Remarks
Life
Rate (%)
(in
Yrs)
1 Cost of Land
Acquisition
— No
depreciation
To be added to
Land cost in the
Owner's books
2 Land
Development
Cost
— — Own Land — To be
added to Land cost.
Leased Land —
Cost to be
amortised over the
lease period (See
Note 6)
3 Terminal
Building
(including VIP
Terminal, Bus
Terminal, Haj
Terminal)
30 / 60 3.33 / 1.67 Either 30 years or
60 years as
evaluated by the
Airport Operator
4 Building in
Operational
Area
30 / 60 3.33 / 1.67
5 Utility Building 30 / 60 3.33 / 1.67
6 Commercial
Building
— — Not Part of RAB.
Depreciation can be
accounted in books
as per useful life
determined by the
Airport Operator
7 Cargo
Complex
30 / 60 3.33 / 1.67 As per Companies
Act
8 Residential
Building
30 / 60 3.33 / 1.67 As per Companies
Act
Page 279 of 546
9 Main Access
Roads, Roads
in Operational
area,
Boundary
wall, Security
fencing
05 / 10 20 / 10 As per Companies
Act
10 Baggage
Handling
System /
Escalators /
Elevators /
Travellator /
HVAC
Equipments /
Cargo ASRS /
ETV
Equipment
15 6.67 As per Companies
Act
11 X-Ray
Machine, RT
Set, DFMD,
HHMD,
Security
Equipment
15 6.67 As per Companies
Act
12 Office
Equipment
05 20 As per Companies
Act
13 Furniture &
Fixtures —
Other than
trolleys
7 14.29
14 Furniture &
Fixtures —
Trolleys
3 33.33
Cargo
15
Equipment,
Dollies, PPT
As per Companies
15 6.67
Act
Page 280 of 546
16 Computers —
End User
Devices
3 33.33 For items as
defined under
Companies Act
17 Computers —
Servers and
Networks
06 16.67 As per Companies
Act
18 CUTE
Equipment
06 16.67
19 Electrical
Installation
and
Equipments
— Electrical
fittings,
including
Runway
lighting
system, Gen-
set / Power
Equipment
10 10 As per Companies
Act
20 Flight
Information
System,
AOCC
Equipment
10 10 As per Companies
Act
21 Light Motor
Vehicles and
Heavy Motor
Vehicles
08 12.50 As per Companies
Act
22 Crash Fire
Tenders,
Other Fire
Equipment
including
Pumps,
Sprinklers
15 6.67 As per Companies
Act
23 Intangible
assets —
— — As per useful lives
estimated by the
Page 281 of 546
Computer
Software
Airport Operator
supported by
Technical
Justifications
24 Runway,
Taxiway,
Apron
30 3.33 Extension of
Runway: Cost to be
kept separately.
Depreciation to be
charged on the
useful life of the
extended area.
Upgradation of the
Runway: The cost
should be
depreciated over
the balance period
of the useful life of
the existing
runway.
Resurfacing of
Runway: The cost
of resurfacing of
runway leading to
restoration of
original PCN value
would be amortized
over 05 years for
the purpose of
Tariff
computations, while
accounting of such
costs could be done
on the basis of
applicable
accounting
principles and
standards. (Also
Refer Note 5)
25 Hangar 30 / 60 3.33 / 1.67 As per Companies
Act
Page 282 of 546
Notes:
1. The above rates shall be effective from Accounting
periods commencing on / after 1st April 2018.
2. From the date this Schedule comes into effect, the book
value of the asset as on that date (a) shall be
depreciated over the remaining useful life of the asset
as per this Schedule; (b) after retaining the residual
value, shall be recognised in the opening balance of
retained earnings where the remaining useful life of an
asset is nil.
3. Useful life specified is for whole of the asset. Where cost
of a part of the asset is significant to total cost of the
asset and useful life of that part is different from the
useful life of the remaining asset, useful life of that
significant part shall be determined separately.
4. Where assets are developed/ constructed/ put to use,
they should be depreciated over the available lease
period or the useful life prescribed, whichever is less.
Value to be depreciated should be determined after
reducing any asset realisation value that the Operator
may get, when the lease is surrendered. For the
purpose of identifying the balance useful life, balance
period remaining out of the initial lease period plus the
first extension at the option of the Operator should be
considered, unless confirmed decision for non-renewal
of lease is taken and recorded by the Airport Operator.
5. Runway/ Taxiway - If there is a different rate
adopted by the Airport Operator, between 20 to 30
years, the same should be justified and backed up by
suitable technical certification which will be critically
examined by the Authority and a view taken on the
same.
Page 283 of 546
6. Land Development Costs - Separate cost may not be
available in the financial records, for all such past works
carried out in the past which have been already
capitalised as of the date of the Order and hence this
will be applicable for all capitalisations to be done from
the effective date of this Order.
7. Specific assets, other than those listed above,
could be created in different airports, based on
the specific requirements. Such specific assets
would have to be individually evaluated
technically for its useful life and depreciated for
which technical justification should be
submitted to the Authority.
8. For assets not forming part of RAB, depreciation shall
be charged based on Companies Act/ Technical
evaluation of useful lives.
9. The Depreciation rate shall be applied on Straight Line
Method .”
456. The very object of Note 7 is to ensure that specialised airport
assets which do not appropriately fall within the standard
categories are not mechanically assigned the useful life applicable
to a generic asset class. The determination must depend upon
the nature of the asset, its function, its intended period of use
and the technical justification placed before AERA.
457. AERA ought to be mindful of the fact that merely because an
asset possesses a structural element does not necessarily make
Page 284 of 546
it a "building" for the purpose of determining depreciation. The
regulatory classification must have regard to the actual character
and intended function of the asset.
458. Insofar as the New Project Office is concerned, the appellant has
specifically contended that the structure was created for
execution of major expansion projects including Terminal 2 and
the second runway and that it is not intended to form part of the
permanent airport infrastructure. The material placed before
AERA was therefore required to be examined from the standpoint
of the intended period of use of that particular asset rather than
merely from the standpoint of the physical durability of the
structure.
459. Similarly, the Nursery was stated to have been established for
procuring, maintaining and acclimatising plants required for
Terminal 2. Its functional character is therefore materially
different from that of a permanent terminal building or other
permanent civil structure.
460. The Canopy also required an asset-specific examination. The
appellant had specifically placed reliance upon its structural
composition and operational function and had contended that it
Page 285 of 546
was a standalone asset and not an integral part of a conventional
RCC building.
461. In such circumstances, the issue before AERA was not whether
the said structures could physically survive for a longer period,
but whether, having regard to their intended use and technical
characteristics, they were appropriately classifiable as buildings
for the purpose of determination of depreciation.
462. Once BIAL had furnished a technical assessment in accordance
with the very mechanism contemplated under Order No.
35/2017-18, AERA was required to examine and deal with the
said assessment. A general observation that the assets belonged
to the building category could not substitute such examination.
463. We are, therefore, of the view that AERA was not justified in
mechanically treating the Canopy, New Project Office and
Nursery as assets having the useful life applicable to buildings
without properly considering the technical assessment produced
by BIAL.
464. Consequently, the determination of AERA on this aspect is set
aside and AERA is directed to give effect to the technically
assessed useful lives claimed by BIAL, namely 9 years for the
Page 286 of 546
Canopy, 10 years for the New Project Office and 10 years for the
Nursery, with consequential recomputation of depreciation.
C. Existing Runway and Taxiway
465. The next controversy relates to the useful life of the existing
runway in Paragraph No. 3.6.29 (c) of the Impugned Order. AERA
has considered the useful life of the existing runway as 30 years
whereas the appellant has claimed that the useful life should be
taken as 20 years. For ready reference Paragraph No. 3.6.29 (c)
of the Impugned Order reads as under:
“ c) Asset class - Runway and Taxiway- The Authority has
noted BIAL's submission to consider the useful life of
existing runway as 20 years instead of 30 years. The
Authority has given the justification for change in the
useful life of runway to 3O years in para 3.6.6 (c) of
the Consultation paper no. 10/ 2021-22 for BIAL and
para 10.6.4 of the SCP order for BIAL. The Authority
finds no additional information from BIAL in its
stakeholder comments to change its proposal in the
Consultation Paper. ”
466. It is noteworthy that Note 5 to Annexure 1 of Order No. 35/2017-
18 itself recognises that the useful life of a Runway/Taxiway may
vary between 20 and 30 years and provides that where a different
rate is adopted by the airport operator within the said range, the
Page 287 of 546
same should be supported by suitable technical certification and
would be critically examined by AERA, which reads as under:
“5. Runway/Taxiway- If there is different rate adopted by
airport operator between 20 to 30 years, the same
should be justified and backed up suitable technical
clarification, which will be critically examined by the
authority and the view taken on the same.”
467. In pursuance of the aforesaid provisions, technical report was
given and proper justification was given for shorter useful life
given for runway and taxiway, which was thoroughly ignored by
AERA. Even as per study report of useful life and depreciation
rates submitted by ICAI (II), Order No.35/ 2017-18, have also
suggested that useful life of such structure can be between 20 to
30 years. Thus, even under AERA's own regulatory framework,
30 years is not an inflexible useful life applicable to every runway
irrespective of its design characteristics. The Order itself
recognises airport-specific technical assessment.
468. AERA has not properly appreciated this aspect of the matter,
instead considered its own order No.35/2017-18, as amended
from time to time, which provides that flexibility of choosing,
there can be shorter useful life of runway between 20 to 30 years,
based upon technical assessment.
Page 288 of 546
469. BIAL has relied upon the technical assessment dated 12th April,
2018 as well as the provisions of the Concession Agreement.
Clause 1.1.10 of Schedule 9, Part 1 of the Concession Agreement
prescribes a design life of 20 years for the flexible pavement. It
is true that "design life" and "useful life" are not necessarily
synonymous expressions. Nevertheless, where AERA's own Order
permits useful life between 20 and 30 years and requires
consideration of technical material, the design life prescribed in
the Concession Agreement constitutes a material and relevant
consideration which cannot be ignored.
470. As BIAL has submitted the technical assessment and justification
for considering lower useful life for existing runway and taxiway
in response to the consultation paper. The said report is at
th
Annexure R-19 dated 12 April, 2018 and without considering the
same AERA has stated that no new facts/details were provided
by BIAL at the time of consultation paper, whereas every detail
has already given in response to the consultation paper by this
appellant.
471. It is highly dangerous to brush aside technical report submitted
by BIAL for lower or shorter life of existing runway. AERA should
not have replaced its own subjective decision against technical
Page 289 of 546
report. Runway is the crucial part of the airport. If the technical
report says its life is 20 years, normally must have been accepted
by AERA. Slight error in this assessment will lead to disastrous
consequences. It has been observed in paragraph 1.1.10 of
Schedule 9, Part 1, of Concession Agreement, which is at
Annexure A-3 Pg. 803, which provides as under:
“… The design life for the flexible pavement is 20
years.”
472. Moreover, Clause 2.6.17 of Annexure II of Order No. 35/2017-
18, “useful life would depend on design life planned at the time
of consideration of pavement……”
473. In conspectus of above, as the appellant had also placed technical
justification before AERA in support of the claim of 20 years. The
regulatory decision was therefore required to examine the
airport-specific design and technical material and determine
whether the appellant had satisfactorily justified adoption of the
lower end of the 20–30 year range.
474. A general proposition that runways at other airports have been
assigned a useful life of 30 years cannot displace this exercise.
Regulatory consistency is relevant only where the underlying
technical circumstances are comparable. The very existence of a
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permitted range under Order No. 35 indicates that AERA itself did
not proceed on the premise that every runway necessarily
possesses an identical useful life.
475. We are also unable to accept that the technical report could be
disregarded merely because an earlier tariff order had adopted a
different useful life. The impugned determination for the Third
Control Period was required to be supported on the material
relevant to the determination in question, particularly where the
appellant had expressly relied upon Order No. 35, the Concession
Agreement and technical assessment.
476. The runway is undoubtedly one of the most critical elements of
airport infrastructure. Precisely for that reason, determination of
its useful life must be founded upon technical material rather than
upon a broad assumption derived from the treatment accorded
to runways at other airports.
477. In view of this all the reasons stated herein above, and the
concession agreement prescribes design life of existing runway
as 20 years. It ought to have been considered by AERA. In fact,
AERA should have been “extremely slow” in changing useful life
of existing runway within what's assessed by the assessment
report given by the airport operator, based upon technical
Page 291 of 546
assessment and the reasons given therein vide report dated
2018, (Annexure R19).
478. We, therefore, quash and set aside the decision of AERA of
considering useful life of existing runway as 30 years. We hereby
direct AERA to accept useful life of existing runway as 20 years.
D. Runway Top Layer
th
479. As per impugned tariff order dated 28 August, 2021 (Annexure
A1), especially looking to paragraph 3.6.29(d), to the AERA has
considered useful life of runway top layer as against the demand
of appellant to consider the useful life of top layer of runway as
five years. For ready reference, the paragraph 3.6.29(d) of the
impugned order reads as under.
“ 3.6.29 The Authority has carefully examined comments from
BIAL, FIH, Siemens, MIAL and APAO on the true-up of
the depreciation of SCP and have given its analysis and
decision below:
..
..
d) Asset class - Runway lop layer - The Authority has
noted BIAL's submission to consider the useful life of
the runway top layer as 5 years instead of 30 years
as considered by the Authority. Similar to the canopy
assets, the runway top layer is also part of the
runway asset and therefore, the Authority cannot
Page 292 of 546
have two different useful life for runway top layer and
the runway. Accordingly, the Authority decides to
consider the useful life of 30 years for runway top
layer similar to the runway. Further, it may be noted
that the resurfacing of top layer of the runway is
allowed as R&M cost and amortized over 5 year
period. ”
480. Here also in pursuance of useful life order published by AERA,
order No.35/2017-18, if airport operator is claiming lower or
shorter useful life, the technical assessment report ought to have
been supplied along with the reasons in the facts of the present
case. BIAL has carried out technical report and the report of
th
Chartered Engineer has also been submitted by BIAL, dated 12
April, 2018 (Annexure R9), and as per technical report submitted
by BIAL, useful life of top layers of runway is claimed as five
years.
481. This report has not been considered at all by AERA while passing
the impugned order. No reasons have been given by AERA for
rejection of the said report, and hence also the impugned order
passed by AERA considering useful life of 30 years
482. In our considered opinion here also AERA should have been
extremely slow in its own subjective decision against objective
Page 293 of 546
assessment given in the form of technical report by the chartered
engineer (Annexure R19).
483. Even as per the Companies Act and Order No. 35/2017-18,
Annexure R-41, the useful life of top layer of runway is five years.
Despite this fact, AERA has ignored this provision and considered
useful life of top layer of runway as 30 years. For the ready
reference, Note 5 of Order No.35/2017-18, Annexure R-41 reads
as under:
“5. Runway/Taxiway- If there is different rate adopted
by airport operator between 20 to 30 years, the same
should be justified and backed up suitable technical
clarification, which will be critically examined by the
authority and the view taken on the same.”
484. It has been observed by AERA while considering the useful life of
top layer of runway as 30 years, thus, the same asset cannot
have two different useful lives. Therefore, claim of airport
operator was brushed aside.
485. Looking to Schedule II of Companies Act, it provides for
componentization of assets, where if significant component of an
asset has a different useful life vis-a-vis the useful life of
remaining part of assets, then the useful life of that significant
part shall be determined separately, i.e. in an aircraft engine has
Page 294 of 546
a different useful life then furniture and seating etc. have
different useful life. Here also top layer of the runway has to be
paved repeatedly keeping the base of runway as it's for the longer
time.
486. It is a fact that the top layer performs a distinct function and is
subjected directly to continuous impact, friction and weather
exposure. Its consumption and renewal pattern is therefore
capable of being materially different from the structural
pavement forming the underlying runway. We are therefore of
the considered view that the runway top layer is capable of
separate treatment for depreciation purposes and that the claim
of a five-year useful life could not have been rejected on the
reasoning adopted by AERA.
487. This aspect of the matter has not been properly appreciated by
AERA. Lament type of reasoning has been given by AERA and
that too in highly technical aspect about the runway and its top
layer at the airport. In fact, AERA should have accepted the
technical assessment report for such a highly sensitive part of the
airport as it is, instead of substituting its own arbitrary decision
of the useful life period. AERA has converted useful life of five
Page 295 of 546
years of the top layer of the runway as 30 years, which is
absolutely arbitrary and whimsical.
488. Accordingly, the decision contained in paragraph
3.6.29(d) is quashed and set aside and AERA is directed
to consider the useful life of the runway top layer as five
years for depreciation purposes. It is, however, clarified
that there shall be no double recovery. If expenditure on
subsequent resurfacing has independently been
admitted under the Repair and Maintenance head and
amortised over five years, the same expenditure cannot
again be recovered through depreciation of the
capitalised asset.
E. Computation of depreciation at individual-asset
level
489. The final limb of Issue No. XVI concerns the methodology
adopted by AERA for computing aeronautical depreciation. Under
paragraph 3.6.29(h) of the impugned order, AERA has computed
aeronautical depreciation by applying the aeronautical asset ratio
instead of computing depreciation at the level of individual assets.
Page 296 of 546
For ready reference paragraph 3.6.29(h) of the impugned order
reads as under:
“ … (h) The Authority has noted BIAL's comment related to the
application of the aeronautical proportion of RAB of a
respective year to compute the aeronautical
depreciation. The Authority is of the view that the
aeronautical asset ratio captures the aeronautical to
non-aeronautical bifurcation of assets and the same can
be adopted for computation of the aeronautical and
non-aeronautical depreciation for the Second Control
Period. Further, the approach adopted by the Authority
brings consistency to the aeronautical depreciation
computation across airports. ”
490. BIAL has placed on record a detailed Fixed Asset Register wherein
individual assets are separately identified and classified as
aeronautical assets, non-aeronautical assets or common assets.
According to the appellant, the depreciation attributable to
aeronautical activities can therefore be directly determined for
identifiable aeronautical assets, whereas only depreciation
relating to common assets requires allocation in the appropriate
aeronautical ratio.
491. AERA has justified its methodology on the ground that the
aeronautical asset ratio captures the aeronautical and non-
aeronautical bifurcation of the assets and that use of such ratio
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also provides consistency in depreciation computation across
airports.
492. AERA's own order records that the aeronautical asset ratio is a
proxy, described as capturing the aeronautical to non
aeronautical bifurcation of assets. A proxy is, by definition, an
approximation adopted in place of a more precise measure, and
is ordinarily resorted to only where the more precise measure is
unavailable or impractical to compute.
493. Here, the more precise measure, being individual asset wise
depreciation drawn from the Appellant's own Fixed Asset
Register, was placed before AERA. AERA has not found that
Register to be unreliable, incomplete or impractical to use. It has
simply preferred the proxy without explaining why the underlying
data, once available, should be set aside in favour of an
approximation of it.
494. The aforesaid approach of AERA is prima facie incorrect because
different assets have different useful life. The present appellant
has given detailed Fixed Asset Register (FAR), whereunder the
individual asset details have been listed together with clarification
under the heads of AERA asset, non-aeronautical assets, or
common assets.
Page 298 of 546
495. It ought to be noted that an overall ratio derived from the gross
asset block may accurately represent the relative capital value of
aeronautical and non-aeronautical assets, but it does not
necessarily follow that annual depreciation will arise in precisely
the same proportion.
496. To illustrate, a high-value asset having a long useful life may
contribute significantly to gross block value but comparatively
less to annual depreciation, whereas a lower-value asset having
a shorter useful life may contribute disproportionately more to
the annual depreciation charge. Consequently, application of the
gross-block ratio to the aggregate depreciation amount can
distort attribution of depreciation between aeronautical and non-
aeronautical activities.
497. AERA should be mindful of the fact that where a detailed Fixed
Asset Register exists and each individual asset is capable of
identification and classification, the more accurate methodology
is to compute depreciation with reference to the individual asset
itself.
498. Directly identifiable aeronautical assets should therefore carry the
depreciation attributable to those assets; directly identifiable non-
aeronautical assets should similarly be separately accounted for;
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and only depreciation relating to genuinely common assets
requires allocation between the aeronautical and non-
aeronautical segments.
499. Learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of the appellant, Mr.
Sajan Poovayya, has rightly submitted that there will be
significant difference if the depreciation can be based upon asset
allocation ratio and based upon individual asset depreciation. The
same has been tabled as under:
Particulars FY17 FY 18 FY 19 FY 20
AERA’s method 90.80% 90.35% 90.04% 92.78%
BIAL’S method 92.44% 90.38% 88.75% 90.56%
500. In view of the aforesaid facts and reasons, we hereby quash and
set aside the decision of AERA in paragraph 3.6.29 (h), whereby
AERA has calculated depreciation on aero asset ratio. We hereby
direct AERA to accept the calculation of depreciation based upon
“individual assets”.
501. The object of maintaining consistency across airports cannot
justify application of a methodology which ceases to reflect the
actual depreciation attributable to the assets concerned.
Regulatory consistency means that similarly situated cases should
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ordinarily be treated similarly; it does not require asset portfolios
having materially different compositions and useful lives to be
subjected to an identical mathematical approximation
irrespective of the availability of more accurate asset-specific
data.
502. In fact the proviso to Section 13(1)(a) of the AERA Act itself
contemplates that different tariffs may be determined for
different airports. The controlling consideration must therefore
remain whether the adopted methodology produces a fair and
rational attribution of the relevant regulatory building block.
503. In view of the aforesaid facts and reasons, we are of the
considered view that the methodology adopted by AERA
in paragraph 3.6.29(h) of the impugned order cannot be
sustained. We hereby quash and set aside the decision of
AERA contained in paragraph 3.6.29(h) insofar as
depreciation has been computed by applying the overall
aeronautical asset ratio .
504. AERA is directed to compute depreciation at the individual-asset
level on the basis of the Fixed Asset Register and the appropriate
classification of the concerned assets as aeronautical, non-
aeronautical or common. In respect of common assets, the
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appropriate aeronautical allocation ratio may thereafter be
applied to the depreciation attributable to such common assets.
505. Consequential effect shall accordingly be given while
recomputing depreciation, Regulatory Asset Base, return
on RAB, ARR and such other regulatory building blocks as
are affected thereby. Issue No. XVI is accordingly
answered in favour of the Appellant.
ISSUE XVII: Carry forward of the Aggregate Revenue
Requirement (ARR)
506. It is submitted by learned senior counsel Mr. Sajan Poovayya,
appearing on behalf of the appellant, that AERA has allowed
carried forward of shortfall of rupees 940.63 crores as on 31st
March 2022 to the next control period 2026-2032. It has been
observed in paragraph 13.6.3 of the impugned order, which reads
as under:
“13.6.3 To carry forward the shortfall of INR 940.63 cr. as on 31
March 2022 to the next control period.”
507. AERA must act under the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority
of India Act, 2008, read with the Concession Agreement,
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Annexures A-3 and A-4, and the State Support Agreement,
Annexure R-23.
508. There is no provision under the AERA Act, 2008 that ARR
(aggregate revenue required), after its determination for a
particular control period, can be carried forward in the next
control period, meaning thereby, part of ARR will not be allowed
to be recovered, though it is required for running the concerned
airport smoothly and efficiently, and such unreserved part of ARR
will be allowed to be recovered from future passenger in the next
control period. This practice has already been deprecated by this
Tribunal in various decisions, and it has been held by this Tribunal
that AERA has no power, jurisdiction and authorities to direct the
airport operator to recover part of ARR of one control period in
the next control period.
509. It has been held by this Tribunal in paragraph 485, 491 and 492
in case of HIAL Vs. AERA, in AERA Appeal No.4 of 2021 ,
which reads as under:
“ 485. AERA has no power, jurisdiction or authority to apply
the “True Up Mechanism” by reducing the determined
ARR to make it recoverable in the next Control Period.
It ought to be kept in mind that ARR is determined in a
particular Control Period which entitles the Airport
Operator to recover the said amount during the period
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of 5 years of that Control Period and if there is any over-
recovery or under-recovery by the Airport Operator,
then “True Up Mechanism” can be applied during next
Control Period, but, there is no power vested in AERA,
not to allow the Airport Operator to recover part of ARR
of one Control Period and thereafter to allow to recover
that postponed part of ARR to be recovered in the next
Control Period.
491. ‘Moreover, looking to Section 13(1)(a)(i) of the AERA
Act, 2008 mandates AERA to determine tariff for
aeronautical services taking into consideration the
“Capital Expenditure incurred and timely investment in
the improvement of the airport facilities”. There is also
violation of Tariff Guidelines Clause 6.2 by AERA if
postponement of recovery of ARR is allowed because
“Y, Yield per Passenger, calculated by AERA must be
equal to ARR divided by Volume estimated in the tariff
year.
492. Meaning thereby to if the recovery of part of ARR is to
be postponed, there will be mismatch of ARR and “Y”.
We, therefore, quash and set aside the decision of AERA
to postpone the part of recovery of ARR in the next
Page 266 of 292 Control Period and direct AERA to allow
Airport Operator to recover ARR during the Control
Period. ”
510. This Tribunal, in Mangaluru International Airport Limited v.
AERA, being AERA Appeal No. 1 of 2023 , paragraphs 163 to
179, has held to the same effect, that the Authority cannot
postpone recovery of a determined Requirement into a later
control period under the name of true up or of balance among
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stakeholders. For ready reference, relevant paragraphs reads as
under:
“ 166. Moreover, whenever such type of ARR is carried
forward, it will lead to a situation that future passengers
and other stakeholders will have to bear more burden
which is carried forward from the earlier control periods.
167. Such type of carry forward of ARR will lead to a situation
that significant funds for justified projects and
operational expenses which are proposed (which are
based on the actual cost), and which are considered in
the current ARR and if the part of ARR is to be carried
forward, it will have a direct impact upon the completion
of justified projects and it will have a bearing upon
operation and management of the airports. Once the
ARR is decided by AERA, it has to be allowed to be
recovered from the stakeholders. Such type of ARR or
part thereof cannot be postponed to be recovered in the
next control period. It ought to be kept in mind that ARR
is to be arrived at by applying the following calculation
methodology:
ARR = (FRoR x RAB) + D + O + T – NAR
168. Thus, the aforesaid calculation of ARR is for 1st control
period i.e. 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026. All the
parameters of the aforesaid formula are of the aforesaid
period of 5 years. The airport operator has to purchase
the services and the payments are to be made to various
bodies by the airport operator. These payments etc.
cannot be hampered by postponing recovery of part of
ARR in the next control period, there are cascading
effects of such type of orders by AERA.
Page 305 of 546
169. It ought to be kept in mind by AERA that the airport
operators - appellants have presented all the
calculations for determination of ARR based upon,
actual cost to be incurred, by the airport operator in 5
years. After accepting the figures based upon actual
cost, AERA has been determining ARR and thereafter it
is highly unreasonable for AERA to postpone the
recovery of ARR which is known as carry forward of part
of ARR in the next control period. Because of
postponement of ARR, the cost to be incurred by the
airport operator cannot be postponed. The gap between
the two, will lead to further debt to be incurred by the
airport operator and more the debt, more will be the
cost of debt and more the cost of debt will result into
more FRoR.
170. As per Section 13 of the AERA Act, 2008, AERA has to
take into consideration several factors for determination
of the tariff. After determining the tariff, AERA cannot
defer ARR. AERA is acting beyond its jurisdiction
because AERA Act, 2008 does not prescribe deferring
the ARR.
171. The deferment of ARR in the next control period will
tantamount to double jeopardy to the appellant because
on one hand to fulfill the legal obligations under the
Concession Agreement, airport operator has to make
payment within a time bound schedule whereas on the
other hand, the part of its ARR is getting deferred or
carried forward in the next control period of 5 years,
meaning thereby to, the cash flow of the airport
operator will get impacted which has direct bearing and
nexus with the Operation, Management and
Development Agreement of the airport. There is already
a delay in passing the impugned order by 2 years and,
therefore, the airport operator is recovering tariffs at the
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old rates and now a part of approximately 30% of ARR
is being postponed or carried out in the next control
period of 5 years. That is not permissible in the eyes of
law, especially as per Section 13 of AERA Act, 2008.
172. If this cash flow is obstructed by the impugned order
by postponing or by deferring a part of ARR in the next
control period, which has direct bearing upon airport
operations and potential of worsening credit profile of
the appellant and will escalate the current Cost of Debt
beyond 12%. No justifiable reasons are provided by
AERA in the impugned order in support of decision of
deferment of ARR in the next control period.
173. AERA should have appreciated that the Payment to
Airport Authority of India is never postponed. Thus,
30% of ARR is postponed and out of the 70% of total
ARR, all legal obligations including payments to Airport
Authority of India has to be done, as if 100% ARR has
been recovered, by the airport operator. A statutory
regulator, respondent No.1 – AERA, is not only
obligated, to create a balance, between the consumers
and the stakeholders, but, also to balance the interest
of airport operators.
174. AERA has not properly appreciated the National Civil
Aviation Policy 2016, which emphasizes the need to
encourage privatization and regulatory certainty in the
airport sector. Under NCAP, 2016, there is no definition
of the term “excess amount”. The term “excess amount”
is a subjective term and has been used at a
disadvantage of the appellant. AERA has failed to
consider in the impugned order that there are two
airport operators, namely Airport Authority of India and
the appellant. ARR includes true-up for Airport Authority
of India for the previous control period which is one of
the key components in determination of ARR and the
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resultant tariff. True-up to the Respondent No. 2 -
Airport Authority of India is to be made upfront
whereas, appellant recovers the same over the control
period of 5 years. Without appreciating these aspects of
the matter, the Respondent No. 1- AERA has decided to
carry forward approximately 30% of ARR to the next
control period arbitrarily.
175. ARR cannot be recovered in a piecemeal manner,
because the legal obligations to be carried out and the
concession agreement have to be fulfilled at the same
time and not in a piecemeal manner and therefore, it
will create an imbalance between the payment schedule
and “the income” which is determined in the form of
ARR for operating the airport. ARR is a justified claim of
the airport operator determined by AERA. Now this
justified claim of ARR cannot be postponed under the
AERA Act, 2008.
176. Moreover, it also appears from the facts of the case
that Principles of Natural Justice have also been violated
because AERA has never pointed out in the consultation
paper that how much amount of ARR will be postponed
or will be carried forward in the next control period of 5
years. Thus, without giving opportunity of being heard
to the appellant, unilaterally AERA has decided to defer
the part of collection of ARR which is approximately
30% to be recovered in the next control period.
Therefore also, the decision of AERA to postpone the
recovery of ARR or to carry forward some portion of ARR
in the next control period is arbitrary and in violation of
AERA Act, 2008 and the same is hereby quashed and
set aside. ”
511. There is no dispute that ARR represents the revenue requirement
which, upon application of the regulatory building blocks and
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permissible adjustments, has been determined by AERA itself as
being required for the economic and viable operation of the
concerned airport during the relevant Control Period. Once such
ARR has been determined, postponement of its recovery has
consequences materially different from a subsequent true-up on
account of an actual over-recovery or under-recovery.
512. In the facts of the present case, deferment of ₹940.63 crore of
ARR to the succeeding Control Period was not proposed by AERA
in the Consultation Paper. It is true that certain stakeholders had
sought moderation or non-increase of tariff in the backdrop of
the COVID-19 pandemic. A suggestion by stakeholders against
increase of tariff, however, cannot by itself be equated with
disclosure by the statutory regulator of a concrete proposal to
carry forward ₹940.63 crore of determined ARR into another
Control Period.
513. If AERA intended to adopt deferment of ARR as a regulatory
methodology, particularly to this substantial extent, the proposal
ought to have formed part of the consultation exercise so that
the Airport Operator as well as other stakeholders could address
its legal basis, quantum, financial consequences, impact upon
Page 309 of 546
cash flows and consequences for passengers in the succeeding
Control Period.
514. AERA is undoubtedly required to take into consideration the
interests of all stakeholders, including airlines and passengers.
The statutory obligation to balance stakeholder interests,
however, operates within the powers conferred by the AERA Act.
It cannot by itself constitute an independent source of jurisdiction
to adopt a tariff methodology which the statute does not
authorise.
515. It ought to be understood by AERA that Section 13(1)(a)(vii),
which permits consideration of “any other factor which may be
relevant for the purposes of this Act”, be construed as conferring
an unrestricted equitable jurisdiction upon AERA. The expression
“any other factor” enlarges the range of considerations relevant
to exercise of the tariff-determination power; it does not enlarge
the statutory power itself.
516. AERA is a creature of statute. The legitimacy of the objective
sought to be achieved cannot substitute for the existence of
statutory authority to employ the particular means adopted for
achieving that objective. Thus, even if tariff moderation during
the unprecedented COVID-19 period was a legitimate regulatory
Page 310 of 546
consideration, such consideration could be pursued only through
a measure authorised by the statute and after compliance with
the statutory procedure.
517. As per Section 13(4) of AERA Act 2008, AERA is publishing
consultation paper and inviting objections about the report, tariff
order, and after receiving suggestions from the stakeholders,
from all the stakeholders, AERA has passed tariff order. In the
facts of the present case, deferment of ARR for third control
period was never proposed in the consultation paper and
therefore this decision is violative of principles of natural justice
and also violative under Section 13(4) of AERA Act 2008.
518. It has been stated by AERA that for Varanasi, Amritsar and
Tiruchirappalli and Raipur, ARR was deferred. If this is a common
practice adopted by AERA, then it should have been mentioned
in the consultation paper. For Varanasi, Amritsar, an addendum
of consultation paper was issued, whereas in the facts of the
present case, deferment of ARR was never referred in the
consultation paper nor addendum to consultation paper was ever
published by AERA. Moreover, for DIAL and MIAL airports, there
is no carry forward of ARR.
Page 311 of 546
519. There is, in our considered view, a fundamental distinction
between a true-up and a predetermined deferment of an
admitted ARR . True-up operates after the event as it reconciles
the forecast adopted at tariff determination with actual revenues,
costs, traffic and other admissible parameters. Deferment of ARR
of the kind presently under consideration operates at the anterior
stage i.e. AERA first determines the legitimate revenue
requirement and thereafter consciously prevents a quantified part
thereof from being recovered during the very Control Period for
which it was determined. To characterise the latter exercise as a
mere species of true-up would conflate two conceptually distinct
regulatory functions.
520. Moreover, Paragraph 12(c) of NCAP 2016 states, in substance,
holds that if tariff in a particular year or contractual period turns
out to be excessive , the airport operator and regulator should
explore ways of keeping tariff reasonable and spreading the
excess over the future. Two features of this policy are significant.
First, the contemplated action arises where the tariff “turns out
to be excessive”. Secondly, the Policy speaks of the airport
operator and regulator exploring ways to deal with such
excess. It does not confer upon AERA an independent statutory
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power unilaterally to excise a part of otherwise eligible ARR and
postpone it to another Control Period.
521. Once AERA has itself examined the relevant regulatory building
blocks and determined the eligible ARR, the resulting revenue
requirement cannot, without further statutory foundation,
simultaneously be characterised as an “excess amount” merely
because recovery thereof would result in a higher tariff. A higher
tariff and an unlawful or excessive tariff are not synonymous.
Whether tariff is excessive must be determined within the
statutory and regulatory framework; it cannot be inferred merely
from the magnitude of the tariff resulting from an otherwise
admitted ARR.
522. We are equally unable to accept the additional justification sought
to be founded upon the guiding principles of the International
Civil Aviation Organization or upon the assertion that the tariff
sought by the Appellant was excessive, when such reasons do
not form part of the impugned decision itself. The settled
principle laid down by the Hon'ble Supreme Court in Mohinder
Singh Gill v. Chief Election Commissioner, (1978) 1 SCC 405, is
that the validity of an order made by a statutory authority must
be judged on the reasons contained in the order and cannot
Page 313 of 546
thereafter be supplemented by fresh reasons through affidavits
or pleadings. The principle applies with full force to the present
case. A statutory order cannot be sustained by reasons
discovered after its legality has been called in question.
523. We are of the considered opinion that AERA has traveled beyond
the scheme of AERA Act. AERA has no equity jurisdiction. AERA
is a body owing its existence because of statute and therefore
AERA must be abide by the nature and the extent of its
jurisdiction as defined in the statute itself. Deferment of ARR is
not permissible even under Section 13(1)(a)(vii) of AERA Act,
2008.
524. We, therefore, quash and set aside the decision of AERA
contained in paragraph 13.6.3 of the impugned Tariff
Order insofar as it directs the carry forward of ₹940.63
crore of ARR from the Third Control Period to the Fourth
Control Period.
525. AERA shall, therefore, while giving effect to this
judgment in the Fourth Control Period, undertake the
consequential re-computation and adjustment necessary
to place the appellant, so far as the tariff framework
permits, in the same economic position in which it would
Page 314 of 546
have stood had the unlawful deferment not been made,
including the appropriate time-value/carrying-cost
consequences, without reopening any other finally
determined component except to the extent
consequentially necessary. Issue No. XVII is accordingly
answered in favour of the Appellant.
ISSUE XVIII: Consideration of Interest Income for the
purpose of tariff determination
526. AERA, while passing the impugned Tariff Order dated
28.08.2021, has, by its decision contained in paragraph 8.6.3
thereof, treated the interest income earned by the Airport
Operator i.e. the Appellant as non-aeronautical revenue and has
consequently brought the prescribed portion thereof within the
computation of cross-subsidy for determination of aeronautical
tariff.
527. For the purposes of the shared revenue till applicable to BIAL,
the Aggregate Revenue Requirement for Aeronautical Services is
determined broadly in accordance with the following formula:
“ARRt= (FRoR x RABt) + Dt + Ot + Tt –( x NARt)”
⍺
Page 315 of 546
528. In the aforesaid formula NARt represents the gross revenue
received from services other than aeronautical services and ⍺
(alpha) represents the prescribed percentage thereof taken into
consideration for determination of aeronautical tariff. Thus, by
treating interest income as non-aeronautical revenue, AERA has
subjected the prescribed portion of such interest income to cross-
subsidisation of the aeronautical ARR.
529. Learned Senior Counsel Mr. Sajan Poovayya, appearing on behalf
of the Appellant, has submitted that interest income does not
partake of the character either of aeronautical revenue or of non-
aeronautical revenue. According to the Appellant, such income is
generated on account of deployment and management of surplus
funds and is not consideration received for rendition of any
aeronautical or non-aeronautical service.
530. We find considerable force in the aforesaid submission. Section
13(1)(a)(v) of the AERA Act permits AERA, while determining
tariff for aeronautical services, to take into consideration the
revenue received from services other than aeronautical
services . The statutory emphasis is thus upon revenue having
its source in the rendition of services and resultantly, interest
earned by reason of deposit or investment of surplus funds does
Page 316 of 546
not, merely by reason of the source from which the corpus
originated, become revenue received from an aeronautical or
non-aeronautical service.
531. AERA ought to have understood these fine niceties and the
distinction between the source of the corpus and the juridical
source of the income earned upon deployment of that corpus.
The mere fact that surplus cash may originally have arisen from
airport operations does not necessarily determine the character
of the return subsequently earned upon its investment. Interest
earned from bank deposits, fixed deposits, treasury deployment
or similar cash-management instruments arises from the financial
deployment of surplus funds and not from rendition of airport
services to passengers, airlines, concessionaires or any other
users.
532. We are of the opinion that interest income earned through
prudent cash management is, therefore, properly capable of
being regarded as “Other Income”. It is neither consideration for
an aeronautical service nor revenue received from a service other
than an aeronautical service. AERA cannot enlarge the statutory
expression “revenue received from services other than
aeronautical services” so as to encompass every accretion to the
Page 317 of 546
funds of an Airport Operator irrespective of the juridical source of
such accretion.
533. In fact several past decision of this tribunal has led to this issue
no longer being res integra. This Tribunal in Mumbai
International Airport Ltd. v. AERA , being AERA Appeal No. 2
of 2021, decided on 06.10.2023, examined substantially the same
contention of AERA that dividend and interest income ultimately
arose out of revenues generated from aeronautical and non-
aeronautical activities. For ready reference the same reads as
under:
“ 210. Learned Senior Counsel for the respondent has further
contended that interest income is derived by investing
surplus funds which is primarily from aeronautical
services and, therefore, interest income is a part of
revenue from revenue share assets. This contention is
also not accepted by this Tribunal mainly for the reason
that “bank interest”, “interest on Fixed Deposit
Receipts” (FDRs) are not included in Schedule-6 of
OMDA because they are not arising out of Revenue
Share Assets. Such type of income is to the appellant
because of Cash Management Process (CMP). In fact,
there is no legal base to treat “other income” as a part
of revenue, from “Revenue Share Assets” for calculation
of cross-subsidization (for calculation of “S” factor).
211. This kind of addition by AERA of “other income” as part
of revenue from revenue share assets is beyond bargain
(i.e. beyond the terms of contract).
Page 318 of 546
212. In a situation where the terms of contract (i.e. SSA &
OMDA) are explicitly clear, nobody can presume any
addition, deletion or modification of the terms of the
agreement/contract.
213. The position is similar in case of interest on delayed
payment. This interest on delayed payment is levied by
MIAL to ensure efficient timely recovery and fund
carrying cost. In fact, this income is not relatable to
rendition of any services by MIAL to its debtors, so that
it can be included as revenue from non-aeronautical or
aeronautical services and, therefore, interest on delayed
payment is outside the purview of the revenue from
“Revenue Share Assets”. Further, the approach of
taking “Other income” as part of “S” will disincentivize
MIAL to pursue for recovery of the outstanding amount
due to MIAL and also from effectively investing the
surplus funds in any manner, which will not be in the
interest of any party.
214. AERA is required to maintain consistency in their
approach. During First Control Period, “other income” of
the appellant was not treated as part of revenue from
“Revenue Share Assets” and no reasons have been
given by AERA for departure from the principles adopted
in First Control Period and thus, there is a violation of
Section 13(4) of AERA Act, 2008. Unjustifiably
inconsistent interpretations of the rules of the game are
more problematic, in so far as they create severe
uncertainty and unpredictability in the making of
investments and for national regulatory choice. AERA
cannot take different view in different Control Periods. ”
534. This Tribunal in the case of Delhi International Airport
Limited Vs. AERA, being AERA Appeal No. 1 of 2021 ,
Page 319 of 546
decided on 21.07.2023 has held that other income is not relatable
to and generated from the provision of any service by the Airport
Operator and therefore cannot be considered for cross-
subsidization of aeronautical charges, and that such addition is
beyond the terms of the contract.
535. We are conscious of the material fact that the DIAL and MIAL
judgments arose under the contractual framework of OMDA and
the respective State Support Agreements and that the
terminology of “Revenue Share Assets” and “S-factor” employed
therein does not form part of BIAL’s concession structure in
precisely the same manner.
536. However, the relevance of the aforesaid judgements lies in the
principle underlying the ratio decidendi being that a receipt which
does not arise from rendition of a regulated service does not
acquire the character of service revenue merely because the
corpus employed to generate such receipt originally arose from
airport operations.
537. Moreover, the applicability of that aforesaid principle, was
extended to a greenfield airport operating under a concession
framework closer to the present case in GMR Hyderabad
International Airport Ltd. v. AERA , AERA Appeal No. 4 of
Page 320 of 546
2021 , decided on 14.02.2024. In paragraphs 346 to 350, this
Tribunal held that interest income, treasury income and similar
receipts were not relatable to or generated from provision of any
service by the Airport Operator and were, therefore, outside
AERA’s regulatory ambit. For ready reference the aforesaid
paragraphs reads as under:
“ 346.The impugned decision of AERA treating income of
dividend and interest income from Cargo Subsidiary as
aeronautical revenue and from duty free subsidiary as
non-aeronautical revenue is not tenable in law mainly
for the reason that the interest income and interest from
treasury (e.g. income from fixed deposit/mutual fund
etc.) in general, accruing to HIAL is not relatable to and
generated from the provision of any service being
provided by HIAL. This aspect of the matter has not
been appreciated by AERA while passing the impugned
order and hence, the same deserves to be quashed and
set aside for the aforesaid point.
347. In the present case, AERA’s decision to treat dividend
and interest income received by HIAL from investments
made in HMACPL (providing cargo service) as
aeronautical revenue is based on a misconceived
premise that because AERA has decided to treat cargo
services as aeronautical in nature any income incidental
therefrom is also to be treated as aeronautical. Similarly,
for investment made by HIAL in other entity which
provides duty free services, AERA has proceeded to
treat such income as non-aeronautical in nature and
consider it for cross subsidization. HIAL itself does not
provide these services and the interest income received
Page 321 of 546
by HIAL does not correspond to any services rendered
by HIAL and as such, it is beyond the regulatory ambit
of AERA.
348. Further, there is no specific provision to include “Other
Income” such as Interest income while calculating
Aggregate Revenue Requirement (ARR) as per the
provisions of the Concession Agreement (Annexure A-
3).
349. HIAL-Appellant-Airport operator has received Interest
income and treasury income from investing surplus fund
from time to time. Income interest in general and
treasury income accruing to HIAL is not relatable to any
services rendered by HIAL.
350.Interest Income and Income from Treasury in general
accruing to HIAL is not relatable to and generated from
the provision of any service being provided by HIAL.
Moreover, there is no specific provision to include Other
Income such as interest income while calculating ARR
as per the provisions of the Concession Agreement. The
subsidiaries of HIAL providing these services are
standalone entities and operate independently from
HIAL. As such the classification of the nature of the
services cannot constitute the basis of classification of
the revenue accruing to HIAL. AERA has thus
transgressed its statutory mandate by erroneously
seeking to bring within its regulatory purview, the
dividend and interest income received by HIAL on the
investments made by it. The revenue generated by HIAL
from Services only can be taken into consideration in
the formula of ARR which is as under:
“ARR= (FRoR x RAB) + D + O + T – NAR ”
Page 322 of 546
538. It ought to be seen that Section 13(1)(a)(v) of the AERA Act
requires the Authority to take into consideration revenue received
from services other than aeronautical services. The word services
is of significant importance. The revenue must be received from
a service. Interest income is not received from a service, rather
it is received from the investment of funds. There is no causal
connection between the interest income and any service
rendered by the Airport Operator. The Authority cannot bring
within the ambit of Section 13(1)(a)(v) income that has no
connection with the provision of services.
539. In view of the aforesaid facts, reasons and judicial
pronouncements, AERA has no power, jurisdiction and
authority to consider interest income for the purpose of
tariff determination. We, therefore, quash and set aside
the decision of AERA in paragraph 8.6.3 of the impugned
tariff order (Annexure A1), and we hereby hold that AERA
cannot consider the interest income for the purpose of
tariff determination .
540. AERA is directed not to consider interest income and
dividend income earned by the appellant through its cash
management process as part of the revenue from
Page 323 of 546
revenue share assets for the purpose of determining the
Aggregate Revenue Requirement. AERA shall carry out
the necessary true up in the Fourth Control Period tariff
order . Issue No. XVIII is accordingly answered in favour
of the Appellant.
ISSUE XIX: Consideration of 30% non-aeronautical
revenue used to cross subsidize aeronautical revenue
passed for computation of aeronautical taxes.
541. As per impugned tariff order, especially as per paragraph 9.2.5,
AERA has decided not to consider 30% of non-aeronautical
revenue while computing aeronautical taxation for the third
control period. For the ready reference, paragraph 9.2.5 of the
impugned tariff order reads as under:
“ 9 .2 .5 The Authority, in line with its decision for other
airports, proposes to not consider 30% of nonaeronautical
revenues while computing aeronautical taxation for the
Third Control Period .”
(Emphasis Supplied)
542. Under the Tariff Guidelines, 2011, Aggregate Revenue
Requirement is determined in accordance with the following
formula:
Page 324 of 546
“ARR = (FRoR x RAB) + D + O + T – NAR”
543. In the aforesaid formula, under the hybrid-till mechanism
applicable to the present tariff determination, only 30% of the
Non-Aeronautical Revenue is utilised for cross-subsidisation of
the aeronautical revenue requirement. Thus, to the extent of
such 30%, the Non-Aeronautical Revenue operates as a
mechanism for recovery of the otherwise eligible aeronautical
ARR.
544. Learned Senior Counsel Mr. Sajan Poovayya, appearing on behalf
of the Appellant, has submitted that once 30% of Non-
Aeronautical Revenue is statutorily and regulatorily appropriated
towards cross-subsidisation of aeronautical charges, the said
amount necessarily partakes the character of aeronautical
revenue for the limited purpose of determination of the tax
component “T”. Consequently, while arriving at the aeronautical
taxable base, tax attributable to such 30% NAR is required to be
taken into consideration.
545. To appreciate the conceptual underpinnings of the Hybrid Till
model adopted under the regulatory framework, it is necessary
to analyze the statutory scheme of Section 13(1)(a) of the AERA
Act, 2008 read alongside the Concession Agreement. Under a
Page 325 of 546
Hybrid Till framework, while non-aeronautical activities are
generally unregulated in terms of direct tariff fixation, a specified
quantum i.e. 30% of Non-Aeronautical Revenue (-factor or
credit) is statutorily and contractually deployed to lower the net
revenue requirement that would otherwise be recovered entirely
from aeronautical users (airlines and passengers). The 30% NAR
operates as an indispensable credit offset in the mathematical
equation defining the Aggregate Revenue Requirement ().
546. By mandating that 30% of non-aeronautical income be injected
into the ARR equation to reduce aeronautical tariffs, the
regulatory framework structurally converts that portion of non-
aeronautical revenue into a direct substitute for aeronautical tariff
realization. In economic and legal effect, what the airport
operator surrenders from its non-aeronautical earnings directly
replaces the tariff dollars that would otherwise have been levied
upon aeronautical users. Consequently, the 30% NAR loses its
pure non-aeronautical identity for regulatory accounting and
partakes the intrinsic character and partakes colour of
aeronautical revenue within the ARR matrix.
547. Turning to the tax component () in the ARR formula, is designed
as a pass-through regulatory building block to ensure that the
Page 326 of 546
airport operator recovers the statutory corporate tax burden
attributable to its regulated aeronautical operations. If 30% of
NAR is mandated to form part of the aeronautical revenue
entitlement to meet the Gross Target Revenue, the tax liability
generated on that 30% income stream cannot be discarded or
isolated.
548. Thus, excluding the tax on 30% NAR from the tax component ()
creates an artificial mismatch as it forces the operator to utilize
30% of its commercial earnings to subsidize airport users while
simultaneously bearing the uncompensated tax burden arising
from that very income.
549. We are unable to accept AERA’s contention that inclusion of tax
on such 30% NAR would amount to permitting over recovery of
the tax or would dilute the benefit of cross-subsidisation. It must
be noted that the cross-subsidy concerns the revenue required
to be contributed towards aeronautical ARR ; the tax
component concerns the tax consequence arising upon the
income which is treated as forming part of the
aeronautical revenue base . Recognition of the latter does not
restore to BIAL the 30% NAR already appropriated towards cross-
Page 327 of 546
subsidy, or does it permit recovery of that amount for a second
time.
550. To put it differently, the hybrid-till mechanism cannot be applied
asymmetrically. AERA cannot, for purposes of reducing
aeronautical ARR, treat 30% NAR as a source of aeronautical
recovery and, while calculating the tax attributable to that very
recovery, revert to its original non-aeronautical character and
exclude it from the aeronautical tax base. The same amount
cannot be treated as aeronautical when it operates to reduce the
recoverable ARR but as non-aeronautical when the corresponding
tax consequence is to be recognised and such treatment would
result in an internal inconsistency in the tariff computation itself.
551. This Tribunal has held, in the case of Delhi International
Airport Limited versus AERA, being AERA Appeal No. 1 of
2021 , judgment dated 21.07.2023, at paragraphs 137, 142, 143,
144 and 145, as under.
“ 137. We do not agree with the aforesaid reasons by AERA
mainly for the reason that because the target revenue
as per the aforesaid formula is determined, based on
aeronautical building block post cross subsidy of 30%
revenue from Revenue Share Assets and, therefore, out
of total target revenue, 30% has been recovered from
the revenue generated by JVC from Revenue Share
Page 328 of 546
Assets. In view of this formula of Target Revenue, it is
abundantly clear that in a recovery of Target Revenue
for aeronautical services, S-factor is one of the
mechanism of calculation in the formula of TR thus, the
amount of S-factor partakes the character of
aeronautical revenue and, therefore, once the part of
aeronautical revenue has been recovered from 30% of
revenue from Revenue Share Assets, the effect of S-
factor should also be given in T, that is, corporate tax
pertaining to aeronautical services.”
142. Thus, in view of the aforesaid facts and reasons, in the
formula of Target Revenue, amount equal to S factor
also partakes the color of aeronautical revenue and
looking to the definition of T in SSA which is a corporate
taxes on earnings pertaining to aeronautical services
and it is not on target revenue thus, upon an amount
equal to S-factor also, an amount equal to corporate tax
should be calculated.
143. We therefore quash and set aside the decision of AERA
which is 2nd and 3rd Tariff Order which are impugned
orders in these AERA Appeals to the extent that S-factor
is excluded as a part of aeronautical revenue base while
determining aeronautical taxes, that is, T. We hereby
hold that S-factor is a part of aeronautical revenue base
while determining aeronautical taxes, that is, T.
144. We do not agree with the contention of FIA that this
appellant had not raised this issue in the 1st Control
Period and, therefore, the appellant cannot raise this
issue in the 2nd Control Period and 3rd Control Period.
The present issue is based upon the correct
interpretation of SSA and OMDA to be read with AERA
Act, 2008 and, therefore, even if this appellant has not
Page 329 of 546
raised this issue in the 1st Control Period, for the 2nd
Control Period and 3rd Control Period this issue can
always be raised by this appellant. There is no need to
maintain consistency for wrong interpretation by the
appellant.
145. It ought to be kept in mind that in the formula of Target
Revenue, TRi equals RBi multiplied by WACCi plus OMi
plus Di plus Ti minus Si, T is to be calculated as an
amount equal to corporate taxes on earnings pertaining
to aeronautical services as defined in SSA, meaning
thereby that irrespective of the fact that tax is actually
paid or not, an amount equal to corporate taxes on the
earnings pertaining to aeronautical services, including
upon the amount of S-factor, should be added as T in
the formula of Target Revenue. The formula of Target
Revenue is an agreed formula as per the agreements
between the appellant and the Government of India.
The T factor is equal to an amount of corporate taxes.
This definition cannot be amended nor the formula can
be amended by AERA. We, therefore, quash and set
aside observations of AERA for the 2nd Control Period
as well as the 3rd Control Period, so far as they relate
to exclusion of S-factor as part of the aeronautical
revenue base while determining aeronautical taxes,
that is, T. We hereby hold that S-factor is to be included
as part of the aeronautical revenue base while
determining aeronautical taxes, that is, T, for the 2nd
as well as the 3rd Control Period, and consequently true
up has to be given for the earlier control periods also. ”
552. In view of the aforesaid decision, 30% of non-aeronautical
revenue used to cross subsidise aeronautical revenue partakes
Page 330 of 546
the character of aeronautical revenue, and ought accordingly to
be considered for computation of aeronautical taxes in the
formula for the Aggregate Revenue Requirement, which reads as
under:
“ARR = (FRoR x RAB) + D + O + T – NAR”
553. This Tribunal has further held, in the case of Hyderabad
International Airport Limited versus AERA, being AERA
Appeal No. 4 of 2021 , judgment dated 14.02.2024, under
paragraphs 423 and 424, which reads as follows:
“ 423. The aforesaid facts of the matter have not been properly
appreciated by AERA, and therefore, the decision of
AERA not to consider 30% of Non-Aeronautical
Revenue as part of Aeronautical Revenue Base for
computation of aeronautical taxes is incorrect, improper
and unjustified.
424. We, hereby direct AERA to consider (i) the calculation
of T on 30% of Non-Aeronautical Revenue because it
partakes the character of Aeronautical Revenue in
calculation of ARR as per the aforesaid formula, (ii) the
aeronautical taxable income computed as per the
normal provisions of the Income Tax Act, 1961.”
554. This Tribunal, in the case of Mangaluru International Airport
Limited versus AERA, being AERA Appeal No. 1 of 2023 ,
Page 331 of 546
under judgment dated 11.09.2025, considered the identical
question under the very formula applicable to this Appellant, and
held as under:
205. As per Tariff Guidelines, 2011 (Annexure A-16), the
formula for arriving at Aggregate Revenue Requirement
(ARR):
ARR = (FRoR x RAB) + D + O + T – NAR
In this formula, 30% of Non-Aeronautical
Revenue is to be utilized for cross-subsidization
and to that extent the value of ARR will be
reduced. Thus, 30% of the NAR partakes
character of aeronautical revenue. 30% of NAR
will be treated as aeronautical revenue for the
purpose of calculation of ARR and therefore the
same is deducted from the total value of ARR.
This is also known as Hybrid Till mechanism and
therefore while computing factor ‘T’ in the
aforesaid formula tax on 30% of NAR has to be
included because ‘T’ is equal to amount equal to
tax upon aeronautical revenue. As 30% of NAR
is to be treated as aeronautical revenue (as per
Hybrid Till mechanism) tax on 30% of NAR is to
be added in the value of ‘T’. This aspect of the
matter has already been argued out in more than
one AERA appeals and repeatedly it has been
decided that tax on 30% of NAR has to be
calculated while computing factor ‘T’ in the
aforesaid formula for arriving at ARR .
Page 332 of 546
555. On the one hand, AERA contends that DIAL and MIAL cannot
govern the present dispute because their contractual framework
is materially different from that applicable to BIAL. On the other
hand, it relies upon the pendency of the appeal arising from DIAL
as a reason why the present Appellant should not obtain
adjudication of its own challenge. The two positions cannot
comfortably stand together. In any event, our conclusion does
not rest on DIAL alone; it is independently supported by HIAL
and, more particularly, by Mangaluru, which considers the same
hybrid-till ARR formula.
556. The material placed before us also shows that AERA’s exclusion
of the 30% NAR from the aeronautical tax base was treated as
part of an existing regulatory methodology. There is nothing to
indicate that, while making the impugned determination, AERA
undertook any fresh examination capable of displacing the
reasoning subsequently adopted by this Tribunal in the aforesaid
judgments. Further AERA’s reliance upon the tax holiday under
Section 80-IA of the Income Tax Act,1961 or upon the treatment
of Minimum Alternate Tax does not alter our the answer to the
present issue.
Page 333 of 546
557. We make it clear that those questions concern the rate, incidence
and methodology of computing the admissible tax component,
whereas, the challenge before us in Issue No. XIX, presently,
concerns the logically anterior question as to what constitutes
the aeronautical revenue base upon which the tax
component is to be calculated .
558. These two questions must not be conflated and mixed up as
whatever may ultimately be the appropriate tax treatment under
the Income Tax Act or under the tariff methodology, the 30%
NAR which is utilised for cross-subsidisation cannot be excluded
from the aeronautical revenue base merely on the ground that it
originated as non-aeronautical income.
559. In view of the aforesaid facts, reason and judicial
pronouncements, we hereby quash and set aside the
decision of AERA in paragraph number 9.2.5 of the
impugned tariff order, Annexure A1, of not to consider
the 30% of non-aeronautical revenue while computing
aeronautical revenue for third control period. We hereby
direct AERA to consider tax on 30% of non-aeronautical
revenue while computing aeronautical revenue in
Page 334 of 546
calculation of ARR for third control period. Issue No. XIX
is accordingly answered in favour of the Appellant .
ISSUE XX: Jurisdiction of AERA to consider revenue from
Land Development Activities
560. Looking to the impugned tariff order dated 28th August, 2021
(Annexure A1) especially paragraph 8.2.48 thereof, AERA has
treated income from real estate as a part of non-aeronautical
revenue. For ready reference the same reads as under:
“Real Estate
8.2.48 The Authority noted that BIAL had not considered real
estate revenue as part of non – aeronautical revenue.
As per the decision taken by the Authority in the Second
Control Period order and based on the AERA Act, 2008,
AERA guidelines, concession agreement of BIAL and
th
Hon'ble TDSAT judgement dated 16 December 2020,
the Authority proposes to treat income from real estate
as part of non - aeronautical revenues.”
561. For appreciating the controversy, it is necessary to notice the
distinct definitions of “Airport” and “Site” contained in Article 1.1
of the Concession Agreement. “Airport” means the greenfield
international airport comprising the Initial Phase to be
constructed and operated by BIAL at Devanahalli and includes its
buildings, equipment, facilities and systems and, where the
Page 335 of 546
circumstances so require, any Expansion thereof as per the
Master Plan. “Site”, on the other hand, means the land in which
BIAL has or shall have a leasehold interest pursuant to the Land
Lease Agreement, measuring approximately 4,300 acres, on,
under and over which the Airport is to be constructed. For ready
reference the definition of Airport” and “Site” in Concession
Agreement (A-3) is reproduced below:
"Airport" means the greenfield
international airport comprising of the
Initial Phase, to be constructed and
operated by BIAL at Devanahalli, near
Bangalore in the State of Karnataka and
includes all its buildings, equipment,
facilities and systems and including,
where the circumstances so require, any
Expansion thereof, as per the master plan
annexed hereto as Attachment-1.
"Site" means the land in which BIAL has
or shall have a leasehold interest
pursuant to the Land Lease Agreement,
and measuring approximately 4300 acres
in area, on, under and over which the
Airport is to be constructed.
562. The use of two separate expressions in the Concession
Agreement is of significance as “Site” describes the larger parcel
of land made available to BIAL and “Airport” identifies the airport
Page 336 of 546
infrastructure comprising the Initial Phase and expansions
contemplated under the Concession Agreement. The two
expressions cannot be treated as synonymous or
interchangeable, for otherwise the separate definitions adopted
by the contracting parties would be rendered without meaning.
563. The distinction becomes clearer when Article 2.1.2 and Article
3.2.1 of the Concession Agreement are read with Parts I and II
of Schedule 3. Part I identifies “Airport Activities”, which include
aeronautical services as well as other services rendered at the
Airport. Part II separately identifies “Non-Airport Activities”. The
contractual framework, therefore, expressly contemplates that
activities may be undertaken upon the Site which do not, merely
by reason of their geographical location upon leased land,
become Airport Activities. For ready reference Article 2.1.2 and
3.2.1 of the Concessions Agreement reads as under:
“ ARTICLE 2
2 Scope of the Project
2.1 Scope of the Project
2.1.2 the operation and maintenance of
the Airport and performance of the
Airport Activities and Non-Airport
Activities in accordance with the
provisions of this Agreement; and
Page 337 of 546
xxx
3.2 Recognition of Rights
3.2.1 Subject to Applicable Laws and in
accordance with the provisions of this
Agreement, Gol recognises that BIAL may
carry out:
(i) any activity or business related or
ancillary to the activities referred to in
Article 3.1 or which BIAL considers
desirable or appropriate to be carried
on or engaged in connection
therewith (including any infrastructure
service considered by BIAL to be
reasonably necessary for the activities
referred to in Article 3.1 ); and
(ii) any activity or business in connection
with or related to the arrival,
departure and/or handling of aircraft,
passengers, baggage, cargo and/or
mail at the Airport; and
(iii) any activity or business in
connection with or related to the
development of the Site or
operation of the Airport to
generate revenues including the
development of commercial
ventures such as hotels,
restaurants, conference venues,
meeting facilities, business
centres, trade fairs, real estate,
theme parks, amusement
arcades, golf courses and other
sports and/or entertainment
facilities, banks and exchanges
and shopping malls.”
Page 338 of 546
564. We must, at this stage, deal specifically with the judgment dated
16.12.2020 rendered by the learned Single Member of this
Tribunal in Bangalore International Airport Limited v. AERA, AERA
Appeal Nos. 3 of 2014 and 8 of 2018, upon which AERA has
expressly relied while taking the impugned decision in paragraph
8.2.48 of the Tariff Order.
565. In paragraphs 32 to 40 of the said judgment, the learned Single
Member considered the contention of BIAL that revenue arising
from land-development activities undertaken outside the
precincts of the Airport was beyond the regulatory jurisdiction of
AERA. The contention was rejected principally on the reasoning
that, although the Concession Agreement separately defined the
expressions “Airport” and “Site”, the Concession Agreement,
State Support Agreement and Land Lease Agreement did not
demarcate the Site into separate areas so as to identify a limited
portion alone as constituting the Airport.
566. On that basis, it was held that the entire Site had been made
available for construction and development of the Airport and
that revenue generated from commercial ventures thereon could
appropriately be treated as Non-Aeronautical Revenue under the
shared-till regime.
Page 339 of 546
567. The aforesaid interpretation has subsequently been expressly
considered by the Division Bench of this Tribunal in Hyderabad
International Airport Limited v. AERA, AERA Appeal No. 4
of 2021 , decided on 14.02.2024. In paragraph 341 of the said
judgment, the Division Bench specifically noticed the judgment
dated 16.12.2020 in BIAL’s case and held that the said judgment
had failed to appreciate the relevant provisions of the Concession
Agreement read with the Land Lease Agreement and, more
particularly, the distinction between “Airport” and “Site”. The
Division Bench expressly recorded that it did not agree with the
interpretation adopted by the learned Single Member in the BIAL
judgment. For ready reference the relevant paragraphs reads as
under:
“ 341. AERA has relied upon the decision of Learned Single
Bench dated 16.12.2020 in case of BIAL. This
judgment has not appreciated the clauses of the
Concession Agreement as stated hereinabove to
be read with the clauses of Land Lease
Agreement. The said judgment has also not
appreciated the fact that “site” as defined in the
Concession Agreement includes Airport but
reverse is not true meaning thereby to “airport”
and not to be construed as “site”. This distinction
has been overlooked and we therefore do not
agree with the interpretation of the Learned
Single judge of this tribunal in judgment dated
Page 340 of 546
16.12.2020 in case of BIAL. In fact, both the
terms have been defined separately and,
therefore, “Site” and “Airport” are not inter-
changeable terms otherwise there would have
been no need to define them separately .
AERA's reliance on National Civil Aviation Policy (NCAP)
(Annexure R-1 of AERA's Reply) is misplaced as (i) no
specific provision of the NCAP has been pointed out by
AERA that permits it to adopt the approach that it has;
(ii) assuming any provision of the NCAP provides that
revenue from real estate development will be
considered for the purpose of cross subsidization, no
corresponding direction under Section 42 of the AERA
Act, 2008 has been issued by MoCA to AERA. AERA
cannot confer upon itself the jurisdiction to take into
consideration revenues from Real Estate Development
under the guise of NCAP where the said policy did not
permit AERA to do so. Further, as stated earlier, MoCA
has obtained opinion from the Ld. Attorney General on
the issue of jurisdiction of AERA with regard to the land
earmarked for Non-Airport Activities to which the Ld.
Attorney General has clarified to MoCA that the land
meant for Non-Airport Activities should be outside the
purview of AERA since AERA is related to only regulation
of airports and what is outside the precincts should not
be in the jurisdiction of AERA Para no. 34 (page no. 918)
of Annexure A-9 to the memo of this appeal.
342. In view of the aforesaid facts and reasons, provisions
of land lease agreement to be read with provisions of
AERA Act, 2008, the decision of AERA to consider
income of appellant from Real Estate Development
under its regulatory purview is incorrect, improper and
not justified. We, hereby, hold that income from Real
Estate Development (RED) is from Non-Airport Activities
Page 341 of 546
and it cannot be treated as Aeronautical, nor it can be
treated as Non-Aeronautical but they are simply “Non-
Airport Activity” revenue. AERA has no power or
jurisdiction over such revenue .”
568. We respectfully agree with the view taken by the Division Bench
in GMR Hyderabad International Airport Limited. The error in the
earlier BIAL judgment lies in proceeding from the absence of a
physical demarcation of the leased Site to the legal conclusion
that every activity carried on anywhere upon the Site must
necessarily constitute an Airport Activity. In our opinion such
conclusion does not follow from the premise. The contractual
classification of an activity does not depend merely upon the
geographical location of the land upon which it is undertaken.
569. It has to be noted that the Concession Agreement itself uses the
expressions “Airport” and “Site” distinctly. “Site” denotes the
larger parcel of leased land upon which the Airport is to be
constructed and developed. “Airport”, however, refers to the
Initial Phase and subsequent Expansions together with the
buildings, equipment, facilities and systems forming part thereof.
570. In our opinion merely the circumstance that the Airport is situated
upon the Site does not render the two expressions to be read as
co-extensive. The Site may comprehend the Airport; the
Page 342 of 546
Airport does not necessarily comprehend the entirety of
the Site.
571. To us, the same conclusion follows with greater clarity from
reading of Schedule 3. Part I of the Concessions Agreement (A-
3), thereof separately enumerates “Airport Activities”, whereas
Part II expressly enumerates “Non-Airport Activities”. If every
activity carried on upon the Site were necessarily an Airport
Activity merely because the entire Site had been leased in
connection with the Airport project, the contractual classification
of certain activities as “Non-Airport Activities” would be deprived
of any substantive content.
572. Furthermore, upon reading of Article 3.2.1 (iii) of the Concession
Agreement ( A-3 ), which authorises BIAL to undertake activities
and businesses in connection with or related to development of
the Site or operation of the Airport, reinforces rather than
obliterates the distinction. The use of the alternative expressions
“development of the Site” and “operation of the Airport”
demonstrates that development of the Site is capable of
encompassing activities which are not themselves part of
operation of the Airport.
Page 343 of 546
573. The opinion dated 07.11.2014 of the then learned Attorney
General of India, upon which the Appellant has relied, is also
consistent with this construction. The opinion states, in
substance, that activities lying outside the airport precincts ought
logically to remain outside AERA’s jurisdiction because the
statutory regulator is concerned with regulation of airports. We
do not rest our conclusion upon that opinion, which is advisory
and cannot determine the meaning of the statute. It nevertheless
furnishes corroborative material consistent with the construction
which flows independently from Section 13, the Concession
Agreement and the later judgment of this Tribunal. The opinion
forms part of the material specifically relied upon by BIAL
574. Section 13(1)(a)(v) of the AERA Act authorises AERA, while
determining tariff for aeronautical services, to take into
consideration “revenue received from services other than the
aeronautical services”. The provision undoubtedly permits
utilisation of eligible Non-Aeronautical Revenue for purposes of
tariff determination in accordance with the applicable till
methodology. It does not, however, confer upon AERA
jurisdiction over an activity which, under the governing
concession structure, is neither an aeronautical service nor a
Page 344 of 546
service other than an aeronautical service rendered as an Airport
Activity at the airport.
575. It must be stated that revenue earned from an activity does not
acquire the character of Non-Aeronautical Revenue merely
because the activity is undertaken somewhere upon the Site. The
anterior enquiry must always be whether the activity itself forms
part of the Airport Activities falling within AERA’s statutory
regulatory field. If the activity is contractually and functionally a
Non-Airport Activity carried on outside the precincts of the
Airport, the revenue arising therefrom does not fall within Section
13(1)(a)(v).
576. This distinction was not properly appreciated while passing the
impugned Tariff Order. AERA appears to have proceeded upon
the assumption that because the land forms part of the Site made
available to BIAL, revenue generated from commercial
development thereof necessarily constitutes Non-Aeronautical
Revenue available for cross-subsidisation and such an approach
overlooks the contractual distinction between the “Site” and the
“Airport” and between “Airport Activities” and “Non-Airport
Activities”.
Page 345 of 546
577. In view of the aforesaid definitions given in the concession
agreement at Annexure A3, it appears that the both the
definitions are different. “Site” includes the entirety of the leased
land. “Airport” is restricted to initial phase and expansions under
the concession agreement Annexure A3. Moreover, looking to
Clauses 2.1.2 and clauses 3.2.1 of the concession agreement
read with Para, read with Part 1 of Schedule 3 and Part 2 of
Schedule 3 makes it clear that the appellant carries out airport
and non-airport activities at the site. Non-airport activities
undertaken by the appellant BIAL at the site are unrelated to the
operation of airport.
578. These non-airport activities provided beyond the precincts of
airport are not aeronautical nor non-aeronautical services and,
therefore, they are beyond the jurisdiction of AERA for tariff
determination process. This aspect of the matter has not been
properly appreciated by AERA while passing the impugned
orders. Hence, the decision of AERA in paragraph 8.2.48 deserves
to be quashed and set aside.
579. AERA, vide the impugned decision, has treated “Non-Airport
Activities” as “Non-Aeronautical Services”, which is incorrect, runs
counter to the clauses of the Concession Agreement and is in
Page 346 of 546
violation of the AERA Act, 2008. Looking to the Concession
Agreement, it defines “Airport Activities” under Part 1 of Schedule
3 and “Non-Airport Activities” under Part 2 of Schedule 3 include
both Aeronautical Services and Non-Aeronautical Services.
whereas, the “Non-Airport Activities” enumerated in Part 2 of
Schedule 3, which are provided on the landside beyond the
precincts of the airport, constitute neither Aeronautical Services
nor Non-Aeronautical Services, but are simply and purely “Non-
Airport Activities”.
580. Looking to Article 7.2 and Article 13.5.2 of the Concession
Agreement, which are identical in the Concession Agreements of
BIAL and HIAL, the Government of India is under no obligation
to take over the “Non-Airport Activities” at the end of the
Concession Period, which in the facts of the present case BIAL is
60 years. These provisions deal with the capital expenditure
incurred towards Non-Airport Activities and keep such activities
outside the airport assets. therefore, the revenue generated from
these activities also deserves the same treatment and cannot be
brought within the regulatory purview of AERA. it also ought to
be kept in ming that the revenue from Real Estate Development
is not generated from the rendition of Non-Aeronautical Services
Page 347 of 546
enlisted in Part 1 of Schedule 3 of the Concession Agreement and,
therefore, it does not qualify as eligible revenue for the purpose
of the 30% cross-subsidy.
581. For ready reference, Articles 7.2 and 13.5.2 of the
Concession Agreement read as under:
“ 7.2 Construction and Expansion
BIAL shall design, procure, construct, complete, test and
commission the Initial Phase, and remedy any defects in respect
thereof, in accordance with the Master Plan, Good Industry
Practice and Applicable Law. BIAL shall ensure that the Works
shall conform with the Specifications and Good Industry Practice.
BIAL shall, taking into account and subject to increased demand,
the availability of funding, the economic and profitable operation
of the Airport at that time and the reasonable requirements of
users of the Airport, develop and implement detailed proposals
for the Expansion of the Airport. To the extent that BIAL incurs
any capital investments, amounts or costs in relation to the
provision of Non-Airport Activities and requires such investments,
amounts or costs to be included in the calculation of the
Page 348 of 546
Termination Amount, Debt or Settlement Amount, BIAL shall seek
the prior written consent of GoI.”
“ 13.5.2 Notwithstanding anything contained in Article 13.5.1,
prior to any transfer of the Airport, Gol shall have the right
conduct a due diligence of the contracts and agreements
pertaining to Non-Airport Activities, the rights and obligations of
which it is assuming and shall not be bound to assume the rights
and obligations of contracts that, in the sole opinion of Gol are
unreasonably onerous, and would be considered onerous at the
time that the contracts were entered into. Got shall conduct the
due diligence and identify the contracts and agreements that it is
prepared to assume within 45 days of the opening of a data room
by BIAL for these purposes following the exercise of a right of
termination by Gol or BIAL under Article 13.4. For the avoidance
of doubt, to the extent Gol opts to take over Non-Airport
Activities, which have not been approved by Gol in accordance
with Article 7.2, the calculation of Termination Amount or the
Settlement Amount shall include investments, amounts or costs
of such Non-Airport Activities.”
Page 349 of 546
582. Moreover, Section 13(1)(a)(v) of the AERA Act 2008 extends only
to the airport activities carried out at major airport and not non-
airport activities carried out at the site but outside the precincts
of the airport. Schedule 3, Part 1 of BIAL’S concession agreement
(Annexure A3) to be read with (Annexure A4), enlisted set of
activities under the head of airport activities, which includes
aeronautical services and other services rendered at the airport.
Only these activities can be considered for the purpose of tariff
determination under Section 13(1)(a)(v) of AERA Act 2008. Non-
airport activities mentioned in Schedule 3, Part 2 of the
concession agreement (Annexure A3 and Annexure A4) are
outside the scope of AERA's power, jurisdiction and authority.
583. In view of these facts, revenue from land development activities,
which are non-airport activities rendered outside the precincts of
the airport, cannot be considered as a part of non-aeronautical
revenue.
584. In view of the aforesaid facts, reasons and judicial
pronouncements, AERA has no power, jurisdiction and
authority to treat the income from real estate
development as the same is a non-airport activity and,
therefore, this income cannot be treated as aeronautical
Page 350 of 546
revenue nor it can be treated as non-aeronautical
revenue. We, therefore, quash and set aside the decision
of AERA in the impugned tariff order, especially
paragraph 8.2.48 (Annexure A1). Issue No. XX is
accordingly answered in favour of the Appellant .
ISSUE XXI: Jurisdiction of AERA to determine tariff for
CGF services, cargo handling, ground handling and fuel
services.
585. It has been decided by AERA while passing the impugned tariff
order, (Annexure A1) especially in paragraph 8.2.2 to be read
with Table No. 169 and looking to Para 8.6.1, AERA has clarified
CGF, CUTE, CUSS, BRS, Aerobridge, ICT, CIC services as
aeronautical services and treated the revenue therefrom as
aeronautical revenue for third control period. This decision of
AERA is under challenge under this issue. For ready reference
Paragraph 8.2.2, 8.6.1 and Table No. 169 reads as under:
Cargo, ground handling, fuel, CUTE/ CUSS,
common infrastructure charges and aerobridges
revenues
8 .2.2 The Authority noted that BIAL had considered
revenue from cargo, ground handling, fuel,
Page 351 of 546
CUTE/ CUSS, common infrastructure charges
and aerobridges (aviation concession revenues)
as non aeronautical revenues. The Authority in
line with its decision taken in the 2nd control
period based on the AERA Act, 2008, AERA
guidelines, concession agreement of BIAL and
Hon'ble TDSAT judgement dated 16th December
2020 proposes to consider revenue from cargo,
ground handling, fuel, CUTE/ CUSS, common
infrastructure charges and aerobridges as
aeronautical revenue for the Third Control
Period.
Table 169: Non-aeronautical revenues decided
by the Authority for the Third Control
Period
(Rs. crore)
Particulars FY
2022
FY
2023
FY
2024
FY
2025
FY
2026
Total
Car Park
37.40 80.63 110.04 134.44 163.97 526.48
revenue
Retail
Revenue
27.69 113.63 145.36 175.51 209.49 671.69
F&B Revenue 23.73 54.37 72.42 88.36 107.58 346.47
Lounge
Revenue
10.25 27.74 37.22 48.64 63.23 187.08
Advertising &
38.94 84.41 103.96 127.01 154.91 509.23
promotion
Rent and land
38.88 50.29 52.78 59.27 62.14 263.37
lease
Flight catering 8.35 9.08 11.71 12.74 13.87 55.75
Page 352 of 546
Miscellaneous
22.89 25.32 27.62 30.20 33.05 139.08
non-
aeronautical
revenues
Utility charges 3.07 3.07 3.37 3.54 3.71 16.76
Real estate 4.17 12.82 20.90 38.73 61.40 138.03
Interest
20.84 12.77 3.51 5.38 19.40 61.91
income
Total NAR 236.21 474.15 588.89 723.84 892.75 2915.84
8.6.1 To consider non-aeronautical revenue as set out
in Table 169 above for the Third Control Period
Xxx
586. Learned Senior Counsel appearing for the appellant, Mr. Sajan
Poovayya has drawn our attention on the concession agreement
(Annexure A3 and Annexure A4). This concession agreement is a
sovereign contract entered into by His Excellency President of
th
India with BIAL. This concession agreement is dated 5 July,
2004.
587. The Concession Agreement between His Excellency the President
of India and the Appellant was executed on 05.07.2004
(Annexure A-3 to the memo of appeal), and the Concession
Agreement between His Excellency the President of India and
Hyderabad International Airport Limited was executed on
Page 353 of 546
20.12.2004 (Annexure R-34A to the Rejoinder). Both these
Concession Agreements are identical in all material aspects. The
major comparable clauses relevant to the present issue are as
under:
SCHEDULE-I
Concession Agreements of BIAL and HIAL
S Concession Agreement
Clause
l.
Concession Agreement of
of BIAL
HIAL
1 Clause
10.1
10.1 Parties having right
to impose charges
10.1 Parties having right to
impose charges
Subject to Applicable Law,
no Person (other than BIAL,
any Service Provider Right
Holder granted a relevant
Service Provider Right or the
AAI) may impose any
charge or fee (a) in respect
of the provision at the
Airport of any facilities
and/or services which are
included within Airport
Activities or (b) in respect of
the movement of
passenger, or vehicular
traffic on the Airport or the
Site.
Subject to Applicable Law, no
Person (other than HIAL, any
Service Provider Right Holder
granted a relevant Service
Provider Right or the AAI) may
impose any charge or fee (a) in
respect of the provision at the
Airport of any facilities and/or
services which are included within
Airport Activities or (b) in respect
of the movement of passenger, or
vehicular traffic on the Airport or
the Site.
2 Clause
10.2
10.2 Airport Charges
10.2.1 The Airport Charges
specified in Schedule 6
("Regulated Charges") shall
10.2 Airport Charges
10.2.1 The Airport Charges
specified in Schedule 6
("Regulated Charges") shall be
Page 354 of 546
S Concession Agreement
Clause
l.
Concession Agreement of
of BIAL
HIAL
be consistent with ICAO
Policies.
10.2.2 The Regulated
Charges set out in Schedule
6 shall be the indicative
charges at the Airport. Prior
to Airport Opening BIAL
shall seek approval from the
Ministry of Civil Aviation for
the Regulated Charges
which shall be based on the
final audited project cost .
The Ministry of Civil Aviation
shall, subject to the
proposed Regulated
Charges being in compliance
with the principles set out in
Article 10.2.1, grant its
approval thereto within a
period of sixty (60) days of
the date of the application
being submitted by BIAL.
10.2.3 If at any time prior
to the date the IRA has the
power to approve the
Regulated Charges BIAL
wishes to amend such
charges it shall seek consent
from the Ministry of Civil
Aviation for such
amendments. The Ministry
consistent with ICAO Policies.
10.2.2 The Regulated Charges
set out in Schedule 6 shall be the
indicative charges at the Airport.
Prior to Airport Opening HIAL shall
seek approval from the Ministry of
Civil Aviation for the
Regulated Charges, which shall be
based on the final audited Project
cost. The Ministry of Civil Aviation
shall, subject to the proposed
Regulated Charges being in
compliance with the principles set
out in Article 10.2.1, grant its
approval thereto within a period of
forty-five (45) days of the date of
the application being submitted by
HIAL. Within 120 days after the
Airport Opening Date, HIAL shall
submit the final audited Project
cost to the Ministry of Civil
Aviation.
10.2.3 If at any time prior to the
date the IRA has the power to
approve the Regulated Charges
HIAL wishes to amend such
charges it shall seek consent from
the Ministry of Civil Aviation for
such amendments. The Ministry of
Civil Aviation shall, subject to the
proposed charges being in
Page 355 of 546
S Concession Agreement
Clause
l.
Concession Agreement of
of BIAL
HIAL
of Civil Aviation shall,
subject to the proposed
charges being in compliance
with the principles set out in
Article 10.2.1, grant its
approval of such
amendments within a period
of sixty (60) days of the date
of the application being
submitted by BIAL.
compliance with the principles set
out in Article 10.2.1, grant its
approval of such amendments
within a period of forty-five (45)
days of the date of the application
being submitted by HIAL.
10.2.4 From the date the IRA has
the power to approve the
Regulated Charges, HIAL shall be
required to obtain approval
thereof from the IRA. In this
regard H IAL s hall submit to the
IRA, in accordance with any
regulations framed by the IRA,
details of the Regulated Charges
proposed to be imposed for the
next succeeding relevant period
together with such information as
the IRA may require for review.
Unless otherwise agreed in writing
between the Parties such
approved Regulated Charges shall
comply with the
principles referred to in Article
10.2.1 until the earlier of (i) the
date that outstanding Debt in
respect of the Initial Phase has
been repaid and (ii) fifteen (15)
years from Airport Opening Date.
10.2.4 From the date the
IRA has the power to
approve the Regulated
Charges, BIAL shall
be required to obtain
approval thereof from the
IRA. In this regard BIAL
shall submit to the IRA, in
accordance with any
regulations framed b y t he
I RA, details of the
Regulated Charges
proposed to be imposed for
the next succeeding
relevant period together
with such information as the
IRA may require for review.
Unless otherwise agreed in
writing between the Parties
such approved Regulated
Charges shall comply with
the principles referred to in
Page 356 of 546
S Concession Agreement
Clause
l.
Concession Agreement of
of BIAL
HIAL
Article 10.2.1 until the
earlier of (i) the date that
outstanding Debt in respect
of the Initial Phase has been
repaid and (ii) fifteen (15)
years from Financial Close.
3 Clause
10.3
10.3 Other Charges
BIAL and/or Service
Provider Right Holders shall
be free without any
restriction to determine the
charges to be imposed in
respect of the facilities and
services provided at the
Airport or on the Site, other
than the facilities and
services in respect of which
Regulated Charges are
levied.
10.3 Other Charges
HIAL and/or Service Provider
Right Holders shall be free without
any restriction to determine the
charges to be imposed in respect
of the facilities and services
provided at the Airport or on the
Site, other than the facilities and
services in respect of which
Regulated Charges are levied.
4 Schedu
List of Airport Activities
contains inter alia Ground
Handling Services, Cargo
Handling, Cargo Terminal,
Aircraft fuelling services
List of Airport Activities contains
inter alia Ground Handling
Services, Cargo Handling and
cargo terminal operations,
custodial services, Aircraft fuelling
services
le 3
5 Schedu
Landing Housing Parking,
UDF and Passenger Service
Fee
Landing Housing Parking, UDF
and Passenger Service Fee
le 6
588. As it can be seen from above the Appellant has also drawn our
attention to the Concession Agreement dated 20th December,
Page 357 of 546
2004 relating to Hyderabad International Airport. A comparative
reading of the relevant clauses demonstrates that Articles 10.1,
10.2 and 10.3 and Schedules 3 and 6 of the BIAL and HIAL
Concession Agreements are substantially similar in all material
respects relevant to the controversy presently before us.
589. Article 10.1 deals with the persons entitled to impose charges in
respect of Airport Activities and movement of passengers and
vehicular traffic. Article 10.2, however, deals specifically with
“Airport Charges” , and Article 10.2.1 provides that the Airport
Charges specified in Schedule 6 shall constitute “Regulated
Charges” .
590. Article 10.3 thereafter separately deals with “Other Charges”
and expressly provides that BIAL and/or Service Provider Right
Holders shall be free, without any restriction, to determine
charges in respect of facilities and services provided at the Airport
or on the Site other than those in respect of which Regulated
Charges are levied.
591. Furthermore, Schedule 3, Part I, contains a considerably wider
list of “Airport Activities”. The said Schedule includes, inter alia,
Aircraft Fuelling Services, Cargo Handling, Cargo Terminals,
General Aviation Ground Handling, Ground Handling Services and
Page 358 of 546
Ground Handling Equipment. Schedule 6, in contrast, identifies a
much narrower category of Regulated Charges, namely Landing,
Housing and Parking Charges, Passenger Service Fee and User
Development Fee.
592. It is pertinent to denote that there is a fundamental distinction
between Airport Activity and a Regulated Charge. Merely because
an activity is an Airport Activity under Schedule 3 does not follow
that every charge arising from such activity becomes a Regulated
Charge under Schedule 6. If that were the intention of the
parties, the elaborate and specific enumeration contained in
Schedule 6 would serve little purpose.
593. This Tribunal has already decided in case of HIAL that CGF
services are non-aeronautical services and therefore revenue
therefrom are non-aeronautical revenues because they are not
listed in Schedule 6 of the concession agreement.
594. It has been held by this Tribunal in case of HIAL Vs. AERA in
AERA Appeal No.4 of 2021 dated 14.02.2024 in
paragraphs 303 and 309, which reads as under:
“ 303. AERA is empowered to regulate only the ‘Regulated
Charges’ and it cannot assume jurisdiction over the
‘Airport Activities’. The terms Regulated Charges and
Airport Charges/Activities
Page 359 of 546
309. MoCA had sought for the opinion by the highest law
officers of this country about Cargo, Ground Handling
and Fuel Services. The Counsel for the Appellant has
referred to the said Opinion obtained by MoCA obtained
from the highest law officers of this country. AERA in
the impugned order to fortify its decision has also relied
on the letter issued by MoCA on 24.09.2013 issued
specifically in the case of Bangalore International
Airport Limited ('BIAL') as stated in Para 3.2.7 (page
no.127) of Annexure A-1 to the memo of this appeal.
However, reliance on Page 157 of 292 such letter in
case of HIAL is misconceived as MoCA has not issued
any such letter for HIAL. On the contrary, in the case of
HIAL, MoCA in its affidavit filed in AERA Appeal No. 8 of
2011 Para no. 7 (page no. 2246) of Annexure A-16 to
the memo of this appeal, has categorically stated that
as per the Concession Agreement only those charges as
mentioned in Schedule-6, shall alone be regulated.
Further, when doubts were raised as to whether AERA
could seek to rely upon the later enactment to attempt
to regulate charges for certain activities like CGF, MoCA
reinforced its own understanding of the binding
contract and non-applicability of a later enactment, by
obtaining an opinion dated 14.01.2015 from the
Attorney General for India Para no. 34 (page no. 914-
918) of Annexure A-9 to the memo of this appeal, which
was rendered in terms of Article 76(2) of the
Constitution of India. The Ld. Attorney General for
India, who is a constitutional appointee, under Article
76 (1) of the Constitution of India has opined that CGF
are not to be found in Schedule 6 of the Concession
Agreement and, therefore, they not Page 158 of 292
Regulated Charges. The opinion of such a constitutional
functionary has persuasive value for AERA. ”
Page 360 of 546
595. We are of firm opinion that earlier decision in the case of BIAL,
in the matter of AERA Appeal No. 3 of 2014 and AERA Appeal No.
8 of 2018, common judgment dated 16.12.2020, delivered by
Learned Single Judge, requires reconsideration. We have perused
the previous provisions of the Concession Agreement as well as
the provisions of the AERA Act, 2008 and the State Support
Agreement, and the details delivered by this Tribunal in the case
of HIAL in AERA Appeal No. 4 of 2021, judgment dated
14.02.2024. We have also perused the Concession Agreement in
the case of HIAL as well as in the case of BIAL. In fact, the
Concession Agreement in the case of HIAL and BIAL are identical
in most of the material aspects.
596. In view of Section 13(1)(a)(vi) of the AERA Act. Parliament has
itself mandated that, while determining tariff for aeronautical
services, AERA shall take into consideration the concession
offered by the Central Government in any agreement,
memorandum of understanding or otherwise.
597. The concession agreement entered into by His Excellency
President of India with BIAL is a pre-legislative contract which is
recognized under SOR (Statement of Objects and Reasons) of the
AERA, 2008. Moreover, as per the provisions of Section
Page 361 of 546
13(1)(a)(vi) of the AERA, 2008 mandates AERA to consider
concessions granted by central government while determining
tariff.
598. The Hon'ble Supreme Court in Delhi International Airport
Ltd. v. Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India ,
Civil Appeal No. 8378 of 2018, (2024) 1 SCC 716, decided
on 11.07.2022 has specifically considered the effect of Section
13(1)(a)(vi). In paragraph 23, the Hon'ble Supreme Court
observed that legislative intent itself incorporates and requires
the prior agreements to be taken into consideration, along with
the other statutory parameters. For ready reference the same
reads as under:
“23. Sub-clause (vi) of sub-section (l)(a) of Section 13 of
the said Act clearly stipulates that in the determination
of tariff for the aeronautical services, one of the
considerations, is the concession offered by the Central
Government in any agreement or memorandum of
understanding or otherwise. Thus, the principle that
legislative intent must prevail over any prior agreement
would not really apply in the present scenario as the
legislative intent itself incorporates and requires the
prior agreements to be taken into consideration albeit
along with certain other parameters/requirements .
599. Thus, we are of the opinion that mere fact that the Concession
Agreement predates the AERA Act does not render its tariff-
Page 362 of 546
related concessions otiose upon enactment of the statute. On the
contrary, Parliament has expressly incorporated such concessions
as a mandatory consideration in tariff determination. The statute
and the Concession Agreement are therefore required to be read
harmoniously rather than on the assumption that the latter stood
impliedly obliterated upon establishment of AERA. For ready
reference Section 13(1)(a) of the AERA Act, 2008 reads as under:
13. Functions of Authority. —
(1) The Authority shall perform the following functions in
respect of major airports, namely —
(a) to determine the tariff for the aeronautical services
taking into consideration —
(i) the capital expenditure incurred and timely
investment in improvement of airport facilities;
(ii) the service provided, its quality and other
relevant factors;
(iii) the cost for improving efficiency;
(iv) economic and viable operation of major airports;
(v) revenue received from services other than the
aeronautical services;
(vi) the concession offered by the Central
Government in any agreement or
memorandum of understanding or
otherwise;
Page 363 of 546
(vii) any other factor which may be relevant for the
purposes of this Act:
Provided that different tariff structures may be
determined for different airports having regard to all or any
of the above considerations specified at sub-clauses (i) to
(vii).
600. In view of the provisions of AERA 2008, the concession
agreement, which is a sovereign contract entered into by His
th
Excellency President of India, with BIAL, dated 5 July, 2004
(Annexure A3) which is a pre-legislative contract, must be
honoured while determining tariffs.
601. It has been held by this Tribunal in case of HIAL Vs AERA in
AERA Appeal No. 4 of 2021 , judgment dated 14.02.2024 in
paragraph no 331 to 333, 336 and 338 as under:
“ 331. AERA vide impugned decision has treated “Non-Airport
Activities” as “Non-Aeronautical Services”. This is incorrect and
running counter to the clauses of Concession Agreement and in
violation of the AERA Act, 2008. In fact, Concession Agreement
defines Airport Activities and Non-airport activities. It did not
define “Aeronautical” and “Non-Aeronautical” as per Part 1 of
Schedule 3 and as per Part 2 of Schedule 3 respectively. 332.
332. Looking to the Concession Agreement, “Airport Activities”
Page 364 of 546
enumerated in Part 1 of Schedule 3 include, both Aeronautical
Services and Non-Aeronautical Services, whereas, Non-Airport
Activities enumerated in Part 2 of Schedule 3 which are provided
in landside which is beyond the precincts of the airport, do not
constitute either Aeronautical Services or Non-Aeronautical
Services but they are simply and purely “Non-Airport Activities”.
For ready the scheme of the above is depicted through a chart
below:
Activities
Airport Activities (Part 1
Schedule 3 of the
Concession Agreement)
Non-Airport Activities (Part 2
of Schedule 3 of Concession
Agreement)
Aeronautical
Services
Non-Aeronautical
Services
333. In view of the aforesaid provisions of Concession
Agreement, “Non-Airport Activities” are clearly beyond the power,
jurisdiction and authority of AERA and they do not form the part
of “Non-Aeronautical Services”.
Page 365 of 546
336. It ought to be kept in mind that revenue from Real Estate
Development is not generated from the rendition from Non-
Aeronautical Services, which are enlisted in Part 1 of Schedule3
and therefore, this revenue does not qualify as eligible revenue
for 30% cross-subsidy.
338. In fact, looking to Clause 3.1 (b) of the Land Lease
agreement to be read with their Concession Agreement, the
appellant and the airport operator have been granted the
additional rights to develop the additional land, purely for
commercial purposes i.e. Non-Airport Activities and not relating
to Airport Activity.”
602. Upon examination of Article 1.1 of the concession agreement, it
provides two separate and distinct definitions of “airport
charges” and “regulated charges”. The definition of “airport
charges” and “regulated charges” as defined in the
concession agreement and Clause 10.2.1 reads as under:
"Airport Charges" means:
(i) amounts charged or imposed by BIAL in respect
of the provision or use of the facilities and services
which are included within Airport Activities;
Page 366 of 546
(ii) amounts charged or imposed by BIAL on or in
respect of passenger and cargo movement or
aircraft traffic into, on, at or from the Airport; and
(iii) other amounts deemed by this Agreement to be
Airport Charges and further including any amounts
to be collected by BIAL on behalf of Gol, GoK or
AAI.
"Regulated Charges" shall be as defined in Article
10.2.1
10.2 Airport Charges
10.2.1 The Airport Charges specified in Schedule 6
("Regulated Charges") shall be consistent
with ICAO Policies.
603. In view of the aforesaid provision, it is explicitly clear that Part 1
of Schedule 3 envisages a larger categorization of airport
activities to be performed by BIAL. For ready reference, Part 1 of
Schedule 3 of the Concession Agreement reads as under:
Schedule 3
Part 1 - Airport Activities
Airport Activities include the following services,
facilities and equipment:
Aerodrome control services
Airfield
Airfield lighting
Air navigation services relating to the Airport
Airside and perimeter security including access control and
patrolling
Page 367 of 546
Airside and landside access roads and forecourts including
writing, traffic signals, signage and monitoring
Apron and aircraft parking area
Apron control and allocation of aircraft stands
Arrivals concourses and meeting areas
Baggage systems including outbound and reclaim
Bird scaring
Check-in concourses
Cleaning, heating, lighting and air conditioning public areas
Customs and immigration halls
Emergency services
Facilities for the disabled and other special needs people
Fire service
Flight information and public-address systems
Foul and surface water drainage
Guidance systems and marshalling
Information desks and staffing
Inter-terminal transit systems
Landscaping and horticulture
Lifts, escalators and passenger conveyors
Loading bridges
Lost property
Meteorological Services / AIS
Noise insulation and sound proofing
Passenger and hand baggage search
Piers and gate rooms
Policing and general security
Prayer Rooms
Runways
Scheduling committee support
Signage
Staff search
Taxiways
Toilets and nursing mothers’ rooms
Waste and refuse treatment and disposal
X-Ray service for carry on and checked-in luggage
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Aircraft cleaning services
Aircraft fueling services
Airline Lounges
Banks / ATM - BIAL to make investment for providing basic
infrastructure facilities only
Bureaux de Change - BIAL to make investment for
providing basic infrastructure facilities only
Business Centre - BIAL to make investment for providing
basic infrastructure facilities only
Vehicle parking
Cargo handling
Cargo terminals
Conference Centre - BIAL to make investment for providing
basic infrastructure facilities only
Duty free sales - BIAL to make investment for providing
basic infrastructure facilities only
Flight catering services
Freight consolidators/forwarders or agents
General aviation ground handling
General aviation terminals
General retail shops - BIAL to make investment for
providing basic infrastructure facilities only
Ground handling services
Ground handling equipment
Ground power for aircraft
Hangars
Heavy maintenance services - BIAL to undertake these only
if such services are in relation to airport and/or aircraft
Hotel reservation services - BIAL to make investment for
providing basic infrastructure facilities only Infrastructure
for the airport complex like roads, drains, water supply etc.
Line maintenance services - BIAL to undertake these only
if such services are in relation to airport and/or aircraft
Locker rental - BIAL to make investment for providing basic
infrastructure facilities only
Page 369 of 546
Messenger services - BIAL to make investment for
providing basic infrastructure facilities only
Observation terrace
Pre-conditioned air for aircraft
Porter service
Post Offices - BIAL to make investment for providing basic
infrastructure facilities only
Public telephones - BIAL to make investment for providing
basic infrastructure facilities only
Restaurants, bars and other refreshment facilities - BIAL to
make investment for providing basic
infrastructure facilities only
Special Assistance Services
Tourist information services - BIAL to make investment for
providing basic infrastructure facilities
only
Travel agency- BIAL to make investment for providing basic
infrastructure facilities only
Trolley service
Utilities (including electricity, gas, telecommunications and
water)
Vehicle fueling services - BIAL to undertake these only if
such services are in relation to airport
and/or aircraft
Vehicle rental - BIAL to make investment for providing basic
infrastructure facilities only
Vending machines - BIAL to make investment for providing
basic infrastructure facilities only
VIP/Special lounges
Warehouses
Welcoming services
xxx
604. Airport activities are larger categorization, which is enumerated
herein above, whereas Article 10.2 carves out the limited set of
activities from Schedule 3 and they are enlisted separately in
Page 370 of 546
Schedule 6 as regulated by AERA once it is setup. Thus,
concession agreement contemplates regulation only in Schedule
6 charges and not others. For the ready reference, Schedule 6
of the concession agreement reads as under:
Schedule 6
Regulated Charges
Pursuant to the principles set out in Article 10.2 of this
Agreement, BIAL shall be entitled to levy and recover from
airline operators, passengers and other users and in respect
of both domestic and international aircraft and passenger
movements, at rates consistent with ICAO Policies, the
following Regulated Charges:
(i) Landing. Housing and Parking charges (Domestic and
International):
The charges to be adopted by BIAL at the time of airport
opening will be the higher of:
(a) The AAI tariff effective 2001 duly increased with
inflation index, as set out hereunder, upto the
airport opening date Or
(b) The then prevailing tariff at the other AAI airports
(ii) Passenger Service Fee (Domestic and International):
The charges to be adopted by BIAL at the time of airport
opening will be the higher of:
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(a) The AAI tariff effective 2001 duly increased with
inflation index, as set out hereunder, upto the
airport opening date Or
(b) b) The then prevailing Passenger Service Fee at
the other AAI airports
The Passenger Service Fee chargeable by BIAL, as given
above, is inclusive of the cost of Security Expenditure
on Central Industrial Security Force (CISF). This
component of cost towards Security Expenditure on
CISF shall be revised upwards by BIAL as and when
directed by GOI.
(iii) User Development Fee {UDF) (Domestic and
International}:
BIAL will be allowed to levy UDF, w.e.f Airport Opening
Date, duly increased in the subsequent years with
inflation index as set out hereunder, from embarking
domestic and international passengers, for the provision
of passenger amenities, services and facilities and the
UDF will be used for the development, management,
maintenance, operation and expansion of the facilities at
the Airport. The Regulated Charges set out in Schedule 6
shall be the indicative charges at the Airport. Prior to
Airport Opening BIAL shall seek approval from the
Ministry of Civil Aviation for the Regulated Charges, which
shall be based on the final audited project cost.
Note: (a) Charges will be calculated on the basis of nearest
MT (i.e. 1000 kgs)
(b) The minimum fee for per single landing will be INR
1000.0
c) Peak hour surcharge on International landing
between 2301 hrs (IST) to 2400 hrs (IST) will be
5%
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(d) If US $ rates are to be charged the following rule
for conversion, US$ into INR the rate as on the 1st
day of the month for 1st fortnight billing period and
rates as on 16th of the month for the 2nd
fortnightly billing period, will be applicable.
(e) All Tariffs are net for BIAL. Any taxes such as
Service tax, if applicable, will be over and above the
tariff proposed.”
605. In view of the aforesaid Schedule 6, which is to be read with
Article 10.2 of the concession agreement, and these charges can
be regulated by AERA and no other charges can be regulated by
AERA. Thus, “airport charges” and “regulated charges” are
separate and distinct. AERA can regulate only “regulated
charges” as pointed out in Schedule 6 of the concession
agreement.
606. CGF services are not a part of Schedule 6 regulated charges in
the Concession Agreement. This aspect of the matter was not
properly appreciated while deciding AERA Appeal No. 8 of 2018
and AERA Appeal No. 3 of 2014, judgment dated 16 December
2020, by the Learned Single Judge. Schedule 6 is the most crucial
aspect of the matter. This is to be read with Section 13(1)(a) of
the AERA Act, 2008.
Page 373 of 546
607. Moreover, Article 10.3 of the Concession Agreement provides that
BIAL shall be free, without any restriction, to determine the
charges to be imposed in respect of charges for facilities and
services provided at airport or on the site, other than regulated
charges. For ready reference, Clause 10.3 of the Concession
Agreement reads as under:
“10.3 Other Charges
BIAL and/or Service Provider Right Holders shall be free
without any restriction to determine the charges to be
imposed in respect of the facilities and services provided
at the Airport or on the Site, other than the facilities and
services in respect of which Regulated Charges are
levied. ”
608. The words and phrases "shall be free" and " without any
restrictions" make the intentions explicitly clear. Neither
IRA/AERA, while fixing the charges, nor in any manner, will lay
any claim to the revenue or proceeds. Thus, BIAL can determine
the charges in respect of charges for the facilities and services
provided at the airport or on the site other than regulated charges
and, therefore, CGF services, which are not a part and parcel of
Schedule 6 of regulated charges in the Concession Agreement,
and therefore revenue generated from CGF services are non-
aeronautical services and they are excluded from AERA's
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regulated ambit. This aspect of the matter was not properly
appreciated by the learned Single Judge of this Tribunal in AERA
Appeal No. 3 of 2014 and in AERA Appeal No. 8 of 2018.
609. Moreover, every tariff order is a separate cause of action and,
therefore, in the present appeal we hereby hold that CGF services
are not aeronautical services and revenue therefrom are non-
aeronautical revenue for BIAL and they are excluded from AERA's
regulatory ambit because CGF services are not a part of Schedule
6 regulated charges in the Concession Agreement.
610. As per the Airports Infrastructure Policy, 1997, it has been
mentioned in the Statement of Objects and Reasons of the AERA
Act, 2008 that the Greenfield Airport at Bangalore under Public-
Private Partnership is set up pursuant to the Airports
Infrastructure Policy, 1997. Relevant part of Clause 12.4 of the
Airports Infrastructure Policy, 1997 reads as under:
4. “Except for user developmental fees, there will be total
freedom for airport operators in the matter of raising
revenue through non-aeronautical charges and there
will not be any Government control over the same.”
611. In view of the aforesaid Airports Infrastructure Policy, 1997, it is
illustrated that CGF services are not regarded as aeronautical
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services at that point of time and Clause 14.2 and 14.3 of the
said infrastructure policy, 1997 reads as under:
14. Financing of Airport Infrastructure
1…………………
2. The current pattern of financing is predominantly
based on internally generated resources of the AAI.
Funding through external assistance, external
commercial borrowings, loans and equity has been
negligible. The allocation of budgetary grants is limited
to certain airports in remote and inaccessible areas.
Considering the astronomical sums which seem to be
required for modernization and upgradation of existing
airports and for the new airports at Mumbai (Rs.10,
000 crores), Bangalore (Rs.1,600 crores) etc., there
has to be a clear privatisation of projects so as to
utilize state resources in the most optimal manner.
Further, the financing strategies will have to be looked
at from a thoroughly novel standpoint.
3. Taking the internal resources first, the following steps
will be initiated:
a) Optimization of revenue from aeronautical
charges, through negotiation with IATA and
keeping Government approvals in view.
b) A revolutionary thrust towards raising of revenue
from non-aeronautical commercial sources.
c) Rationalisation and optimisation of various charges
like passenger service fee, user development
charges, aerobridge charges, etc. and imposition
of new levies like security charges, fuel
throughput charges etc.
Page 376 of 546
d) Massive economy in expenditure by manpower
optimization, cost reduction, elimination of
duplication, increased productivity, contracting
out of services, etc.
e) Greater resource to additional sources like external
assistance, public bonds, external commercial
borrowings, public issues, loans from
Government/financial institutions etc. ”
612. In view of the aforesaid clauses of the Airports Infrastructure
Policy, 1997, there will be a revolutionary thrust towards raising
revenue from non-aeronautical commercial sources. Section
13(1)(a)(vi) of the AERA Act provides that a concession offered
in an agreement or MOU or otherwise is to be considered while
determining tariff. The Airports Infrastructure Policy, 1997 and
the Concession Agreement fall in this category and, therefore,
the Infrastructure Policy, 1997 deserves to be considered.
613. In view of these facts and looking to the provisions of the Airport
Infrastructure Policy 1997, which has been recognized in the
Statement of Objects and Reasons of AERA Act 2008, to be read
with Schedule 6 of Concession Agreement, to be read with Article
1.1 and Article 10.2 and 10.3 of the Concession Agreement,
makes it explicitly clear that CGF services are kept outside the
tariff determination process and the revenue therefrom should be
Page 377 of 546
reckoned as non-aeronautical in terms of Airport Infrastructure
Policy 1997, to be read with different provisions as stated
hereinabove of the Concession Agreement.
614. These aspects of the matter were never placed before this
Tribunal while adjudicating AERA Appeal No. 8 of 2018, judgment
dated 16th December 2020, hence also the said judgment
deserves to be revisited.
615. It has been rightly pointed out by learned senior counsel Mr.
Sajan Poovayya appearing on behalf of the appellant, that MOCA
had filed a counter affidavit in AERA Appeal No. 7 of 2011, filed
on 18th July 2011, admits that as per Article 10 and Schedule 6
of concession agreement and Annexure A3 and Annexure A4, the
only regulated charges are LPH, PSF, UDC, with charges. That is,
this lease does not include CGF. For the ready reference,
paragraphs 7 and 9 of the counter affidavit filed by MoCA in AERA
Appeal No. 7 of 2011, filed on 18th July 2011, reads as under:
“ 7. … As per the provisions laid down in Article 10 and
Schedule 6 of these Concession Agreements, the only
regulated charges at these airports are Landing,
Parking and Housing charges (Domestic and
International); Passenger Services Fee (Domestic and
International); and User Development Fee (Domestic
and International).
Page 378 of 546
9. It is submitted that the Concession Agreement with
the M/s Bangalore International Airport Ltd. and M/s
Hyderabad International Airport Ltd. was approved by
the Union Cabinet and the State Support Agreement
with the M/s Delhi International Airport Ltd. and M/s
Mumbai International Airport Ltd. was approved by the
Empowered Group of Ministers (EGOM) constituted for
restructuring and modernization of CI Airport, Mumbai
and IGI Airport, Delhi. These two sets of documents,
carrying the philosophy for economic regulation of
aeronautical tariffs of the airports, have been
approved at the highest level in the Government and
has been providing the guiding principle to the
Government in determination of aeronautical tariffs. ”
616. MoCA, in its counter affidavit executed by the Under Secretary,
th
Shri Prabhu Ram, dated 18 July 2011 in AERA Appeal No. 7 of
2011 (Annexure A48), at Paragraph 6, categorically and in
unequivocal terms stated that the first reaction of the
Government was that the adoption of the specific till methodology
should be airport specific, keeping in mind the contractual
obligations (if any). Further, at paragraph 7, MoCA admitted
and clarified that it had entered into Concession Agreements with
BIAL and HIAL and that Article 10 of these Concession
Agreements lays down the criteria for determination of airport
charges as specified in Schedule VI of the Concession
Agreements. As per the provisions contained in Article 10 and
Page 379 of 546
Schedule VI of these Concession Agreements, the only regulated
charges at these airports are Landing, Parking and Housing
Charges (Domestic and International), Passenger Service Fee
(Domestic and International), and User Development Fee
(Domestic and International).
617. In the very same affidavit, the GoI, at paragraph 9 further
submitted that the Concession Agreements with BIAL and HIAL
were approved by the Union Cabinet, while the State Support
Agreements with DIAL and MIAL were approved by the
Empowered Group of Ministers (EGoM) constituted for the
restructuring and modernization of CSI Airport, Mumbai and IGI
Airport, Delhi. The Government further stated that these two sets
of documents, embodying the philosophy governing the
economic regulation of aeronautical tariffs at the respective
airports, had been approved at the highest levels of Government
and had served as the guiding principles for the Government in
the determination of aeronautical tariffs.
618. Further, at Paragraphs 15 and 16, the Government specifically
apprised thew Hon’ble Appellate Tribunal of its contractual
obligations and requested the Tribunal to decide the issue in light
of the averments and submissions made therein.
Page 380 of 546
619. The aforesaid pleadings leave little room for ambiguity. The GoI
itself expressly acknowledged the contractual framework
governing BIAL and HIAL, recognized the airport-specific nature
of the applicable regulatory regime, and drew the attention of the
Tribunal to the contractual obligations arising under the
concession agreements. These submissions, made on oath before
the appellate forum, are of considerable significance in
understanding the Government’s contemporaneous position and
understanding of the concession agreements and the regulatory
framework governing these airports as an author of these
contracts.
620. The aforesaid understanding of MoCA has subsequently been
validated by the opinions obtained by MoCA from the highest law
officers of the country on the subject. The learned Attorney
General for India, in his opinion, dated 14.01.2015 (Annexure
A47), has opined that Cargo, Ground Handling and Fuel (CGF)
services are not found in Schedule 6 of the concession agreement
and therefore, are not Regulated Charges. Similarly, the learned
Solicitor General of India, in his opinion dated 24.12.2019
(Annexure A49), has opined that CGF is to be treated as a non-
regulated activity for tariff determination by AERA. These
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opinions further clarify the position that AERA ought to arrive at,
while giving due importance and consideration to the concession
agreement as mandated under Section 13(1)(a)(vi) of the AERA
Act, 2008.
621. the aforesaid position is further reinforced by Section 13
(1)(a)(ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi) of the AERA Act, 2008, read
together with the proviso thereto which in our considered view,
reflects the clear legislative intent that tariff determination is
required to be undertaken on an airport-specific basis, keeping in
mind the contractual obligations governing the concerned airport.
The statutory scheme itself contemplates that AERA may take
into consideration any one or all of the factors enumerated
therein, each of which is inherently airport-specific and
dependent upon the unique contractual, financial and regulatory
framework applicable to the respective airport. The Act,
therefore, does not mandate a uniform or one-size-fits-all
approach across all airports, except where relevant i.e., BIAL and
HIAL as one set of contracts of concessions and DIAL and MIAL
as another set of contracts of concessions in form of OMDA.
622. This assumes greater significance when viewed in the context of
the airport privatization initiatives undertaken by the GoI at
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different points in time. Each such decision was taken in its own
actual and economic setting, after taking into account the
prevailing policy objectives, socio-economic considerations,
infrastructure requirements and investment expectations relevant
to that period. Consequently, a pioneering public-private
partnership initiative undertaken by the Government through a
pre-legislative contractual framework, dating back to the year
2000, cannot and ought not, be assessed through the lens of
contractual and regulatory arrangements fashioned during a
subsequent period and under materially different circumstances.
623. Accordingly, we are of the considered opinion that AERA while
discharging it s statutory functions, ought to give due regard to
the circumstances prevailing at the time of BIAL’s concession
agreement was granted by His Excellency, President of India in
2004. The rights, obligations and commercial understanding
embodied therein must be appreciated in the context in which
that were conceived and granted, particularly when the legislative
framework that subsequently culminated in the enactment of the
AERA Act was still at a nascent and formative stage and had not
evolved into its present form. Any interpretation divorced from
such historical and contractual context would run the risk of
Page 383 of 546
unsettling the very foundations upon which the concession was
originally structured and granted and the same cannot be
countenanced.
624. In view thereof, we are of the considered view that CGF are non-
regulated under the concession agreement and are to be treated
as non-aeronautical.
625. In view of the aforesaid paragraphs 7 and 9, CGF services are
non-aeronautical services because they are not covered by
Schedule 6 of the Concession Agreement and hence revenue
generated therefrom are non-aeronautical revenue. The allied
services of CUTE, CUSS, BRS, ICT and CIC, which are part of
ground handling services and consequently are non-aeronautical,
as held in AERA Appeal No. 4 of 2021, judgment dated 14
February 2024, because the Concession Agreement in both cases,
in case of HIAL and in case of BIAL, are identical in all material
aspects.
626. Looking to the provisions of Section 2 of AERA Act 2008, which
commensally, with words “unless the context otherwise
requires” . The definitions contained in Section do not apply if
the context otherwise provides.
Page 384 of 546
627. As per proviso to Section 13 (1) (a) of the AERA Act, 2008 permits
adoption of different tariff structure for different airport, having
regard to all or in any of the considerations specified at sub-
clauses (i) to (vii) of Section 13 of the AERA Act. One such
consideration, under sub-clause (vi), is the concession offered by
the Central Government. AERA did not consider this power while
deciding to treat cargo, ground handling and fuel services as
aeronautical services in the case of the Appellant, despite the
specific concession contained in Article 10 of the Concession
Agreement.
628. It ought to be noted that Article 10 of the Concession Agreement
separates the Regulated Charges listed in Schedule 6 from the
Other Charges under Article 10.3, which the Appellant is free to
determine without any restriction. Cargo, ground handling and
fuel services are not in Schedule 6. Treating their revenue as
aeronautical would erase this distinction and render Part IV i.e.
Financial Provisions of the Concession Agreement infructuous.
That would be contrary to Section 13(1)(a)(vi) of the Airports
Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act, 2008, which obliges
AERA to take into consideration the concessions offered by the
Central Government.
Page 385 of 546
629. AERA itself has consistently classified CUTE, CUSS and BRS as
components of Ground Handling Services . In paragraph
9.32 of HIAL’s Second Tariff Order dated 27.03.2020, AERA noted
HIAL’s proposal to separate CUTE, CUSS and BRS from CIC and
to treat the corresponding revenues as non-aeronautical. AERA
declined that proposal on the specific ground that these services
formed part of the overall Ground Handling activity. Since, at that
stage, AERA was treating Ground Handling itself as an
aeronautical service, it consequently treated the revenues from
CUTE, CUSS and BRS as aeronautical revenue. Similar
classification was adopted by AERA in MIAL’s First Control Period
Tariff Order at paragraph 9.51 and Third Control Period Tariff
Order at paragraph 7.6.27.
630. Therefore, once this Tribunal in HIAL v. AERA, AERA Appeal
No. 4 of 2021, decided on 14.02.2024 , held CGF activities to
be non-regulated and the corresponding revenue non-
aeronautical, the same principle requires consideration for CUTE,
CUSS and BRS in the context of BIAL’s Concession Agreement.
For ready reference paragraph 315, reads as follows:
“ 315. This aspect of the matter has not been properly
appreciated by AERA while passing the impugned
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order for the Third Control Period and hence, so far as
Issue No. II, we hereby quash and set aside the
decision of AERA, and we hold that the decision of
AERA to treat Cargo, Ground Handling and Fuel
Services as aeronautical services and the revenue
generated therefrom as aeronautical revenue is
incorrect, improper and unjustified. We hereby hold
that the activities of CGF in case of HIAL are non-
regulated activities and the revenue received by the
Airport Operator, Appellant from the service providers
of CGF are non-aeronautical charges. ”
631. This ratio is applicable to BIAL, and consequently CUTE, CUSS,
BRS, ICT, CIC charges should be treated as non-aeronautical and
revenue generated therefrom is non-aeronautical revenue and
AERA has no power, jurisdiction and authority to decide the tariff
thereof, and they are excluded from AERA's regulatory ambit
because concession agreement of HIAL and BIAL are identical in
all material aspects. AERA has clarified CUET, CUSS, BRS services
are as part of ground handling services in case of HIAL and in the
case of MIAL also.
632. It ought to be kept in mind that the present appeal is heard by a
Bench of two Members. It is settled by the Constitution Bench of
the Hon'ble Supreme Court in Central Board of Dawoodi
Bohra Community Vs. State of Maharashtra, (2005) 2 SCC
673 , at paragraph 11-12, that the decision of a Bench of larger
strength binds a Bench of lesser or coequal strength, and it
Page 387 of 546
follows that a Bench of larger strength is not bound by the view
of a Bench of lesser strength. Nor does the principle of res
judicata stand in the way. For ready reference the same reads as
under:
“ 11. In Raghubir Singh case [(1989) 2 SCC 754] a Bench of
two learned Judges had made a reference to a larger
Bench for reconsideration of the questions decided
earlier by two Division Benches of the quorum of two
and three respectively. The Constitution Bench then
opined that the matter could be heard by the
Constitution Bench on such reference. It is pertinent to
note that in Raghubir Singh case [(1989) 2 SCC 754] the
Constitution Bench has nowhere approved the practice
and propriety of two-Judge Bench making a reference
straightaway to the Constitution Bench disagreeing with
a three-Judge Bench decision. On the contrary, the
Constitution Bench had itself felt inclined to hear the
issue arising for decision and therefore did not think it
to be necessary to refer the matter back to a Bench of
three Judges. Similar was the situation in Union of India
v. Hansoli Devi [(2002) 7 SCC 273] . Therein the
Constitution Bench has reiterated the principle of judicial
discipline and propriety demanding that a Bench of two
learned Judges should follow the decision of a Bench of
three learned Judges and if a Bench of two learned
Judges was inclined not to do so then the proper course
for it to adopt would be (i) to refer the matter before it
to a Bench of three learned Judges, and (ii) to set out
the reasons why it could not agree with the earlier
judgment. The Constitution Bench concluded “then if
the Bench of three learned Judges also comes to the
conclusion that the earlier judgment of a Bench of three
Page 388 of 546
learned Judges is incorrect, then a reference could be
made to a Bench of five learned Judges”. The
Constitution Bench has very clearly concluded and
recorded, “the very reference itself in the present case
made by the two-Judge Bench was improper” (SCC p.
274). However, the Constitution Bench then proceeded
to observe that as the question involved had very wide
implications affecting a large number of cases, it
considered it appropriate to answer the questions
referred instead of sending the matter back to a Bench
of three Judges for consideration. The decision of this
Court in Pradip Chandra Parija [(2002) 1 SCC 1] was
followed. Thus, the course adopted by the Constitution
Bench in the case of Hansoli Devi [(2002) 7 SCC 273]
was by way of an exception and not a rule.
12. Having carefully considered the submissions made by
the learned Senior Counsel for the parties and having
examined the law laid down by the Constitution Benches
in the abovesaid decisions, we would like to sum up the
legal position in the following terms:
(1) The law laid down by this Court in a decision
delivered by a Bench of larger strength is binding
on any subsequent Bench of lesser or coequal
strength.
(2) A Bench of lesser quorum cannot disagree or
dissent from the view of the law taken by a
Bench of larger quorum. In case of doubt all
that the Bench of lesser quorum can do is to
invite the attention of the Chief Justice and
request for the matter being placed for
hearing before a Bench of larger quorum
than the Bench whose decision has come up
for consideration. It will be open only for a
Bench of coequal strength to express an
Page 389 of 546
opinion doubting the correctness of the view
taken by the earlier Bench of coequal
strength, whereupon the matter may be
placed for hearing before a Bench consisting
of a quorum larger than the one which
pronounced the decision laying down the law
the correctness of which is doubted .
(3) The above rules are subject to two exceptions: (i)
the abovesaid rules do not bind the discretion of
the Chief Justice in whom vests the power of
framing the roster and who can direct any
particular matter to be placed for hearing before
any particular Bench of any strength; and (ii) in
spite of the rules laid down hereinabove, if the
matter has already come up for hearing before a
Bench of larger quorum and that Bench itself feels
that the view of the law taken by a Bench of lesser
quorum, which view is in doubt, needs correction
or reconsideration then by way of exception (and
not as a rule) and for reasons given by it, it may
proceed to hear the case and examine the
correctness of the previous decision in question
dispensing with the need of a specific reference or
the order of the Chief Justice constituting the Bench
and such listing. Such was the situation in Raghubir
Singh [(1989) 2 SCC 754] and Hansoli Devi [(2002)
7 SCC 273].”
633. The Hon'ble Supreme Court held in Mathura Prasad Bajoo
Jaiswal Vs. Dossibai N.B. Jeejeebhoy, (1970) 1 SCC 613 ,
that a decision upon a pure question of law touching the
jurisdiction of a tribunal does not operate as res judicata in a
Page 390 of 546
subsequent proceeding between the same parties, since a
tribunal cannot acquire, by an erroneous decision, a jurisdiction
the law does not give it. For ready reference the same reads as
under:
“6. The authorities on the question whether a decision on
a question of law operates as res judicata disclose
widely differing views. In some cases it was decided that
a decision on a question of law can never be res judicata
in a subsequent proceeding between the same parties:
Parthasardhi Ayyangar v. Chinnakrishna Ayyangar [ILR
5 Mad 304] ; Chamanlal v. Bapubhai [ILR 22 Bom 669]
; and Kanta Devi v. Kalawati. [AIR (1946) Lah 419] On
the other hand Aikman, J., in Chandi Prasad v. Maharaja
Mahendra Singh, [ILR 23 All 5] held that a decision on
a question of law is always res judicata. But as observed
by Rankin, C.J., in Tarini Charon Bhattacharjee v. Kedar
Nath Haldar [ILR 56 Cal 723] :
“Questions of law are of all kinds and cannot be
dealt with as though they were all the same.
Questions of procedure, questions affecting
jurisdiction, questions of limitation, may all be
questions of law. In such questions the rights of
parties are not the only matter for consideration.”
7. Where the law is altered since the earlier decision, the
earlier decision will not operate as res judicata between
the same parties: Tarini Charan Bhattacharjee case. It
is obvious that the matter in issue in a subsequent
proceeding is not the same as in the previous
proceeding, because the law interpreted is different.
Page 391 of 546
9. A question of jurisdiction of the Court, or of procedure,
or a pure question of law unrelated to the right of the
parties to a previous suit, is not res judicata in the
subsequent suit. Rankin, C.J., observed in Tarini Charan
Bhattacharjee case:
“The object of the doctrine of res judicata is not to
fasten upon parties special principles of law as
applicable to them inter se, but to ascertain their
rights and the facts upon which these rights directly
and substantially depend; and to prevent this
ascertainment from becoming nugatory by
precluding the parties from reopening or
recontesting that which has been finally decided.”
10. A question relating to the jurisdiction of a Court cannot
be deemed to have been finally determined by an
erroneous decision of the Court. If by an erroneous
interpretation of the statute the Court holds that it has
no jurisdiction, the question would not, in our judgment,
operate as res judicata. Similarly by an erroneous
decision if the Court assumes jurisdiction which it does
not possess under the statute, the question cannot
operate as res judicata between the same parties,
whether the cause of action in the subsequent litigation
is the same or otherwise.
11. It is true that in determining the application of the rule
of res judicata the Court is not concerned with the
correctness or otherwise of the earlier judgment. The
matter in issue, if it is one purely of fact, decided in the
earlier proceeding by a competent Court must in a
subsequent litigation between the same parties be
regarded as finally decided and cannot be reopened. A
mixed question of law and fact determined in the earlier
proceeding between the same parties may not, for the
same reason, be questioned in a subsequent proceeding
Page 392 of 546
between the same parties. But, where the decision is on
a question of law i.e. the interpretation of a statute, it
will be res judicata in a subsequent proceeding between
the same parties where the cause of action is the same,
for the expression “the matter in issue” in Section 11 of
the Code of Civil Procedure means the right litigated
between the parties i.e. the facts on which the right is
claimed or denied and the law applicable to the
determination of that issue. Where, however, the
question is one purely of law and it relates to the
jurisdiction of the Court or a decision of the Court
sanctioning something which is illegal, by resort to the
rule of res judicata a party affected by the decision will
not be precluded from challenging the validity of that
order under the rule of res judicata, for a rule of
procedure cannot supersede the law of the land. ”
634. In fact the present question before us is Whether AERA possesses
jurisdiction to determine tariff for Cargo, Ground Handling and
Fuel services at this airport is precisely such a question, and it
now arises in relation to a distinct tariff order for a distinct control
period.
635. We turn to AERA's submission, that Section 2(a) of the AERA Act,
in its clauses (iv), (v) and (vi), includes within the expression
aeronautical service the ground handling services relating to
aircraft, passengers and cargo at an airport, the cargo facility at
an airport, and the supplying of fuel to aircraft at an airport. AERA
Page 393 of 546
contends that the words are plain and must be given effect. We
accept that, in the generality of airports, these are aeronautical
services within the statutory definition.
636. But the definition is expressly subject to the context, and the
context is supplied by the very Section that confers the tariff
function as Section 13(1)(a)(vi) requires AERA to take into
consideration the concession offered by the Central Government
in any agreement, and the proviso permits different tariff
structures for different airports having regard to that
consideration.
637. In view of the aforesaid facts, reasons and judicial
pronouncements, and also looking to the provisions of concession
agreement read with Annexure A3 and Annexure A4, and looking
to the provisions of Airport Infrastructure Policy, 1997 and
looking to the provisions of AERA Act 2008, we hereby quash and
set aside the decision of AERA of clarification of CGF, CUTE,
CUSS, BRS, Aero Bridge, ICT and CIC services as aeronautical
services. We also quash and set aside the AERA's decision of
revenues generated from aforesaid services are aeronautical
revenue.
Page 394 of 546
638. We hereby quash and set aside the observation of AERA
in paragraph number 8.2.2 to be read with Table 169. We
also quash and set aside the observation of AERA in
paragraph 8.6.1 of the impugned order, Annexure A1.
We, hereby direct AERA to treat CUTE, CUSS, BRS, ICT
and CIC as part of ground handling services and CGF
services shall be treated as non-aeronautical services.
Revenue generated from the aforesaid services are
consequently non-aeronautical revenue. Issue No. XXI is
accordingly answered in favour of the Appellant.
ISSUE XXII. Consideration & Estimate of O&M Expenses.
st
639. By the impugned tariff order for the Third Control Period, 1 April
2021 to 31 March 2026, especially in paragraph 7.5.12 read with
Table No. 118, the Authority has reduced the O&M expenses for
the Third Control Period. This reduction is under challenge. For
ready reference the aforesaid reads as under:
“ 7.5.12 The Authority noted BIAL's comments on the concerns
regarding percentages of gross block proposed by the
Authority to calculate the O&M cost. The Authority
noted that BIAL in its business plan submitted to the
Authority for the Third Control Period had themselves
considered 0% as the R&M cost for the capitalization
Page 395 of 546
year since the assets were proposed to be capitalized at
the end of the year by BIAL. The Authority, accordingly,
based on BIAL's submission had considered 0% as the
cost for the year of capitalization of the assets. For the
percentages thereafter, the Authority has given its view
in the above paras and has noted that since the assets
will be underutilized for major part of the Third Control
Period, accordingly, the Authority sees no reason to
revise its proposal given in the Consultation Paper. ”
640. It is submitted by learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of
the appellant that in the impugned order, as per Table No. 117,
the demand of the appellant for O&M expenses for the Third
Control Period is subject to true up on actual basis. Table No. 117
reflects the figures of estimated O&M expenses, because this
proposal was given in the Multi Year Tariff Proposal.
641. Thereafter, the respondent issued consultation paper and invites
submissions from different stakeholders. The present appellant
had pointed out O&M expenses for the period of five years during
third control period, 1.4.2021 to 31.3.2026. This estimation given
by the appellant is based upon varieties of factors such as:
(i) addition of infrastructure;
Page 396 of 546
(ii) increase area of operation including parking, MMTH,
peripheral road network, etc.;
(iii) large proportion of the amount spent in nature, such as
security, airside staff;
(iv) historical O&M cost percentage for forecast of O&M
cost, etc.
642. On the basis of these several factors, which are based upon the
data calculated for the previous years, the estimated O&M
expenses were submitted by the appellant for the Third Control
Period. These are reflected in Table No. 117 of the impugned
order, which reads as under.
Table 117: Trends in total O&M cost as submitted by
BIAL
Operati
FY
202
FY
202
FY
202
FY
202
FY
202
FY
202
FY
202
Total
ng
expens
(FY2
2-
FY26
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
es
)
Total
138 134 216 347 386 445 603 1,99
O&M
cost as
7
per
BIAL
Page 397 of 546
(Rs in
Crores)
%
change
-3% 61% 61% 11% 15% 35%
643. In view of the aforesaid demand of the appellant towards O&M
cost for the Third Control Period, which is mentioned in Table
117, the Authority approved O&M cost as a percentage of gross
block. This is reflected in Table 118 of the impugned order, which
reads as under:
Table 118: O&M cost % of the respective gross block
proposed by the Authority for the Third Control Period
for the assets proposed to be capitalized in the Third
Control Period
Year O&M -
Infrastructure
(landside, airfield
O&M - ICT
and utilities)
Year 1 (year
0.00% 0.00%
of
capitalization)
Year 2 0.50% 5.00%
Year 3 0.60% 5.00%
Year 4 0.75% 5.00%
Year 5
onwards
1.00% 5.00%
Page 398 of 546
644. Thus, in view of the provisions made by the Authority, it appears
that what is demanded is a two to eight per cent increase based
on total of FY 22 to 26, and what is allowed is a 0.4 per cent, 0.5
per cent or 0.6 per cent increase.
645. The appellant had sought an increase in O&M expenses in
proportion to the following additions to infrastructure, which were
put in operation during the Third Control Period and these are as
follows:
Infrastruc
At the time of
Third Control Period
issuance of
ture
SCP Order
Airside
One Runway Two Runways
facility
66 Code E equivalent
Stands
142 Code E equivalent
Stands
Terminal Single Terminal – 1.6
lakh
sq. m approx
2 Terminals – Total 4.2
lakh
sq. m approx
Terminal
26.5 MPPA 51.5 MPPA
Design
Capacity
Landside
connectivity
Main Access Road (2+2
lane)
North Cargo Road (1+1
lane)
Main Access Road
(5+5lane)
South Access Road
(3+3
lane)
Page 399 of 546
Southwest Connectivity
(3+3 lane)
North Cargo Road
(2+2
lane)
Landside
Open Car Park, Bus Bay Multi-modal Transport
Hub
access
646. It also appears from the facts of the present case that the O&M
expenses for the Third Control Period, as demanded by the
appellant, had a causal connection with actual capacity utilisation.
For ready reference, the same is reproduced in tabular format,
which reads as under:
8.2. The actual capacity utilization for TCP is as
follows:
Details Airport
Capacity
Actual
Traffic
Overall
Capacity
utilization
(MPPA)
FY 22 26.5 16.29 61.47%
FY 23 30.25* 31.91 97.56%
FY 24 51.5 37.53 72.87%
FY 25 51.5 41.88 81.32%
FY 26 51.5 48.16 93.51%
Page 400 of 546
On a weighted average basis considering 3 months
of T2 availability.
647. It appears from the impugned order that the Authority has
considered the financial year 2020 as a base. Thus, for projection
of operational cost, the financial year 2019-2020 should have
been considered by the Authority. It has been pointed out by
learned senior counsel appearing for the appellant that for the
airports at Chandigarh, Mumbai and Delhi, the Authority had
considered the financial year 2019-20.
648. Thus, the base year for traffic and the base year for cost
estimation cannot be different. This aspect of the matter has not
been properly appreciated by AERA while exceeding the O&M
expenses for the third control period.
649. AERA has stated, under paragraph 7.5.12 of the impugned order,
that its decision to allow nothing for Operation and Maintenance
in the year of capitalisation was based upon the Appellant's own
submission and to us this does not appear to be correct reading
of the record. In its multi year tariff proposal the Appellant had
assumed that Terminal 2 would be capitalised at the very end of
the financial year 2021 to 2022, that is, on 31st March 2022, and
Page 401 of 546
for that reason alone it had not provided for Operation and
Maintenance cost in that year.
650. The capitalisation date of Terminal 2, Phase 1 was subsequently
shifted to 31st December 2022, in the financial year 2022 to
2023, and three months of operation in that year ought therefore
to have been provided for by AERA. The premise upon which the
Appellant's original figure of nil rested had ceased to exist before
the impugned order was passed.
651. In the tariff order for the Fourth Control Period of Delhi
International Airport Limited, AERA has itself linked the increase
in terminal area with the increase in Operation and Maintenance
costs, adjusting the Operation and Maintenance cost by two
thirds of the actual increase in terminal area. If the same
approach is applied to the Appellant, the result is as under:
Area of Terminal T1 163,535 m2
Area of Terminal T2 Phase 1 255,645 m2
Increase in Terminal Area 1.56 times
Terminal Area increase factor based
on principles laid down in DIAL Order
2/3 of 1.56 –
1.04 times
st
Actual O&M Costs as of 31 March
213.21
2023 (Rs. Crs)
Page 402 of 546
Incremental O&M Costs on a/c of T2
addition for FY24 (Rs. Crs)
213.21*1.04 =
221.74
652. Thus, the eligible incremental Operation and Maintenance cost of
Rupees two hundred twenty one crore seventy four lakh (Rs.
221.74 crore), so computed, has been incurred over a staggered
period of three years, namely the financial years 2023 to 2024,
2024 to 2025 and 2025 to 2026.
653. AERA’s submitted that the expanded terminal, runway, apron and
supporting infrastructure were expected to operate below their
design capacity for a substantial portion of the Third Control
Period owing, inter alia, to the depressed traffic projections
following the COVID-19 pandemic and thus, AERA considered
historical O&M expenditure as a percentage of gross block to be
an inappropriate basis for forecasting expenditure on newly
commissioned assets.
654. However, where AERA substitutes the Airport Operator’s forecast
with a normative benchmark of its own, the benchmark must
have an intelligible evidentiary foundation and the reasons for the
numerical assumption adopted must be capable of judicial
scrutiny as Section 13(4) requires the Authority to ensure
Page 403 of 546
transparency and to make its decisions fully documented and
explained.
655. The record does not disclose that AERA conducted any study
before arriving at the benchmarks it has applied. AERA has not
explained the basis on which it has arrived at the percentages of
gross block. It has not referred to any comparable airport data.
The benchmarks appear to have been arrived at without any
empirical foundation. AERA cannot impose a cap on O&M
expenses without a proper study.
656. Looking to paragraph 7.5.14 of the impugned tariff order, it
appears that AERA has merely reiterated the proposal in its
consultation paper in rejecting the submissions made by the
Appellant. No reasons for such rejection of the submissions of the
Appellant have been given in the impugned order.
657. AERA has failed to consider that Operation and Maintenance
expenses increase disproportionately when utilisation exceeds
capacity. Terminal 1 operated at more than one hundred per cent
of its capacity in the financial year 2022 to 2023 for nine months,
and again in the financial year 2025 to 2026, which has resulted
in a significant increase in Operation and Maintenance expenses.
Page 404 of 546
658. AERA has failed to consider that the maintenance of an asset
begins on the date of its commissioning, and that annual
maintenance contracts are required to be entered into for its
upkeep from that date and such contracts were executed from
the first day of operation for key equipment, including the
Baggage Handling System, both electromechanical and control
systems, the Passenger Boarding Bridges, the elevators and
escalators, all equipment in the screening system, in line,
standalone and explosive trace detection, the central heating,
ventilation and air conditioning system, the electrical system, the
fire alarm and fire safety systems, the firefighting system and the
plumbing system.
659. If these contracts are not recognised from the day of
capitalisation, the Appellant would not be compliant with the
recommendations of the original equipment manufacturers for
the operation and maintenance of those assets, and in the event
of any breakdown there would be no vendor support. AERA's
observation that newer assets need lower Operation and
Maintenance costs is accordingly not correct.
660. In addition, spares and consumables required for normal
operations, which are not covered by such contracts, must be
Page 405 of 546
procured by the Appellant, and inadequate maintenance of assets
increases the insurable risk and leads to higher premiums.
Besides the maintenance of civil, electromechanical, vehicle and
utility assets, there are other expenses not directly related to the
maintenance of assets which must be incurred for running the
airport, such as housekeeping, facility maintenance, vehicle
running costs including fuel, solid waste management and
consumables.
661. AERA has submitted that the Appellant is provided with sustaining
capital expenditure to carry out special repairs, in addition to its
Operation and Maintenance costs. However, what ought to be
kept in mind that these are two distinct heads. Sustaining capital
expenditure relates to minor capital works and the replacement
of assets, which are capital in nature and enter the Regulatory
Asset Base.
662. Conversely, Operation and Maintenance expenses are revenue
expenditure, which are incurred in the ordinary running and
upkeep of the airport. A provision under one head does not
diminish the need for expenditure under the other, and the
reduction of one by reference to the other conflates capital and
revenue expenditure.
Page 406 of 546
663. In view of the aforesaid facts and reasons, the O&M expenses
provided by AERA for the control period is hereby quashed and
set aside because a variety of factors have not been properly
appreciated by AERA while reducing the O&M expenses from the
actual demands of the airport operator. Nonetheless, as third
control period 1.4.2021 to 31.3.2026 is already over, we hereby
direct AERA to allow O&M expenses actually incurred by the
airport operator i.e. appellant and necessary true-up shall be
given by AERA in the fourth control period tariff order.
664. It has been submitted by the learned counsel appearing for the
respondent no.1 that now third control period is on its verge of
completion and hence in the next control period, no true-up shall
be given on actual basis.
665. The present matter is for third control period, which is by now
already over. Hence, we see no reason to go in further details of
this issue, but suffice it to say that estimated demands raised by
the appellant was based upon varieties of factors as stated
hereinabove, including the actual traffic, increase in airside
facility, increase in terminal area substantially, increase in
terminal capacity, because in the second control period it was
Page 407 of 546
26.5 MPPA, whereas during third control period it is 51.5 MPPA.
Similarly, O&M expenses have increased.
666. Similarly, while reducing the O&M expenses, the AERA has not
properly appreciated this aspect of the matter. Hence we hereby
quash and set aside the decision of 7.5.12 of the impugned order
to be read with Table 118 of the impugned order, and we hereby
direct AERA to allow the actual O&M expenses incurred by this
appellant during third control period, unless necessary truing-up
shall be given in the next fourth control tariff order as per section
13(1)(a)(i) AERA Act 2008, which mandates AERA shall consider
actual O&M expenses incurred during third control period. AERA
cannot put any cap upon O&M expenses.
667. For the reasons recorded above, we quash and set aside
the decision of AERA at paragraph 7.5.12 of the
impugned order read with Table No. 118. We direct AERA
to true up the Operation and Maintenance expenses for
the Third Control Period upon the actual expenses
incurred by the Appellant, as reflected in its audited
accounts, including the expenses of Terminal 2 from the
date of its capitalisation, subject only to verification of
each item for reasonableness upon recorded reasons, and
Page 408 of 546
to give effect to the true up in the determination of tariff
for the Fourth Control Period. Accordingly, Issue No. XXII
is answered in favour of the Appellant.
ISSUE XXIII: Consideration of Personnel Expenses
during Third Control Period.
668. The present issue concerns the personnel expenditure allowed by
AERA for the Third Control Period and, in particular, the reduction
made by AERA in the manpower additions proposed by BIAL and
the adoption of an escalation factor of 5.8% for determining the
projected cost per employee as per Paragraph 7.5.7., 7.5.8 and
Table No. 138 of the Impugned order which reads as under:
“7.5.7 The Authority also examined the actual data for FY21
relating to personnel expenses and is of the view that
the personnel expenses for FY21 are much lower than
the FY20 personnel expenses despite addition of
employees in FY21 and no retrenchment as per BIAL’s
submission. As a result, the Authority has decided to
make the following adjustments with regards to the
projections of personnel expenses for TCP:
Page 409 of 546
• The personnel expenses for FY22 are calculated by
considering FY20 personnel cost/employee as base
increased with the 8-year (FY12-FY20) CAGR of
5.8% which is then multiplied with the number of
employees.
• The Authority decides to consider the allocation
ratio of FY21 as the allocation ratio for the Third
Control Period.
7.5.8 Based on the above, the personnel cost decided by the
Authority for the Third Control Period is as follows:
Table 138: Personnel cost decided by the Authority for
the Third Control Period
Operating
FY
202
FY
202
FY
202
FY
202
FY
202
FY
202
FY
202
Tota
l
(FY2
expenses
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
2-
FY2
6)
Personnel
cost/empl
oyee
15.97 14.40 16.90 17.88 18.91 20.01 21.17 95
%
increase
-
9.87
5.80
5.80
5.80
5.80
5.80
%
%
%
%
%
%
Number of
Employee
s
1,227 1,247 1,247 1,372 1,372 1,509 1,509 7,00
8
Page 410 of 546
%
increase
1.63
0.00
10.00
0.00
10.00
0.00
%
%
%
%
%
%
Total
Personnel
Cost
195.
179.
210.
245.
259.
301.
319.
1,33
97
51
71
22
44
93
44
7
Aero
allocation
ratio
88.94
87.65
87.65
87.65
87.65
87.65
87.65
%
%
%
%
%
%
%
Aero
personnel
cost
174.
157.
184.
214.
227.
264.
280.
1,17
29
35
70
95
41
66
00
2
669. Learned Senior Counsel Mr. Sajan Poovayya, appearing on behalf
of the Appellant, has submitted that AERA ought to have allowed
the manpower requirement and personnel expenditure projected
by BIAL in its Multi-Year Tariff Proposal, subject ultimately to
true-up on the basis of actual expenditure in the Fourth Control
Period and for the same he has placed reliance upon the
judgment of this Tribunal in Mangaluru International Airport Ltd.
v. AERA, AERA Appeal No. 1 of 2023.
670. That this Tribunal in the case of Mangaluru International
Airport Limited v. AERA , being AERA Appeal No. 1 of 2023 ,
under paragraphs 226, 231, 234 and 238 has considered the
relationship between airport expansion, contractual and safety
Page 411 of 546
obligations, actual manpower deployment and the power of AERA
to rationalise personnel expenditure. For ready reference the
same reads as under:
“ 226. Covid-19 had occurred in our country after execution
of the Concession Agreement dated 14.02.2020
(Annexure A-2). There cannot be any dispute that due
to occurrence of Covid-19, the period to achieve COD
was extended by Respondent No.2/AAI, by period of 90
days. It is not a case of Respondents that the Appellant
was not required to fulfil its obligations to achieve COD
as well as its post-COD obligations. The Respondents
could not have expected that the manpower should
have been laid off during Covid-19 to reduce the pre-
COD expenses.
231. Looking to the aforesaid observation of AERA, AERA
should have considered Truing-Up all the O&M
Expenses actually incurred by the Airport Operator.
Looking to the proposition of the Airport Operator
demanding 15% growth rate, man-power expenses for
both AAI employees and the appellant across all the five
tariff years for the First Control Period and also looking
to the overall growth in normal circumstances, AERA
ought to have allowed at least 12% of growth rate
towards the manpower expenses which is reasonable,
just and equitable. We, therefore, quash and set aside
the decision of AERA to consider only 6% growth rate
towards the manpower expenses. We, therefore, set
168 of 229 aside the decision of AERA to allow only 6%
increase in the manpower cost and direct AERA to
consider actual increase on a Year-on-Year basis in the
average cost of salaries for all employees including AAI
Page 412 of 546
manpower and Airport Operator manpower as the same
shall not be artificially capped at 6%.
234. Several factors have been pointed out by learned senior
counsel for the appellant and it has been highlighted
that Mangaluru Airport is undergoing terminal
expansion from 37000 sq. m. to 47000 sq. m. and
Parallel Taxi Track work has also been started by
Respondent No. 2-AAI in the year 2018 and 2017
respectively, but, will be commissioned in FY 2023.
Thus, the terminal area will be increased by 27% and it
requires additional manpower.
238. Looking to the aforesaid aspects of the matter and
looking to the obligations to be performed by the Airport
Operator under Concession Agreement and also under
the further requirement of DGCA for safety and security
of airport operation as a priority and also looking to the
size of Mangaluru Airport and also the number of
footfall per annum at the airport, AERA ought to have
allowed 188 personnel to be employees as 170 of 229
the Manpower headcount expenses for First Control
Period. We, therefore, quash and set aside the decision
of AERA of allowing only 140 employees for the
Manpower headcount expenses for the First Control
Period. We hereby direct AERA to allow actual
manpower deployed by the Appellant as employees for
the purpose of the Manpower Headcount Expenses for
the FCP, as the same shall not be artificially capped at
any notional number. The AERA’s decision of
rationalization of cost and number of employees, both
AAI employees and the employees of the Appellants, is
unjustified and unreasonable. AERA shall consider the
actual expenses incurred by the Appellant towards AAI
employees and towards the employees of the
appellant .”
Page 413 of 546
671. From the perusal of the above it can be seen that under
Paragraph 231 of the said judgment specifically rejected an
artificial 6% ceiling upon the growth rate of manpower
expenditure and directed AERA to consider the actual year-on-
year increase in the average cost of salaries. This Tribunal
observed that the actual O&M expenses incurred by the Airport
Operator were required to be considered at true-up and that
manpower expenditure could not be mechanically capped by
reference to a normative percentage.
672. More importantly, paragraphs 234 to 238 dealt separately with
headcount . This Tribunal took into consideration increase in
terminal area, additional infrastructure, functions required under
the Concession Agreement, and DGCA requirements concerning
Airport Rescue and Fire Fighting and ultimately directed AERA to
consider the actual manpower deployed rather than an artificially
fixed notional number. Therefore, the principles emerging from
the Mangaluru judgement is of direct relevance in the facts of the
present case.
673. We must make it abundantly clear that ‘Personnel Expenditure’
has two distinct elements, first, the number and composition
of employees reasonably required for operation of the
Page 414 of 546
Airport ; and secondly, the reasonable cost attributable to
such manpower . AERA is entitled to examine both for efficiency
and prudence. It cannot, however, determine either component
through an unexplained numerical cap, which is divorced from
the operational circumstances of the particular airport.
674. In view of the aforesaid requirement of manpower depends
strictly upon size of the airport, footfall at the airport, the
obligation of the airport operator under concession agreement,
etc. As per the facts presented before this Tribunal, following is
the chart of increase in the infrastructure in the third control
period, which reads as under:
Sl. Second Control
Infrastructure
No. Period
Third control
period
One runway &
1. Airside facility
66 aprons
Two runways &
147 aprons
1 No with area of
1.6
lakh sq.m approx
2 Nos with total
area of 4.2
lakh sq.m approx
2. Terminal
Terminal
3. 26.5 mppa 51.5 mppa
capacity
• Expanded 10
lane
Main Access
Road
• 4 lane South
Access
Road
• 4 lane Main
Access
Road
• 4 lane South
Access
Road
Landside
4.
connectivity
Page 415 of 546
• 4 lane
Southwest
Connectivity
• 4 lane North
Cargo
Road
Multi-modal
transport
hub with area of
175,000
sq.m approx.
Landside
5.
Access
Open car park,
bus bay
675. As it can be seen from the above, the scale of infrastructure
required to be operated by BIAL during the Third Control Period
changed materially. The Airport moved from one runway to two
runways; from one terminal of approximately 1.6 lakh square
metres to two terminals aggregating approximately 4.2 lakh
square metres; from a design capacity of 26.5 MPPA to
approximately 51.5 MPPA; and acquired materially expanded
landside connectivity and a Multi-Modal Transport Hub.
676. In view of the above increase in the infrastructure at the
Bangalore airport and also looking to the traffic projections, which
has already been reproduced in tabular format while determining
issue number XXII reflects the fact that there is a need in the
increase of manpower. Looking to the basis of the projections of
Page 416 of 546
the personnel cost as submitted by BIAL, it has been mentioned
in Table 114 in the Impugned Order, which reads as under:
677. In view of the aforesaid Table No. 114, it appears that there is
an annual increment of 10 per cent for the financial year 2022,
thereafter 12 per cent for the year 2023, thereafter 10 per cent
for the financial year 2024, then 10 per cent for the financial year
2025, and 12 per cent in the financial year 2026 of the manpower.
Thus, the aforesaid projections of personnel, which are being
increased by 10 to 12 per cent annually, with a massive addition
of infrastructure and with a massive increase in the footfall at the
Bangalore airport, the need for the additional manpower and the
Page 417 of 546
proposed manpower cost cannot be said to be unreasonably
excessive, nor can it be said that it is grossly disproportionate.
678. AERA ought to be mindful of the fact that manpower requirement
cannot be assessed solely by reference to passenger traffic as
certain airport functions are fixed or infrastructure-driven in
character, such as Runway operations, Airport Operations Control
Centre functions, Airport Rescue and Fire Fighting, safety,
security, terminal management and other essential operational
functions do not disappear merely because passenger throughput
at a particular point in time is below the design capacity of the
infrastructure.
679. The impugned decision of the Authority to reduce manpower is
arbitrary and unfair, made without any empirical study on the
manpower required to operate a similarly placed airport, or even
based on the appellant's historical trends in manpower
requirement per million traffic.
680. Equally, opening a second terminal does not amount merely to
increasing the theoretical capacity of an existing facility. Two
physically distinct operational terminals, require two runways and
a substantially enlarged airside and landside estate necessarily
entail operational functions which have to be staffed
Page 418 of 546
independently or additionally, subject of course to efficiencies
capable of being achieved through common management and
technology.
681. BIAL’s subsequent case is that, as against the aforesaid projected
requirement, the actual addition ultimately made was 649
employees . The original MYTP contained a forecast; the true-
up exercise now concerns actual deployment. The forecast may
illuminate the assumptions made in 2021, but it is no longer
necessary to determine the admissible expenditure solely by
reference to that forecast.
682. It is rightly submitted by learned Senior Counsel Mr. Sajan
Poovayya that AERA, in its tariff order for the Third Control Period
of GMR Hyderabad International Airport Limited, Order No. 12 of
2021 to 2022, at paragraph 7.2.4, approved manpower additions
by applying a benchmark of 43.15 employees per million
passengers, derived from that airport's historical requirement. No
such analysis or benchmark was applied to the Appellant. The
Appellant's own proposal would have resulted in about 39
employees per million passengers, which is in line with its ten
year historical benchmark of about 38 employees per million
passengers.
Page 419 of 546
683. The infrastructure additions at the Bengaluru airport justified the
proposed hiring. With the new terminal being about one and a
half times the area of Terminal 1, terminal management staff
needed to grow proportionately, particularly as one terminal was
operating near full capacity while the other was operating at
about eighty per cent of its capacity. AERA, in its tariff order for
the Fourth Control Period of Delhi International Airport Limited,
has itself recognised terminal area, rather than passenger
handling capacity, as the principal driver for projecting manpower
growth, applying a factor of two thirds of the increase in terminal
area.
st
684. As of 31 March 2021, the total manpower was 1,181. Based on
the principle adopted by the Authority in the Fourth Control
Period Tariff Order for DIAL, the incremental manpower addition
for the appellant ought to be 821. Therefore, for the appellant's
Third Control Period, the total manpower approved for the
appellant ought to have been 1,181 plus 821, which equals 2,002.
As against the above, the appellant has only added 649, and
hence, the same should have been approved by the Authority.
685. AERA has considered an escalation of 5.80 per cent per annum
in the cost per employee, whereas according to the Appellant the
Page 420 of 546
correct figure is 6.69 per cent. The methodology adopted by
AERA divides the total personnel cost of each year by the
headcount at the close of that year. That method takes no
account of recruitment and exits during the year, of variations in
cost across grades of employees, or of the effect of mid year
additions to headcount, and it produced, for the financial year
2018, an apparent fall in the cost per employee, although the
Appellant has never reduced salaries and has consistently given
annual increments in line with industry benchmarks.
686. A weighted average method, based upon the average headcount
during the year, would take these factors into account. The
compound annual growth in the cost per employee under the
three approaches placed before us is as under:
(Rs in Lakhs)
FY2
Details FY12 FY13 FY14 FY15 FY16 FY17 FY18 FY19
0
Table 115 of TCP Order
Cost/Em
ployee
10.1
11.37 11.93 13.31 13.89 14.64 13.77 14.56 15.97
7
% 11.80
change
11.57
4.93%
%
(5.94
4.36% 5.40%
%
5.74% 9.68%
%)
Page 421 of 546
5-year
7.56% 3.90% 4.06% 3.71%
CAGR
8-year
5.80%
CAGR
Closing Head count approach by AERA with corrected data
Personne 109.8
72.59 83.81 90.37 99.67
l cost
118.7
121.2
153.1
195.
3
2
8
7
97
Manpow 1,22
729 754 754 780 811 808 816 1,046
er
7
Cost/Em 15.9
9.96 11.12 11.99 12.78 13.54 14.69 14.86 14.64
ployee
7
% 11.62
change
(1.48
7.83% 6.61% 5.98% 8.50% 1.15%
%
9.07
%)
%
5-year 4.56
8.09% 5.98% 4.09%
CAGR
%
8-year 6.08
CAGR
%
Average Headcount approach
Personne 109.8
72.59 83.81 90.37 99.67
l cost
118.7
121.2
153.1
195.
3
2
8
7
97
Average
manpow
er
1,13
707 742 754 767 796 810 812 931
7
Cost/Em 17.2
10.27 11.30 11.99 12.99 13.81 14.67 14.94 16.45
ployee
4
% 10.08
change
10.15
6.04% 8.42% 6.25% 6.22% 1.84%
%
4.81
%
%
Page 422 of 546
5-year 5.82
7.39% 5.73% 6.54%
CAGR
%
8-year 6.69
CAGR
%
687. Upon undertaking review of the proposed tabular format, it is
evident that AERA has followed “closing head count
approach”, which reflects average per employee compound
annual growth computation of 6.08 percent, compound annual
growth whereas it is submitted by the appellant airport operator
that AERA should have followed “average head count
approach” , which reflects average of 6.69 percent annual
growth.
688. The summary of cost per employee as per the appellant's
submission, as per the Authority's approval in the Third Control
Period Tariff Order, and the actual cost incurred by the appellant
is presented before us in tabular format, which reads as under:
(Rs in Lakhs)
Cost per
FY22 FY23 FY24 FY25 FY26(P)
employee
BIAL
Submission
(a)
19.67 21.43 23.61 27.35 30.58
Page 423 of 546
AERA
16.90 17.88 18.91 20.01 21.17
Approval (b)
Actuals
incurred by
BIAL
(c)
18.80 20.08 19.97 22.03 24.00
Variance
11% 12% 6% 10% 13%
(c)/(b)-1
In view of the aforesaid summarised table, cost escalations in
every three years are in the range of 10 per cent, with a 2 per
cent cost correction.
689. AERA has, in its own order, disclosed why its conclusion cannot
stand. At paragraph 7.5.5 of the impugned order, AERA records
that it has determined the personnel cost per employee without
going into granular details such as departments and grades. Yet
in its reply before us, AERA explains the fall in the cost per
employee shown in its own Table No. 115 precisely by reference
to the grade of the employees recruited, namely that about three
quarters of the additions, 129 out of 171, were in the airport
rescue and firefighting department, whose personnel are paid
less than managerial staff. AERA thus accepts that the mix of
grades distorts a simple division of total cost by closing
Page 424 of 546
headcount, while declining to examine that mix when fixing the
escalation.
690. AERA's reason for reducing the manpower additions, under
paragraph 7.5.4 of the impugned order, was that passenger
traffic had fallen as a result of the pandemic and was not
expected to cross pre pandemic levels until the financial year
2024, and that Terminal 2 would reach its peak capacity only at
the end of the Third Control Period. But the facts set out under
Issue No. XXII show that the airport operated at about ninety
seven and a half per cent of its capacity in the financial year 2023,
and that Terminal 1 operated above its design capacity in two
years of the control period.
691. More fundamentally, the obligations of an airport
operator to keep its runways, its rescue and fire fighting
services, its operations control centre and its security
arrangements fully manned do not rise and fall with
passenger numbers, as this Tribunal recognised at
paragraph 226 of the Mangaluru judgment in observing
that manpower could not be expected to be laid off
during the pandemic .
Page 425 of 546
692. AERA in its reply further contends that, although the
commissioning of Terminal 2 was postponed by nine months to
31st December 2022, the Appellant continued to claim the same
headcount in the same years, and so claims a double advantage.
That contention has force against the projection, but it has none
against a true up upon actuals. If the Appellant recruited later
than it had projected, the actual cost will show it, and the users
will pay only for the manpower actually deployed and the cost
actually incurred.
693. In view of the aforesaid facts, reasons and judicial
pronouncements, we quash and set aside the decision of
AERA in paragraph 7.5.7 of the impugned order,
Annexure A1. We direct AERA to allow the personnel
expenses for the Third Control Period and the manpower
additions actually made by the Appellant during that
period. The manpower cost shall accordingly be allowed
on actual basis, verified against the Appellant's audited
accounts, and the necessary true up shall be given in the
tariff order for the Fourth Control Period. Issue No. XXIII
is accordingly answered in favour of the Appellant.
Page 426 of 546
ISSUE XXIV: Penalty imposed by AERA upon the
Appellant
694. Looking to the 5.5.6 & 5.5.7 of the impugned order (Annexure
A1), AERA while passing the tariff order for third control period,
has prescribed a penalty of 1% of project cost in the guise of
‘readjustment’ and proposed to deduct the same from ARR as
st
phase 1 of terminal T- 2 project is delayed beyond 31 March,
2022. For the ready reference, 5.5.6 & 5.5.7 of the impugned
order reads as under:
“ 5.5.6 The Authority has examined the comments of BIAL,
GoK, IDD, Siemens and FIA on the 1% readjustment
in case of delay in implementation of the project. The
Authority understands that BIAL has done due
diligence while proposing the capitalization plan on
which tariffs are determined for users. Thus, the
contention of BIAL to not adjust 1% of the project
cost does not make any justification. Accordingly, the
Authority decides to reduce 1% of the project cost
from ARR/Target Revenue as readjustment in case
any particular project is not capitalized as per
approval in the tariff order. It is further clarified that
in case there is a delay in completion of the project
beyond the timeline given in the tariff order, due to
any reason beyond the control of BIAL or its
contracting agency and is properly justified, the same
would be considered by the Authority while truing up
the actual cost at the time of determination of tariff
for the 4th control period. Further, this decision is
Page 427 of 546
applicable to all the projects forecasted to be
capitalized in the third control period given in this
tariff order. Hon'ble TDSAT in its judgement dated 16
December 2020 has also upheld the Authority's
decision in this regard.
5.5.7. The Authority has examined the comment of APAO
regarding reconsideration of the penalty proposed for
capital programs for the Third Control Period. The
Authority as part of its analysis in the Consultation
Paper no. 10/2021-22 had detailed reasons for the
1% re-adjustment and accordingly sees no reason to
revise the same. ”
695. Learned Senior Counsel appearing for the Appellant, Mr. Sajan
Poovayya, submitted that AERA possesses no statutory power,
jurisdiction, or authority under AERA Act,2008 or under the
Concession Agreement dated 05.07.2004 to levy any
penalty or impose a compulsory financial exaction under the
guise of a "1% re-adjustment" of the ARR. It was further
submitted that the issue of AERA’s lack of penal jurisdiction is no
longer res integra, having been conclusively settled in favour of
airport operators by multiple authoritative coordinate bench
judgments of this Tribunal.
696. AERA has sought to describe the measure not as a “penalty” but
as a regulatory “re-adjustment” intended to ensure timely
capitalisation of assets and to protect airport users against the
Page 428 of 546
financial consequences of delayed projects. According to AERA,
unless some consequence follows from delayed capitalisation, an
Airport Operator may continue to derive financing-related
benefits without making the corresponding infrastructure
available to passengers.
697. AERA further placed reliance on Section 13(1)(a), Section
13(1)(f), Section 14(4) of the AERA Act, Clause 9.2.9 of the
Concession Agreement, and the earlier decision of a Single Bench
of this Tribunal in BIAL v. AERA (AERA Appeal No. 8 of 2018,
judgment dated 16.12.2020).
698. We have carefully considered the rival submissions, perused the
material on record, and examined the statutory scheme of the
AERA Act alongside the binding judicial precedents of this
Tribunal.
699. We are unable to accept the proposition that the legal character
of the measure depends upon the nomenclature assigned to it by
the regulator; because a compulsory reduction of an otherwise
determined Aggregate Revenue Requirement, imposed because
the Airport Operator has failed to complete a project within the
stipulated period and intended to operate as a deterrent against
such delay, is punitive in substance and merely calling it a “re-
Page 429 of 546
adjustment”, “rationalisation” or “de-incentive” does not alter its
juridical character.
700. AERA undoubtedly possesses substantial powers under the AERA
Act to determine tariff, scrutinise capital expenditure, ensure
timely investment, monitor performance standards and
undertake true-up. Section 13(1)(a)(i) expressly requires
consideration of capital expenditure and timely investment in
improvement of airport facilities; Section 13(1)(a)(ii) permits
consideration of service and its quality; Section 13(1)(a)(iii)
permits consideration of the cost of improving efficiency; Section
14(4) empowers AERA to issue directions to monitor performance
of service providers; and Section 15 authorises necessary
directions for discharge of its statutory functions. For ready
reference the relevant provisions of AERA Act,2008 is reproduced
below and reads as under:
Chapter III
POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE AUTHORITY
13. Functions of Authority.—
(1) The Authority shall perform the following
functions in respect of major airports, namely:—
Page 430 of 546
(a) to determine the tariff for the aeronautical
services taking into consideration—
(i) the capital expenditure incurred and timely
investment in improvement of airport
facilities;
(ii) the service provided, its quality and other
relevant factors;
(iii) the cost for improving efficiency;
(iv) economic and viable operation of major
airports;
(v) revenue received from services other than
the aeronautical services;
(vi) the concession offered by the Central
Government in any agreement or
memorandum of understanding or
otherwise;
(vii) any other factor which may be relevant
for the purposes of this Act:
Provided that different tariff structures may be
determined for different airports having regard to all
or any of the above considerations specified at sub-
clauses (i) to (vii);
(b) to determine the amount of the development
fees in respect of major airports;
(c) to determine the amount of the passengers
service fee levied under Rule 88 of the Aircraft
Page 431 of 546
Rules, 1937 made under the Aircraft Act, 1934
(22 of 1934);
(d) to monitor the set performance standards
relating to quality, continuity and reliability of
service as may be specified by the Central
Government or any authority authorised by it
in this behalf;
(e) to call for such information as may be
necessary to determine the tariff under clause
(a);
(f) to perform such other functions relating to
tariff, as may be entrusted to it by the Central
Government or as may be necessary to carry
out the provisions of this Act.
(1-A) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-
sections (1) and (2), the Authority shall not
determine the tariff or tariff structures or the
amount of development fees in respect of an
airport or part thereof, if such tariff or tariff
structures or the amount of development fees
has been incorporated in the bidding document,
which is the basis for award of operatorship of
that airport:
Provided that the Authority shall be consulted in
advance regarding the tariff, tariff structures or the
amount of development fees which is proposed to be
incorporated in the said bidding document and such
tariff, tariff structures or the amount of development
fees shall be notified in the Official Gazette.]
Page 432 of 546
(2) The Authority shall determine the tariff once
in five years and may if so considered
appropriate and in public interest, amend, from
time to time during the said period of five years,
the tariff so determined.
(3) While discharging its functions under sub-
section (1) the Authority shall not act against the
interest of the sovereignty and integrity of India,
the security of the State, friendly relations with
foreign States, public order, decency or morality.
(4) The Authority shall ensure transparency while
exercising its powers and discharging its
functions, inter alia,—
(a) by holding due consultations with all stake-
holders with the airport;
(b) by allowing all stake-holders to make their
submissions to the authority; and
(c) by making all decisions of the authority fully
documented and explained.
xxx
14. Powers of Authority to call for information,
conduct investigations, etc.—
(1) Where the Authority considers it expedient so
to do, it may by order in writing—
(a) call upon any service provider at any time to
furnish in writing such information or
explanation relating to its functions as the
Page 433 of 546
Authority may require to access the
performance of the service provider; or
(b) appoint one or more persons to make an
inquiry in relation to the affairs of any service
provider; and
(c) direct any of its officers or employees to
inspect the books of account or other
documents of any service provider.
(2) Where any inquiry in relation to the affairs of a
service provider has been undertaken under sub-
section (1)—
(a) every office of the Government department,
if such service provider is a department of the
Government; or
(b) every director, manager, secretary or other
officer, if such service provider is a company;
or
(c) every partner, manager, secretary or other
officer, if such service provider is a firm; or
(d) every other person or body of persons who
has had dealings in the course of business
with any of the persons mentioned in clauses
(b) or (c),
shall be bound to produce before the Authority
making the inquiry, all such books of account or
other documents in his custody or power relating
to, or having a bearing on the subject-matter of
such inquiry and also to furnish to the Authority
with any such statement or information relating
Page 434 of 546
thereto, as the case may be, required of him,
within such time as may be specified.
(3) Every service provider shall maintain such books
of account or other documents as may be
prescribed.
(4) The Authority shall have the power to issue such
directions to monitor the performance of the
service providers as it may consider necessary for
proper functioning by service providers.
xxx
15. Power of Authority to issue certain
directions .—
The Authority may, for the purpose of discharge of
its functions under this Act, issue, from time to time
to the service providers, such directions, as it may
consider necessary.
xxx
701. Upon careful examination of the aforesaid sections, it appears to
us that none of these provisions, however, expressly confers
upon AERA the power to create and impose a monetary penalty
calculated as a percentage of project cost for delayed completion
of a capital project. The power to monitor is not synonymous with
the power to punish. The power to issue directions does not,
without a substantive charging provision, carry within it an
unenumerated power to impose pecuniary sanctions.
Page 435 of 546
702. Another important aspect is apparent to us from the scheme of
AERA Act, 2008, when the same is carefully examined as a whole.
Parliament has enacted a separate Chapter VI titled “Offences
and Penalties”, wherein, Sections 37, 38 and 39 specify the
defaults for which punishment by way of fine may follow and
prescribe the permissible monetary consequences and Section 47
further provides that no court shall take cognizance of an offence
punishable under the Act except upon a written complaint made
by AERA or by an authorised officer. For ready reference the
same reads as under:
Chapter VI
OFFENCES AND PENALTIES
37. Penalty for wilful failure to comply with orders
of Appellate Tribunal .—
If any person wilfully fails to comply with the order of
the Appellate Tribunal, he shall be punishable with fine
which may extend to one lakh rupees and in case of a
second or subsequent offence with fine which may
extend to two lakh rupees and in the case of
continuing contravention with additional fine which
may extend to two lakh rupees for every day during
which such default continues.
38. Punishment for non-compliance of orders and
directions under this Act.—
Whoever fails to comply with any order or direction
given under this Act, or contravenes, or attempts to
Page 436 of 546
contravene or abets the contravention of the
provisions of this Act or of any rules or regulations
made thereunder shall be punishable with fine which
may extend to one lakh rupees and in case of a second
or subsequent offence with fine which may extend to
two lakh rupees and in case of a continuing
contravention with an additional fine which may
extend to four thousand rupees for every day during
which the default continues.
39. Punishment for non-compliance with order of
Authority or Appellate Tribunal.—
If any person wilfully fails to comply with an order of
the Authority or of the Appellate Tribunal, passed
under Chapter IV, he shall be punishable with fine
which may extend to one lakh rupees and, in the case
of a second or subsequent offence, with fine which
may extend to two lakh rupees and in the case of a
continuing failure, with an additional fine which may
extend to four thousand rupees for every day during
which such failure continues.
40. Offences by companies.—
(1) Where an offence under this Act has been
committed by a company, every person who, at the
time the offence was committed, was in charge of,
and was responsible to the company for the
conduct of, the business of the company, as well
as the company, shall be deemed to be guilty of
the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded
against and punished accordingly:
Provided that nothing contained in this sub-section
shall render any such person liable to any punishment
provided in this Act, if he proves that the offence was
committed without his knowledge or that he had
exercised all due diligence to prevent the commission
of such offence.
Page 437 of 546
(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section
(1), where an offence under this Act has been
committed by a company, and it is proved that the
offence has been committed with the consent or
connivance of, or is attributable to any neglect on
the part of, any director, manager, secretary or
other officer of the company, such director,
manager, secretary or other officer shall also be
deemed to be guilty of the offence and shall be
liable to be proceeded against and punished
accordingly.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this section—
(a) “company” means any body corporate and
includes a firm or other association of
individuals; and
(b) “director” means a whole-time director in the
company and in relation to a firm, means a
partner in the firm.
41. Offences by Government Departments.—
(1) Where an offence under this Act has been
committed by any Department of Government or
any of its undertakings, the Head of the
Department or its undertakings shall be deemed to
be guilty of an offence and shall be liable to be
proceeded against and punished accordingly
unless he proves that the offence was committed
without his knowledge or that he had exercised all
due diligence to prevent the commission of such
offence.
(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section
(1), where an offence under this Act has been
committed by any Department of Government or
its undertakings and it is proved that the offence
has been committed with the consent or
connivance of, or is attributable to any neglect on
Page 438 of 546
the part of any officer, other than the Head of the
Department, or its undertakings, such officer shall
also be deemed to be guilty of that offence and
shall be liable to be proceeded against and
punished accordingly.
47. Cognizance of offences.—
No court shall take cognizance of an offence
punishable under this Act, except upon a complaint in
writing made by the Authority or by any officer of the
Authority duly authorised by the Authority for this
purpose.
xxx
703. From the perusal of the above, we are of the opinion that the
existence of this specific penal architecture is inconsistent with
the proposition that a further and undefined power to impose
monetary punishment may be implied from the general tariff-
determination or monitoring provisions of Sections 13, 14 and 15.
Where Parliament has itself prescribed the circumstances,
quantum and process through which penal consequences may
arise, an additional penal liability cannot be created
administratively under the guise of tariff rationalisation.
704. We ought to remind AERA that the Constitution Bench of the
Hon’ble Supreme Court in Khemka & Co. (Agencies) Pvt. Ltd.
v. State of Maharashtra , (1975) 2 SCC 22, explained that
imposition of a penalty creates a substantive liability and cannot
Page 439 of 546
be treated merely as machinery or procedure. A pecuniary liability
in the nature of a penalty must have a substantive statutory
source. For ready reference the same reads as under:
24. The Income Tax Act, 1961 imposes penalty under
Sections 270 and 271. These sections in the Income Tax
Act provide for imposition of penalty on contumacious
or fraudulent assessees. Penalty is in addition to income
tax, if any, determined as payable by the assessee. Tax
and penalty like tax and interest are distinct and
different concepts under the Indian Income Tax
Act . The word “assessment” could cover penalty
proceedings if it is used to denote the whole procedure
for imposing liability on the taxpayer as happened in
Abraham case [AIR 1961 SC 609 : (1961) 2 SCR 765 :
(1961) 41 ITR 425] . Penalty is within assessment
proceedings just as tax is within assessment
proceedings when the relevant Act by substantive
charging provision levies tax as well as penalty.
25. Penalty is not merely sanction. It is not merely
adjunct to assessment. It is not merely
consequential to assessment. It is not merely
machinery. Penalty is in addition to tax and is a
liability under the Act. Reference may be made to
Section 28 of the Indian Income Tax Act, 1922 where
penalty is provided for concealment of income. Penalty
is in addition to the amount of income tax. This Court in
Jain Brothers v. Union of India [(1969) 3 SCC 311 :
(1970) 77 ITR 107] said that penalty is not a
continuation of assessment proceedings and that
penalty partakes of the character of additional tax.
39. On a consideration of the provisions mentioned above,
it seems to me to be clear that whatever may be the
Page 440 of 546
objects of levying a penalty, its imposition gives rise to
a substantive liability which can be viewed either as an
additional tax or as a fine for the infringement of the
law. The machinery or procedure for its realization
comes into operation after its imposition. In any case,
it is an imposition of a pecuniary liability which is
comparable to a punishment for the commission
of an offence. It is a well settled canon of
construction of statutes that neither a pecuniary
liability can be imposed nor an offence created by
mere implication. It may be debatable whether a
particular procedural provision creates a substantive
right or liability. But, I do not think that the
imposition of a pecuniary liability, which takes
the form of a penalty or fine for a breach of a
legal obligation, can be relegated to the region of
mere procedure and machinery for the
realization of tax. It is more than that. Such
liabilities must be created by clear,
unambiguous, and express enactment. The
language used should leave no serious doubts
about its effect so that the persons who are to be
subjected to such a liability for the infringement
of law are not left in a state of uncertainty as to
what their duties or liabilities are. This is an
essential requirement of a good Government of
laws. It is implied in the constitutional mandate
found in Article 265 of our Constitution: “No tax
shall be levied or collected except by authority of
law .”
46. After considering the provisions of the Central Act as
well as the State Acts relating to penalties, one is
irresistibly driven to the conclusion that provisions
relating to penalties are special and specific
provisions in each Act. They are not part of “the
Page 441 of 546
general Sales Tax law” of either the State or of
the Union . If the provisions relating to penalties, such
as those found in the Central Act and the State Acts, are
really special provisions which can be invoked in the
special circumstances given in each statute, we must
interpret the reference to penalties in the concluding
portion of Section 9(2), preceding the proviso, to relate
only to the special provisions relating to penalties
provided for specifically in the Central Act.
47. I think that the maxim of interpretation to apply here
is: “ Expressio unius exclusio alterius ”. This is
explained as follows in Maxwell on the Interpretation
of Statutes (12th Edn. p. 298):
“By the Rule usually known in the form of this Latin
Maxim, mention of one or more things of a
particular class may be regarded as silently
excluding all other members of the class;
expressum facit cessare tacitum.”
705. The same principle of statutory restraint was reiterated in
Ahmedabad Urban Development Authority Vs.
Sharadkumar Jayantikumar Pasawalla , (1992) 3 SCC
285 , where the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that a statutory
authority cannot impose a monetary levy merely by implication
where the parent statute does not confer the requisite power.
The fact that a levy may further the purposes of the statute
cannot substitute for the absence of legislative authority. For
ready reference the same reads as under:
Page 442 of 546
“7. After giving our anxious consideration to the
contentions raised by Mr Goswami, it appears to us
that in a fiscal matter it will not be proper to hold
that even in the absence of express provision, a
delegated authority can impose tax or fee. In our
view, such power of imposition of tax and/or fee
by delegated authority must be very specific and
there is no scope of implied authority for
imposition of such tax or fee. It appears to us
that the delegated authority must act strictly
within the parameters of the authority delegated
to it under the Act and it will not be proper to
bring the theory of implied intent or the concept
of incidental and ancillary power in the matter of
exercise of fiscal power… ”
8. The High Court has referred to the decisions of this
Court in Hingir case [AIR 1961 SC 459 : (1961) 2 SCR
537] and Jagannath Ramanuj case [AIR 1954 SC 400 :
1954 SCR 1046] and Delhi Municipal Corporation case
[(1983) 3 SCC 229 : 1983 SCC (Tax) 154 : AIR 1983 SC
617] . It has been consistently held by this Court
that whenever there is compulsory exaction of
any money, there should be specific provision for
the same and there is no room for intendment.
Nothing is to be read and nothing is to be implied
and one should look fairly to the language used .
We are, therefore, unable to accept the contention of
Mr Goswami. Accordingly, there is no occasion to
interfere with the impugned decision of the High Court.
The appeal, therefore, fails and is dismissed with no
order as to costs. ”
706. At this stage, we notice the judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme
Court in the case of ‘ Carona Ltd. v. Parvathy Swaminathan
Page 443 of 546
& Sons’, (2007) 8 SCC 558 , on the vital issue of Jurisdictional
Fact, under paragraphs No. 27-29 has held as follows:
“27. Stated simply, the fact or facts upon which the
jurisdiction of a court, a tribunal or an authority
depends can be said to be a “jurisdictional fact”.
If the jurisdictional fact exists, a court, tribunal
or authority has jurisdiction to decide other
issues. If such fact does not exist, a court,
tribunal or authority cannot act. It is also well
settled that a court or a tribunal cannot wrongly
assume existence of jurisdictional fact and
proceed to decide a matter . The underlying principle
is that by erroneously assuming existence of a
jurisdictional fact, a subordinate court or an inferior
tribunal cannot confer upon itself jurisdiction which it
otherwise does not posses.
28. In Halsbury's Laws of England (4th Edn.), Vol. 1, Para
55, p. 61; Reissue, Vol. 1(1), Para 68, pp. 114-15, it has
been stated:
“Where the jurisdiction of a tribunal is dependent
on the existence of a particular state of affairs,
that state of affairs may be described as
preliminary to, or collateral to the merits of, the
issue. If, at the inception of an inquiry by an
inferior tribunal, a challenge is made to its
jurisdiction, the tribunal has to make up its mind
whether to act or not and can give a ruling on
the preliminary or collateral issue; but that ruling
is not conclusive.”
The existence of a jurisdictional fact is thus a sine
qua non or condition precedent to the
assumption of jurisdiction by a court or tribunal.
Page 444 of 546
29. But there is distinction between “jurisdictional fact” and
“adjudicatory fact” which cannot be ignored. An
“adjudicatory fact” is a “fact in issue” and can be
determined by a court, tribunal or authority on “merits”,
on the basis of evidence adduced by the parties. It is no
doubt true that it is very difficult to distinguish
“jurisdictional fact” and “fact in issue” or “adjudicatory
fact”. Nonetheless the difference between the
two cannot be overlooked . ”
707. Furthermore, the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of ‘ Shrisht
Dhawan (SMT) v. M/s Shaw Brothers’, (1992) 1 SCC 534 ,
under paragraph No. 19, has has observed as under:
“19. …What, then, is an error in respect of
jurisdictional fact? A jurisdictional fact is one on
existence or non-existence of which depends
assumption or refusal to assume jurisdiction by a
court, tribunal or an authority. In Black's Legal
Dictionary it is explained as a fact which must
exist before a court can properly assume
jurisdiction of a particular case. Mistake of fact in
relation to jurisdiction is an error of jurisdictional
fact. No statutory authority or tribunal can
assume jurisdiction in respect of subject matter
which the statute does not confer on it and if by
deciding erroneously the fact on which
jurisdiction depends the court or tribunal
exercises the jurisdiction then the order is
vitiated. Error of jurisdictional fact renders the
order ultra vires and bad . [ Wade, Administrative
Law] In Raza Textiles [Raza Textiles Ltd. v. ITO, (1973)
1 SCC 633 : 1973 SCC (Tax) 327 : AIR 1973 SC 1362]
it was held that a court or tribunal cannot confer
Page 445 of 546
jurisdiction on itself by deciding a jurisdictional
fact wrongly . What are those facts which can be said
to be jurisdictional fact under Section 21? Although the
section visualises four conditions, namely, that the
landlord does not require the whole or part of premises
for a particular period, the landlord must obtain the
permission of the Controller in the prescribed manner,
letting of the whole or part of the premises must be for
residence and such letting must be for such period as
may be agreed between the landlord and the tenant in
writing. But the jurisdictional fact can be said to be two,
availability of vacant premises which are not required by
the landlord for the particular period and its letting out
for residential purpose. For instance a permission
obtained under Section 21 may be vitiated if the
premises were not vacant on the date of application.
Similarly if the permission is obtained in respect of non-
residential premises. What is significant is that the
declaration by the landlord that the premises were
available for letting out for short period is not required
to be backed by any reason. And an application filed
under Section 21 with or without reasons is neither bad
nor contrary to law. It may be accompanied by
statement of reasons or the application may merely
state that the landlord does not require the premises for
the period mentioned therein. In either case the
application shall be in accordance with law. And if the
Controller is satisfied that what was stated was correct
he is obliged to grant permission. This satisfaction may
be arrived at by believing the statement or requiring a
landlord to give reasons or furnish such information as
the Controller may consider necessary to satisfy himself
that the statement made by landlord was correct. But
once satisfaction is arrived at and the order is passed it
becomes operative and final. It cannot be reopened
because of mere mistake or error or in the
Page 446 of 546
circumstances a more reasonable approach should have
been to reject the application or allow it after obtaining
better details. Error in assumption of jurisdiction
should not be confused with mistake, legal or
factual in exercise of jurisdiction. In the former
the order is void whereas in the latter it is final
unless set aside by higher or competent court or
authority. An order which is void can be
challenged at any time in any proceeding …”
708. Thus, from analysis of above two decisions it is evident that in
those cases while examining the limits of jurisdiction of a
statutory adjudicatory authority, the Hon’ble Supreme Court
reiterated the fundamental principle that a statutory
authority cannot assume jurisdiction over a subject
matter which the statute does not confer upon it, nor can
it confer such jurisdiction upon itself by its own
determination . The Court also drew a clear distinction between
an error committed in the assumption of jurisdiction and an
error committed in the exercise of an admitted jurisdiction .
The former goes to the very authority of the statutory body to
act; the latter concerns only the manner in which an existing
jurisdiction is exercised.
709. The aforesaid distinction assumes significance in the present
controversy as the question before us is not merely whether one
Page 447 of 546
per cent was an excessive or inadequate percentage, nor whether
AERA could have devised a more proportionate regulatory
consequence. The anterior question is whether the AERA Act
confers upon AERA the substantive power to impose a
pecuniary sanction of this nature at all . Unless such
jurisdiction exists, considerations relating to regulatory
efficiency, passenger interest, timely capitalisation or the
desirability of deterring delay cannot themselves supply
the missing source of power.
710. We are of the view that the jurisdictional enquiry cannot be
answered by describing the impugned exaction as a “re-
adjustment” rather than a “penalty”. A statutory authority
cannot enlarge its jurisdiction by the terminology
through which it characterises the measure adopted by
it . If the substance of the measure is a compulsory pecuniary
detriment imposed upon occurrence of a specified default, its
legality must be tested by reference to the statutory authority to
impose that consequence and not by the label chosen by the
regulator.
711. Our attention is drawn to the judgment of this Tribunal in AERA
Appeal No. 8 of 2018 dated 16.12.2020. We have perused the
Page 448 of 546
same. The said decision is by a learned Single Judge. The
circumstances of the COVID-19 pandemic, which is a major
reason for causing delay in the completion of Phase I of the
Terminal 2 project, were not properly appreciated in that
judgment.
712. In the aforesaid judgement especially under paragraph 53 of that
judgment, AERA’s case was recorded to the effect that the 1%
deduction was a balancing mechanism consequent upon its
acceptance of BIAL’s assurance regarding capitalisation of
Terminal 2 Phase-I and that the expression “penalty” had been
employed in a special regulatory sense. Paragraph 54 accepted
that position and held that Sections 13(1)(f), 14(4) and 15 read
with Clause 9.2.9 of the Concession Agreement supplied sufficient
authority for the measure.
713. Upon reconsideration, we are unable to agree with the aforesaid
proposition as Section 13(1)(f) empowers AERA to perform such
other functions relating to tariff as may be entrusted by the
Central Government or may be necessary to carry out the
provisions of the Act. It is a facilitative provision. It cannot
constitute a substantive source for creation of a pecuniary penalty
which the Act has not prescribed.
Page 449 of 546
714. For the same reason, Section 14(4) cannot be enlarged beyond
its text. It authorises AERA to issue directions necessary to
monitor the performance of service providers. It does not state
that AERA may prescribe monetary punishment for breach of
such directions. Section 15 suffers from the same limitation. The
power to direct compliance and the power to impose a monetary
sanction for non-compliance are legally distinct.
715. AERA’s reliance on Clause 9.2.9 of the BIAL Concession
Agreement cannot cure the absence of statutory power. The
clause proceeds upon the contingency that, from the date the
Independent Regulatory Authority “has power” to review,
monitor, set standards and penalties and regulate the relevant
activities, BIAL shall comply with regulations framed by such
Authority. The words “has power” are of significance as the
clause recognises and obliges compliance with a power otherwise
lawfully vested in the regulator; it does not itself legislate such
power into existence.
716. This precise aspect has subsequently been considered by the
Division Bench of this Tribunal in the HIAL. It was held that
Clause 9.2.9 relates to performance standards concerning
Page 450 of 546
provision of services and could not be invoked to assume
jurisdiction to penalise delayed construction of capital projects.
717. The premise of the learned Single Member judgment that the
word “penalty” was being used merely in a different sense also
cannot survive closer scrutiny, because the relevant question is
not what AERA calls the measure, but what the measure does. If
the measure is imposed because of non-completion within a
stipulated date; it reduces the Airport Operator’s revenue by a
predetermined percentage; and AERA itself justifies it on the
ground that there must be “some implication” for delay, then to
us it appears that its object is deterrent and its consequence are
pecuniary. It is therefore it is penal in character and substance.
718. To the extent, therefore, that paragraphs 53 and 54 of the
judgment dated 16.12.2020 in the matter of Bangalore
International Airport Ltd. Vs. AERA, wherein it was held that
Sections 13(1)(f), 14(4) and 15 of the AERA Act read with Clause
9.2.9 of the Concession Agreement empower AERA to impose a
1% punitive deduction from ARR for delayed completion of a
capital project, the said view does not lay down the correct
law and is hereby overruled by this division bench of this
Tribunal.
Page 451 of 546
719. This Tribunal, in the case of Mumbai International Airport
Limited Vs. AERA , being AERA Appeal No. 2 of 2021 under
judgment dated 06.10.2023, under paragraph 308, has held as
under:
“308. Moreover, in the absence of any provision for penalty
under OMDA or SSA or AERA Act, 2008, no such penalty
can be imposed, otherwise highly discriminatory
position will prevail because today 1% of project cost
penalty is imposed and subsequently it may be
increased to 1.5%. If 1% penalty is allowed then 1.5%
penalty would also have to be allowed then in forth
coming years, as there are unguided powers, the
penalty might be 3% also and, thereafter it can be 5%
or more also. There will be no end to penalty in absence
of any provision under OMDA, SSA and AERA Act, 2008.
It ought to be kept in mind that unguided and
uncontrolled power always leads to discrimination. In
case of one airport operator penalty imposed will be 1%
and in case of another airport operator it can be 2%
because there is no law, there is no contract, there is
no provision and there are no guidelines. The balance
has already been created under OMDA and SSA in the
methodology of true up in next control period and as
stated hereinabove, as per the said methodology,
excess amount recovered shall be trued up with
carrying cost in next control period. Therefore, in the
aforesaid example, if Rs.83 Crores has been recovered,
the true up amount in the next control period, if the
project is not commenced or completed within the time
bound schedule, would be at Rs.121 Crores which is in
Page 452 of 546
fact more than sufficient revenue clawed back from the
airport operator and perhaps for this very reason no
powers have been given to AERA for imposing penalty.
Hence, we hereby quash and set aside the decision of
AERA of carrying out 1% of readjustment to project cost
and applicable carrying cost in the target revenue at the
time of determination of tariff for next control period.”
720. Subsequently this Tribunal, in the case of Hyderabad
International Airport Limited Vs. AERA, being AERA
Appeal No. 4 of 2021 , under judgment dated 14.02.2024,
under paragraphs 511, 512, 517 and 519, has held as under:
“ 511. Moreover, it ought to be kept in mind that during
Covid Pandemic situation prevailing in this country, the
construction work has suffered a lot, airport projects
are no exception to it. The delay in completion of the
project at the airport was thus beyond the control of
this appellant. This aspect of the matter has not been
properly appreciated by AERA.
512. Imposition of the penalty by 1% is absolutely arbitrary
in nature because today AERA has imposed 1% and
tomorrow it could be 1.5% and thereafter it can be
2%, so on and so forth. The penalty has to be
prescribed under law. Penalty cannot be imposed at
the whims and caprice of the authority.
517. Respondent No. 1- AERA and Respondent No. 2-FIA
have relied upon judgment in case of BIAL for the
present issue. Looking to the facts of the present case,
the contentions of Respondent no. 1 and Respondent
no. 2 of reliance upon BIAL's judgment is of no help in
the present case especially, of Clause 9.2.9 of
Page 453 of 546
Concession Agreement to assume the jurisdiction to
levy the penalty is wrong. On the contrary, looking to
Clause 9.2.9 of the Concession Agreement it relates to
performance standards for the provisions of services,
as mentioned in Schedule 9 Part 2 of the Concession
Agreement and not for issues related to construction.
519. Therefore, by trueing up the cost of incomplete project,
much higher amount is going to be deducted, therefore,
again second time penalty cannot be imposed by 1%.
Hence, we hereby quash and set aside of carrying out
1% of readjustment to project cost and applicable
carrying cost in ARR .”
721. Furthermore, this Tribunal in the case of Mangaluru
International Airport Limited Vs. AERA , being AERA
Appeal No. 1 of 2023 , judgment dated 11.09.2025, has held
as under:
“ 285. The decision of AERA to de-incentivise the appellant by
reducing 1% of project cost in case of delay in
implementation of the project is incorrect and against
the principles of tariff fixation. There are variety of
reasons for delay, when such delay is beyond the
control of appellant, keeping in mind the dynamic
environment post COVID-19 period. If 1% penalty is
imposed, the Airport Operator will have to suffer from
double jeopardy because due to delay in completion of
project, the return on asset will be denied and 1%
penalty would be imposed and both cannot go
together. The power to impose penalty must
come from the AERA Act, 2008. In absence of
such power in AERA Act, 2008, penalty cannot
be imposed by AERA . This de-incentivise by 1% is
Page 454 of 546
in the nature of a penalty. A thing which cannot be
done directly, can never be done indirectly. There is
no provision under the AERA Act, 2008, AERA
Guidelines, 2011 and Concession Agreement which
empowers AERA to penalise the appellant hence, the
order passed by AERA of re-adjustment in the ARR is
beyond the power, jurisdiction and authority of AERA
hence, the same is hereby quashed and set aside. ”
722. Thus, the absence of any legal standard is apparent from the
penalty itself. Nothing in the Act, the Guidelines or the Concession
Agreement fixes one per cent, rather than a half or two per cent,
as the measure of the deduction. As this Tribunal held at
paragraph 512 of the Hyderabad judgment, a penalty that is fixed
at the discretion of the authority, without any governing
standard, may be one per cent today and more tomorrow, and
may differ between one airport and another. A power to exact
money that is guided by no standard is the very definition of
arbitrariness, and it is for this reason that the law insists that a
penalty be prescribed by law and not by the authority that
imposes it.
723. For the reasons recorded above, we hold that AERA has no
power, jurisdiction or authority under the AERA Act, the
Airport Tariff Guidelines of 2011 or the Concession
Agreement to impose a penalty, or a readjustment in the
Page 455 of 546
nature of a penalty, upon the Appellant by reducing one
per cent of the project cost from the Aggregate Revenue
Requirement for delay in capitalisation. We quash and set
aside the decision of AERA at paragraph 5.5.6 & 5.5.7 of
the impugned order, together with the decision recorded
in the impugned order to reduce one per cent of the
project cost from the Aggregate Revenue Requirement in
case any project, including Terminal 2, Phase 1, is not
capitalised as approved in the tariff order. We direct
AERA not to make any such reduction in the true up for
the Third Control Period in the determination of tariff for
the Fourth Control Period, without prejudice to the true
up of the actual cost and of the recoveries made upon
projects not capitalised as projected, in accordance with
the Guidelines. Issue No. XXIV is accordingly answered
in favour of the Appellant.
ISSUE XXV: Consideration of Income Tax.
(A) Deduction of One Time Depreciation before computing
aeronautical taxes.
Page 456 of 546
724. The first limb of the present issue concerns the methodology
adopted by AERA in paragraph 3.8.19 of the impugned Tariff
Order for determining the aeronautical tax attributable to FY
2018-19 while undertaking true-up of the Second Control Period.
For ready reference paragraph 3.8.19 reads as under:
“ 3.8.19. The Authority has carefully examined BIAL's comment
on the adjustment of one-time depreciation in FY19
from aeronautical profits. The Authority noted that BIAL
has not considered the one-time depreciation in the P&L
as per the Order No.35/2017-18 of the Authority and
the Income Tax Act. Therefore, the MAT computation
of FY19 did not consider this one-time depreciation.
The Authority notes from BIAL's comment that it does
not agree with the Authority's reduction of the one-time
depreciation from the aeronautical profit before tax as
such deduction is not allowed under Income Tax Act.
The Authority noted that BIAL had not included the one
time depreciation charge in the audited P&L of the
airport however for tariff filing purposes it has included
the one-time depreciation charges in the total
depreciation. Since the Authority is allowing BIAL to
claim the aeronautical one-time depreciation charges
from the aeronautical tariffs, the Authority considers it
reasonable to account the aeronautical one-time
depreciation charge for computing the aeronautical
profit before tax.
Further, the Authority noted that it has applied the ratio
of aeronautical PRT to total PRT on the actual tax paid
by BIAL to compute the aeronautical taxation. The
Page 457 of 546
Authority noted that it has considered the actual tax
paid by the airport operator in computing the
aeronautical taxation irrespective of the fact that the
actual tax paid could have been lower if Income Tax Act
and AERA's Order No.35/2017-18 would have allowed
consideration of the one-time depreciation charge as a
P&L entry. BIAL submitted that the Authority has not
considered the deduction of the one-time depreciation
charge from the total profits of the airport, to compute
the aeronautical PBT to total PBT ratio. The Authority
considers it fair to deduct the one-time depreciation
from both aeronautical PBT and the total PBT to
compute its ratio for determination of the aeronautical
tax. Accordingly, the Authority has revised the true-up
of the taxation for the Second Control Period .”
725. In view of the above, under impugned tariff order, AERA has
deducted one-time depreciation from both aeronautical profit
before taxes (PBT), and total PBT to compute the aeronautical
taxes by BIAL for the financial year 2019, whereas the submission
by the present appellant that AERA should consider the actual
taxes paid by BIAL for the financial year 2019.
726. Under Section 115JB of the Income Tax Act, 1961, where the
income-tax payable by a company under the normal provisions is
less than 18.5% of its book profit, the book profit is deemed to
be its total income and MAT is payable thereon at the prescribed
rate. Thus, once BIAL became liable to MAT for FY 2018-19,
payment thereof was a statutory tax liability. We find force in
Page 458 of 546
the Appellant’s submission that the regulatory computation of
aeronautical tax ought therefore to reflect the tax actually paid,
without notionally reducing the relevant PBT by the one-time
depreciation which was not charged to the P&L for MAT purposes.
It is statutory obligation of BIAL to pay MAT at the end of financial
year, akin to regular income tax payable by an assesse. AERA has
declined to reimburse the actual tax paid by BIAL as per
paragraph 3.8.11 of the impugned tariff order. For ready
reference paragraph 3.8.11 reads as under:
“ 3.8.11. The Authority has noted that BIAL has not considered
the one-time depreciation charge in the P&L while
computing aeronautical taxation, BIAL, in its response
to queries, has submitted that the onetime depreciation
charge would have been charged to P&L account and
since there is a regulatory override in Note no. 2 of
Order no. 35, the same is adjusted in retained earnings.
Since. one-time depreciation is allowed in the
computation of the ARR, the Authority proposes to
consider the onetime depreciation charge while
computing the aeronautical Profit Before Tax (PBT). ”
727. AERA has proceeded upon the basis that, since one-time
depreciation arising from Order No. 35/2017-18 dated
12.01.2018, had been allowed in the regulatory computation of
ARR, the corresponding amount should also be deducted while
arriving at aeronautical Profit Before Tax and total Profit Before
Page 459 of 546
Tax for purposes of allocating the actual tax paid by BIAL
between its aeronautical and non-aeronautical activities.
th
728. As per AERA Order No.35/2017-18, 12 January, 2018, Annexure
R-40 and due to change in depreciation assets there was a one-
time impact, useful life of certain assets was reduced forthwith.
Therefore, capital expenditure, capital expense of such assets
was also reduced in the balance sheet. One-time impact of
depreciation of assets which was to be charged as “Reserves
and Surplus” as per note IV of AERA’s Order No.35/2017-18,
Annexure R-40 and was to be added as expense in the P&L
account.
729. The minimum alternate tax of Rs. 131.04 crores in the financial
statement for the financial year 2019 was based on a profit before
tax of Rs. 675.28 crores. This profit before tax of Rs. 675.28
crores was arrived at without considering the one-time
depreciation of approximately Rs. 125.92 crores, as the same was
charged to reserves and surplus as per Note 2 of Order No.
th
35/2017-18 dated 12 January 2018 (Annexure R-41).
730. Looking to the impugned tariff orders, AERA has calculated the
aeronautical taxes reimbursement to BIAL by adding the one-
time depreciation to the aeronautical P&L. This is not permissible.
Page 460 of 546
This will reduce reimbursement to BIAL because BIAL has paid
MAT based on the P&L account which did not include one-time
depreciation. This amount of one-time depreciation was charged
to the reserves of BIAL in the balance sheet as per note IV of
AERA's Order No.35/2017-18, Annexure R41.
731. This aspect of the matter has not been properly appreciated by
AERA. For the purpose of tariff determination, AERA had added
one-time depreciation as expenditure to the aeronautical P&L,
which has resulted into reduction of BIAL's profitability and
consequently resulted reduction in BIAL's tax liability.
732. Considering the one-time depreciation of Rs.125.92 Crores in
financial year 2019 and 88.96% being considered aeronautical as
per AERA, (table number 31 of the impugned order), the
depreciation additionally considered by AERA to compute
aeronautical P&L amounts to Rs.112.02 Crores (88.96% of
125.92). For the ready reference, note 2 of AERA's Order
No.35/2017-18, Annexure R41 reads as under:
“Note 2:
1. The above rates shall be effective from accounting
periods commencing on or after 1 April 2018.
Page 461 of 546
2. From the date this Schedule comes into effect,
the book value of the asset as on that date (a)
shall be depreciated over the remaining useful life
of the asset as per this Schedule; (b) after
retaining the residual value, shall be recognised in
the opening balance of retained earnings where
the remaining useful life of an asset is nil.
3. Useful life specified is for whole of the asset.
Where cost of a part of the asset is significant to
total cost of the asset and useful life of that part
is different from the useful life of the remaining
asset, useful life of that significant part shall be
determined separately. ”
733. Learned Senior Counsel Mr. Sajan Poovayya, appearing for the
Appellant, has submitted that the methodology adopted by AERA
creates a notional tax computation divorced from the tax actually
incurred by BIAL. The one-time depreciation was not charged
through BIAL’s Profit and Loss Account for purposes of
computation of MAT. It was dealt with through opening retained
earnings in accordance with the transitional provision contained
in Order No. 35/2017-18. Consequently, according to BIAL, AERA
could not notionally introduce that depreciation into the P&L for
purposes of reducing the aeronautical tax recoverable through
tariff.
734. There is considerable force in the distinction sought to be drawn.
Depreciation recognised as a regulatory building block for
Page 462 of 546
determining ARR and depreciation recognised in determining the
statutory tax base need not necessarily be identical. The former
concerns regulatory recovery of capital cost; the latter concerns
taxable or book profit determined in accordance with fiscal and
accounting law.
735. Order No. 35/2017-18 itself recognises this distinction in its
transitional treatment. Note 2 provides that where, upon
implementation of the revised useful-life schedule, the remaining
useful life of an asset is nil, the relevant carrying amount, after
retaining residual value, is to be recognised in the opening
balance of retained earnings . It is not directed to be routed
retrospectively through the current year Profit and Loss Account.
736. Depreciation and taxation are independently recognised
components of ARR. The fact that a depreciation amount is
admissible as regulatory depreciation does not mean that a
corresponding deduction must be notionally introduced into the
tax computation, when the Income Tax Act and the audited
accounts did not recognise that amount as a charge against book
profit for the relevant year.
737. Put differently, regulatory symmetry cannot justify the creation
of a hypothetical tax base. If BIAL was legally required to
Page 463 of 546
discharge MAT upon a book profit which did not contain the one-
time depreciation deduction, its actual tax incidence cannot be
artificially reduced for tariff purposes by assuming that the
deduction had been available.
738. In view of the aforesaid note 2, Order No.35/2017-18, annexure
R41, whenever the useful life is zero but some value of that asset
remains, this remaining value of the asset after useful life is over
will be recognized in the pending balance retained earnings,
meaning thereby to residual value of the asset of which useful
life is nil will be shown in the reserves and surplus account in the
balance sheet. Retained earnings sit on balance sheet under
“Reserves and Surplus”. Moreover, BIAL commenced
operations on and from 24th May 2008. AERA's Order
No.35/2017-18 was issued on 12th January 2018 that is almost
ten years later.
739. For the financial statements for the year ending 31st March 2018,
many assets had completed 10 to 7.5 years. Therefore, the
remaining value of all those assets whose useful life is nil and
residual value is retained, it will be reflected in reserves and
surplus account. This aspect of the matter has not been properly
appreciated by AERA.
Page 464 of 546
740. There is one more error apparent on the face of record committed
by AERA, because if company, suffers a loss, as per AERA's
impugned tariff order, the tax value has to be in negative. This is
incorrect approach of AERA. It ought to be kept in mind by AERA
that if company suffers a loss, tax will be zero. Tax component
will never be negative in percentage, because that would mean
that the government/tax authority, the paying money to the
company. There can be useful life zero, yet the residual value
remains with the asset.
741. We have also considered the judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme
Court in Delhi International Airport Ltd. v. AERA , 2022 SCC
OnLine SC 850. In paragraph 111, the Supreme Court recognised
the general taxation principle that it is actual tax paid which is
ordinarily taken into account.For ready reference the same reads
as under:
“ 111. AERA and FIA had common ground while endorsing the
impugned order. The actual tax paid was the
substratum of their argument . The airport operators, it
was pleaded, could not be perm i tted to unjustly enrich
themselves and create an additional burden for other
stakeholders if their actual taxes paid were lesser than
forecast taxes . The established regulatory practice
was stated to consider corporate tax paid on
actuals and not on a notional basis.
Page 465 of 546
115. No doubt, it is a principle of taxation that it is the
actual tax which is paid and which has to be
taken into account . This is what AERA and TDSAT
have done ostensibly on the premise that there should
not be any undue enrichment of the airport operators.
However, to our mind, the more important factor is to
look at what the contract says and whether some other
construction would be required to be given to the
contract. ”
742. In view of this fact and note 2 of AERA's Order No.35/2017-18,
We, therefore, quash and set aside paragraph 3.8.19 of
the impugned Tariff Order to the extent AERA has
notionally deducted the one-time depreciation
recognised through opening retained earnings from
aeronautical PBT and total PBT for allocating the tax
actually paid in FY 2018-19 .
743. AERA shall recompute the aeronautical tax attributable to FY
2018-19 by taking the actual tax payment made by BIAL under
the Income Tax Act and allocating the same to the aeronautical
segment upon a transparent and tax-consistent methodology,
without introducing into the tax base a depreciation deduction
which was not recognised in computing BIAL’s statutory MAT
liability. Hence, consequential reimbursement, including the
amount, if any, found payable, shall be determined upon
Page 466 of 546
reconciliation of the audited financial statements, tax records and
regulatory accounts.
B. MAT rates for financial year 2020 and financial year
2021 to calculate tax paid by BIAL in third control
period.
744. The second limb concerns paragraph 3.8.10 read with Table 44
of the impugned Tariff Order, which determines taxation while
undertaking true-up of the Second Control Period.
745. It is submitted by learned senior counsel Mr. Sajan Poovayya
appearing for the appellant that AERA has considered incorrect
MAT rates for third control period to calculate tax paid by BIAL,
which is being reflected in paragraph 3.8.10 to be read with Table
44 of the impugned order. For the ready reference, paragraph
3.8.10 and Table No. 44, read as under:
“ 3.8.10 As per the Second Control Period order, the Authority
proposes to allow actual aeronautical MAT as pass
through for true-up of the Second Control Period. The
Authority noted that BIAL has paid MAT at effective tax
rate of 19.10%, 19.19%, 19.40% and 16.94% from
FYI7, FYI8, FYl9 and FY20 respectively by dividing MAT
payment by the Profit before Tax (PST) for the
respective years. Tax forecasted for FY21 is nil due to
negative PBT. ”
Page 467 of 546
746. It is vehemently submitted by learned senior counsel appearing
for the appellant that the basis for the aeronautical taxes
percentage for the financial year 2020, as calculated by the
Authority in Table 44, was not shared with the appellant despite
the appellant's explicit request in response to the consultation
paper, and therefore the aeronautical tax line item in Table 44
should be reconsidered afresh after providing an opportunity of
being heard to the appellant on this issue.
747. Moreover, looking to the impugned order, it has erroneously
given the figure of tax paid by BIAL for the financial year 2021 as
(minus) – Rupees 2.59 Crores. Tax liability can never be in
Page 468 of 546
negative; it can either be zero or positive. Even as the audited
balance sheet supplied by AERA for the financial year 2021
confirms that the tax payment was zero and, therefore, AERA's
computation of aeronautical tax for the financial year 2021 is
prima facie erroneous and incorrect. This computation of AERA is
against the financial statement as given by BIAL and without any
basis.
748. Looking to paragraph 3.8.10 of the impugned tariff order, it is
apparent that respondent had considered MAT for financial year
at 16.94%. However, the MAT for the financial year 2020 was
17.47%, including applicable surcharge/cess.
749. BIAL’s grievance is procedural as it has submitted that the basis
upon which AERA arrived at the effective tax percentage for FY
2019-20 was not disclosed despite an express request during
consultation. AERA, in its reply before this Tribunal, has now
stated that the rate was derived by dividing actual MAT paid by
actual Profit Before Tax, subject to adjustments affecting MAT
computation.
750. The statutory MAT rate and an “effective tax rate” generated by
dividing actual tax payment by accounting PBT are not
necessarily the same quantity. MAT book profit may itself contain
Page 469 of 546
statutory adjustments which cause the effective percentage of
accounting PBT to differ from the rate prescribed under Section
115JB.
751. For the previous year relevant to AY 2020-21, Section 115JB
stood amended so that the base MAT rate became 15%;
surcharge and cess could result in a higher effective statutory
incidence depending upon the applicable facts.
752. In our view the proper enquiry is therefore not whether 17.01%
numerically equals the statutory MAT rate. The enquiry is
whether the figure used by AERA faithfully allocates the actual
MAT payment of ₹71.75 crore attributable to FY 2019-20,
after giving effect to the lawful tax adjustments and the correct
aeronautical/non-aeronautical allocation.
753. AERA ought to have disclose that working as Section 13(4)
requires tariff decisions to be transparent, documented and
explained. We make it clear that merely a figure generated from
an undisclosed sequence of adjustments cannot be insulated
from judicial appellate scrutiny by describing it as an “effective
rate”.
754. To us the facts and figures related to FY 2020-21 requires a
separate factual determination. BIAL has asserted that on the
Page 470 of 546
basis of its audited financial statement, that no tax was payable
and that the correct tax payment was nil. AERA, however,
describes ₹2.59 crore as a refund and consequently records the
tax component as negative.
755. We are of the opinion that tax liability may be nil but cannot
ordinarily become a negative liability requiring the Revenue to
pay tax to an assessee. A tax cash flow , however, may be
negative in a particular year if tax earlier paid is refunded.
Therefore, if ₹2.59 crore represents an actual refund properly
attributable to taxation earlier recognised in the regulatory
accounts, it may legitimately require corresponding adjustment.
If no such refund was received or if it relates to a different period
or tax component, its deduction cannot be sustained.
756. The relevant facts are readily verifiable from the tax return,
assessment/refund record, audited financial statements and
bank/tax-payment records. AERA ought therefore to reconcile
those documents rather than proceed upon an unexplained
negative figure.
757. In view of the aforesaid facts and reasons, we hereby
quash and set aside the decision of AERA in paragraph
3.8.10 to be read with Table 44 of the impugned order, as
Page 471 of 546
AERA has considered incorrect MAT for third control
period to calculate tax paid by BIAL. We hereby direct
AERA to compute the tariff based on MAT rates as actuals
prevailing in the financial year with carrying cost after
providing opportunity of being heard to the appellant.
Issue No. XXV is accordingly answered in favour of the
Appellant.
ISSUE XXVI: Consideration of Asset Allocation
(A) Asset allocation for opening RAB.
758. As per the impugned order dated 28.08.2021, Annexure A1, AERA
has refused to accept the allocation of the opening Regulatory
Asset Base in the ratio of 90.70%:9.30%. AERA, in the impugned
tariff order for the Third Control Period, has adopted the closing
Regulatory Asset Base of the First Control Period as the opening
Regulatory Asset Base of the Second Control Period as on 1st
April 2016.
759. It is submitted by learned Senior Counsel Mr. Sajan Poovayya,
appearing on behalf of the Appellant, that in the tariff order for
the First Control Period, Order No. 08 of 2014 to 2015 dated 10th
June 2014, Annexure R42, AERA had, at paragraph 8.26,
Page 472 of 546
considered the allocation ratio of 87.70%:12.30% for the
Terminal 1A expansion between aeronautical and non-
aeronautical areas, with a commitment to true up this allocation
upon audited space allocation details in the next control period.
760. AERA had also considered the allocation ratio of the opening
Regulatory Asset Base as 88.52%:11.48%. Moreover, Decision
No. 4 of the tariff order for the First Control Period explicitly
stated that an independent study would be commissioned to
assess the reasonableness of the asset allocation in the opening
Regulatory Asset Base and the Terminal 1 expansion. Paragraphs
8.24, 8.25 and 8.26 of the tariff order for the First Control Period,
1st April 2011 to 31st March 2016, at pages 4802 and 4803 of
Annexure R42, read as under.
“ 8.24 Accordingly, based on the above details, the ratio of
Opening RAB between Aeronautical Assets and Non-
aeronautical assets was computed as detailed below.
Recomputed allocation of Opening RAB between
Aeronautical and Non-Aeronautical Assets
(Rs. crore).
Total
opening
Asset
Description
Category
Non-
Aero
Aero
RAB
Operational
Runway, Taxiway,
495.59 495.59 -
Apron etc
Assets
Page 473 of 546
Fuel Farm
Assets created for
3.41 3.41 -
Fuel Farm
Assets
Cargo
Village
Assets
Assets of the Cargo
Warehouse facility
10.87 - 10.87
created
Information,
Communication,
Technology assets in
ICT Assets
in Terminal
99.07 99.07 -
Building
Terminal Building
Assets in Passenger
Terminal Building,
Other
Assets
Other Assets in
Landside, Roads,
986.76 814.50 172.26
Substation
1,595.6
TOTAL
1,412.
183.1
9
57
2
Overall
ratio
computed
88.52
11.48
%
%
by the
Authority
Asset
allocation
considere
d by BIAL
1,595.6
1,447.
148.4
9
22
7
Allocation of Assets and Operation and Maintenance Expenditure
between Aeronautical and Non-aeronautical Services.
8.25 The Authority noted that BIAL had considered a ratio of
90.70%:9.30% for allocation of assets. However, the
Authority had computed the Aeronautical RAB as
detailed above. This had resulted in a reduction of
Rs.34.65 Crore from the Opening Aeronautical RAB
proposed by BIAL. The Authority proposed to adjust
Rs.34.65 Crore excess allocated to Aeronautical Assets
Page 474 of 546
by reallocating the value of assets proportionately
across the different asset categories of the Opening
RAB.
8.26 With respect to Terminal 1 Expansion area (TA), the
Authority noted that according to BIAL, the additional
Aeronautical Area constructed for Terminal 1 Expansion
was 54810 sq. m whereas the additional Non-Aero area
constructed was 7684 sq. m and additional common
area was 22436 sq. m totalling to additional constructed
area of 84,930 sq. m. This resulted in a ratio of
87.70%:12.30% for Terminal 1A Area between
Aeronautical and Non- Aeronautical areas. The Authority
proposed to consider this ratio in allocation of TA cost
between Aeronautical Assets and Non-Aeronautical
Assets, for the present, for consideration under
additions to RAB. The Authority noted that BIAL shall
provide year-wise audited space allocation with the
details of allotment for concessionaires and accordingly
the asset allocation for Aeronautical RAB is likely to vary.
The Authority proposed that this will be trued up at the
time of determination of Aeronautical Tariffs for the next
control period .”
761. In view of the aforesaid decision of AERA, which is tariff order
for the first control period, it was mentioned that true-up of
allocation ratio of 87.70 : 12.30 percent shall be given on the
basis of allocation based upon audited space allocation details in
the next control period, and it mentions opening RAB shall be
88.52% : 11.48%.
Page 475 of 546
762. Looking to Decision No. 4 of the First Control Period Tariff Order,
it is explicitly stated that an independent study would be
commissioned to assess reasonableness of the asset allocation
for the Opening RAB and terminal expansion. For ready
reference, Decision No. 4 reads as under:
st
(i) To consider the allocation of Opening RAB as of 1 April
2011 between Aeronautical and Non-Aeronautical
Assets as determined by the Authority and detailed in
Table 15.
(ii) To consider the allocation of assets relating to Terminal
1 expansion between Aeronautical Assets and Non
Aeronautical Assets as detailed in Para 8.26 above.
(iii) To consider the allocation of assets relating to Terminal
1 expansion between Aeronautical Assets and Non-
Aeronautical Assets as detailed in Para 8.26 above.
(iv) To commission an independent study to assess the
reasonableness of the asset allocation considered in
Para i and Para ii above (Refer Para 8.70.1 above).
763. Learned Senior Counsel for the Appellant has also placed reliance
upon the tariff order passed by AERA for the Second Control
Period, Annexure A6 to the memo of this appeal, in which, at
paragraph 8.6.4 and Decision No. 5(a)(ii), AERA reiterated its
commitment to a technical study of asset allocation for true up in
Page 476 of 546
the next control period. Paragraph 8.6.4 and Decision No. 5(a)(ii)
of that order, at page 971 of Volume V, read as under:
“8.6.4 The Authority had also included a proposal to carry out
study of allocation of area between Aeronautical and
Non-Aeronautical area and consider the same
appropriately at the time of true up of ARR for the
second control period.”
Decision No. 5. Regarding Asset allocation between
Aeronautical and Non-Aeronautical services.
5(a). Based on the material before it and its analysis,
the Authority decides:
(i) To consider allocation of assets between
Aeronautical and Non-Aeronautical services as
detailed in 8.2.11 above and 8.6.2 above for
determination of tariff for the second control
period.
(ii) To carry out a technical study on the area
used between Aeronautical and Non-
Aeronautical in the existing and new
terminal once the operations are
commissioned and stabilised and result
of the study will be used to true up
during next control period.”
764. Despite the aforesaid two tariff orders for first control period as
well as for second control period, as stated hereinabove in the
impugned tariff order for third control period, AERA proposed
adopting of the closing RAB of the first control period as the
Page 477 of 546
opening RAB of the second control period as of 1st April 2016
without conducting any independent evaluation of the asset
allocation from the airport’s pending date.
765. Thus, by the virtue of impugned tariff order for third control
period, AERA has reversed its earlier decision of the first control
period and second control period tariff orders. This is an error
apparent on the face of record. AERA has no power, jurisdiction
and authority to change its own decision given for earlier tariff
periods. AERA had not preferred any appeal before this Tribunal.
If this methodology is allowed, then there will be uncertainty in
the tariff orders.
766. It ought to be kept in mind that once the tariff order is
signed, it cannot be altered, amended or revised
unilaterally, with retrospective effect because it has a
cascading effect during that very control period of five
years and in the subsequent control periods. This aspect
of the matter has not been properly appreciated by AERA.
We, therefore, quash and set aside the decision of AERA
in paragraph 3.3.73 of the impugned order at Annexure
A1.
Page 478 of 546
767. It is pointed out by learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of
the appellant that it has been held by this Tribunal in paragraphs
69 and 70 in AERA Appeal No. 8 of 2018, judgment dated 16
December 2020, in the matter between Bangalore International
Airport Limited versus Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of
India, which read as under:
“ 69. On behalf of AERA, learned counsel has stated at the
outset that in respect of allocation of assets as well as
expenses under the heads 'aeronautical" and 'non-
aeronautical a study has been commissioned which has
already begun. The Authority is hopeful that the
findings of such a study would be available in time for
implementation during the Third Control Period which
is to begin from 01.04.2021. She pointed out that even
as per submissions of BIAL, the Authority could refuse
to accept the ratio given by BIAL but only if a study was
made and for justifiable reasons for deviation. Since a
grievance was raised that no study has been conducted
by AERA, hence now the study has been undertaken.
70. At this stage, it would not be proper to interfere with
the allocation made by the Authority when admittedly a
study has already commenced. AERA has taken the
stand that allocation as per the outcome of study will
hopefully be implemented in the Third Control Period.
Hence, AERA is directed to take suitable and required
steps to ensure that the study is completed at the
earliest and put to use as indicated .”
768. The difficulty in the impugned determination is that AERA now
takes the position that the study undertaken pursuant to the
Page 479 of 546
aforesaid direction related only to asset additions of the Second
Control Period and that allocation concerning the First Control
Period had already attained finality. That position does not
satisfactorily answer either its earlier tariff decisions or the
representation recorded by this Tribunal in paragraphs 69 and 70
of the judgment dated 16.12.2020.
769. The doctrine of finality cannot be invoked to defeat an exercise
which the original determination itself expressly reserved for
future true-up. There is an obvious distinction between reopening
a finally determined building block merely because a regulated
entity wishes to reagitate it and completing a true-up or technical
verification which the regulator itself had expressly left
outstanding.
770. In other words, BIAL is not entitled to keep a concluded tariff
issue alive indefinitely; equally, AERA cannot first declare an
allocation provisional and subject to independent verification and
thereafter invoke finality to avoid performing that very
verification. This distinction also the answer to AERA’s submission
that the First Control Period issues cannot remain open “in
perpetuity”. The obligation survives not because an Airport
Operator may endlessly reopen a tariff order but because AERA
Page 480 of 546
itself reserved the matter for a subsequent study and true-up,
and the Tribunal thereafter directed completion and use of that
study.
771. We therefore find the reasoning contained in paragraph 3.3.73 of
the impugned Tariff Order unsustainable insofar as it treats the
allocation issue concerning Opening RAB as closed merely by
reason of finality without determining whether the study
expressly contemplated under the earlier orders and the
judgment dated 16th December, 2020 had in fact covered the
Opening RAB.
772. In view of the aforesaid, the Authority's submission was that a
study of asset allocation was underway to be implemented in the
Third Control Period. The study conducted by the Authority was
limited to the Second Control Period. Thus, there was no
independent study for evaluation of asset allocation for the First
Control Period. Thus, there is a violation of the order passed by
the this Appellate Tribunal and Tariff orders for the First Control
Period and the Second Control Period.
773. In view of these facts and the earlier tariff orders for the First
Control Period and the Second Control Period, it appears that in
Page 481 of 546
the impugned tariff order for the Third Control Period, the
Authority has committed an error in deciding the Opening RAB.
774. We hereby direct the Authority to conduct an expert
study within a period of six months from date of this
judgement for asset allocation for the Opening RAB.
Meanwhile, till the study is conducted and the report is
received, we hereby direct the Authority to apply the
asset allocation ratio for the Opening RAB at 90.70 per
cent to 9.30 per cent, which will be subject to true up
based upon the aforesaid expert report in the next
control period.
(B) Terminal area ratio for allocating capital expenditure for
rd
the FY 2021 and for 3 Control Period
775. The second limb concerns the methodology employed by AERA
for allocating additions to capital expenditure between
aeronautical and non-aeronautical assets and, particularly, the
use of the Terminal Area Ratio for common assets.
776. Looking through the impugned order at Annexure A1, AERA had
applied “ gross block ratio” on the entire capex addition,
irrespective of it being aeronautical, common or non-
aeronautical, and applied the “terminal area ratio” ( 85.73%)
Page 482 of 546
for common assets, revising the bifurcation ratio for financial year
2021 capex from 91% to 85.73%. This decision of AERA is under
challenge under the present petition. For the ready reference,
paragraph 3.3.42(e) and paragraph 5.2.92 of the impugned order
at Annexure A1 reads as under:
“3.3.42(e) Gross block ratio is a composite ratio and a
weighted average of aero, common and non-aero
assets. Hence, the Authority notes that the gross
block ratio should be applied on entire capex
addition irrespective of it being aero, common or
non-acro instead of BIAL's approach of applying it
selectively on common assets. Common assets have
been segregated by BIAL in its asset register based
on terminal area ratio and therefore, the Authority
proposes to apply the same ratio (85.73%) for
common assets. Based on the above, the Authority
proposes to revise bifurcation ratio for FY21 capex
of airport offices. IT project and sustaining capex
from 91% to terminal area ratio of 85.73%.
5.2.92 BIAL has classified the broader categories of capex
addition into acronautical, non-aeronautical.
Terminal 2 and common assets. BIAL has bifurcated
the common assets based on average of FY19 and
FY20 gross block ratio which is also 91% to 9%. The
Authority notes that the gross block ratio is a
composite ratio and a weighted average of aero,
common and non-aero assets. Hence, the Authority
notes that the gross block ratio should be applied on
entire capex addition irrespective of it being aero,
common or non-aero instead of BIAL's approach of
applying it selectively on common assets. Common
Page 483 of 546
assets have been segregated by BIAL in its asset
register based on terminal area ratio and therefore,
the Authority proposes to apply the same ratio
(85.73% based on Terminal I area for common
assets capitalized in FY22. Terminal 2 is proposed to
be capitalized in FY22. The Authority proposes to
apply weighted average terminal area ratio of
86.85% from FY23 to FY26. Based on the above,
the Authority proposes to revise bifurcation ratio for
common assets of the Third Control Period .”
777. It is important to note that at any airport there are :-
(i) assets directly identifiable as aeronautical asset.
(ii) certain assets directly identifiable as non-aeronautical
assets.
(iii) assets not directly identifiable as aeronautical or as non-
aeronautical which are known as common assets.
778. An allocation ratio becomes necessary principally in relation to
the third category. An asset which is demonstrably and
exclusively aeronautical does not become partly non-aeronautical
merely because a terminal or airport-wide ratio is applied to it.
Equally, an exclusively non-aeronautical asset cannot acquire an
aeronautical component through application of a general ratio.
779. When capital expenditure is submitted to AERA for inclusion in
the Regulatory Asset Base, the Appellant submits that the gross
Page 484 of 546
block ratio ought to be adopted for the provisional classification
of the assets as aeronautical, non aeronautical and common,
since it is based upon historical asset addition and classification
data and is a closer assessment.
780. The terminal building ratio is used only for segregating common
assets, and there are assets which exist outside the terminal
building as well. Thus the gross block ratio is to be used for
classifying the overall asset mix, whereas the terminal building
ratio is to be used only for segregating common assets.
781. This aspect of the matter has not been properly appreciated by
AERA. AERA has equated the terminal area ratio with the asset
ratio throughout the airport. In our considered opinion this
course adopted by AERA is not correct and impermissible,
especially considering the fact that there are several
aeronautical assets outside the terminal building, such as
the air traffic control tower, which is wholly aeronautical.
As a rule of thumb, therefore, it is not correct to apply the
terminal area ratio as an overall asset allocation ratio .
782. Once the asset have been completed and the true-up of the same
has already been done, assets are classified as aeronautical, non-
Page 485 of 546
aeronautical and common assets based on the fixed assets
register and terminal building ratio is applied to common assets.
783. If a ratio is to be applied to any category of assets, it can only be
the common assets, since the other two categories are by their
nature wholly aeronautical or wholly non aeronautical. The
“ Terminal gross block ratio ” can be used only for assets
located within the terminal, and cannot be applied generally.
AERA not appreciated this aspect of the matter and has
incorrectly applied terminal gross block ratio for the common
assets.
784. Since a consolidated project value is likely to have aeronautical,
non-aeronautical and common components, the Appellant has
taken the overall asset ratio derived from its fixed asset register,
and applied it to arrive at 91% as the proposed allocation ratio
for such projects.
785. At the end of the control period, upon the actual additions in the
fixed asset register, the direct aeronautical, non-aeronautical and
common items can be clearly identified and trued up. In effect,
AERA has assumed that all these projects are common assets,
and has applied the terminal building ratio to them. A terminal
itself comprises aeronautical, non-aeronautical and common
Page 486 of 546
assets, and the terminal building ratio applies only to the common
assets.
786. This Tribunal in the case of Mumbai International Airport
Ltd. Vs. AERA , being AERA Appeal No. 2 of 2021 , judgment
dated 06.10.2023, under paragraphs 239 and 246 to 249, has
held that directly identifiable aeronautical and non-aeronautical
assets must first be segregated and that the relevant asset-
allocation ratio is thereafter to be applied to common assets
alone and in paragraph 239 records in substance that an
allocation ratio is required only for assets serving both
aeronautical and non-aeronautical purposes. For ready reference
the relevant paragraphs reads as under:
“239. At Terminal T-2 at CSMIA, Mumbai, firstly aeronautical
assets should have been bifurcated thereafter non-
aeronautical assets should have been bifurcated as per
provisions of Schedule 5 and Schedule 6 of OMDA and
there are few assets which are common assets that are
used for aeronautical services as well as for non-
aeronautical services and, therefore, there is a need to
apply, asset allocation ratio, to the common assets only.
AERA has applied the common asset ratio of
85.57%:14.43% to the whole of Terminal T-2 of CSMIA,
Mumbai which is an error on the part of AERA.
248. Nowhere AERA has ever pointed out that the report
given by Indian Register of Shipping (IRS) which is
annexed as Annexure A-11 to the memo of AERA Appeal
Page 487 of 546
No.9 of 2016 was fraudulently obtained or was
erroneous. On the contrary, the ratio fixed by IRS
consultant which is 85.57%:14.43% has been accepted
by AERA, but, it has been wrongly applied to the whole
of new T-2 terminal building at CSMIA, Mumbai. In fact,
this ratio has to be applied to the common assets only.
Thus, out of the total assets, firstly aeronautical
assets should have been bifurcated.
Simultaneously, Non-aeronautical assets should
have been bifurcated. Consequently, Common
Assets (which are both aero and non-aero assets)
shall be identified. “Asset Allocation Ratio”
_should be applied to Common Assets so as to
bifurcate aeronautical assets and non-
aeronautical assets out of Common Assets. We,
therefore, direct AERA to follow 85.57%:14.43%
ratio for the Common Assets of T-2 only, which
will result into overall aeronautical assets ratio
of 86.17%.”
787. Subsequently, this Tribunal in the case of Mangaluru
International Airport Ltd. Vs. AERA , being AERA Appeal
No. 1 of 2023 , judgment dated 11.09.2025 under paragraph
282 has held that the terminal-building allocation ratio cannot
rest upon a merely notional number and that actual area
measurement should form the basis of finalisation. For ready
reference the same reads as under:
“282. In view of these facts, reasons and judicial
pronouncements, the terminal building allocation ratio
cannot be a notional number. The terminal building
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should not be different than actual. We, therefore,
quash and set aside the decision of AERA in impugned
order dated 12.01.2023 (Annexure A-1) as far as
Terminal Building Allocation Ratio and Gross Fixed
Allocation Ratio is concerned and we, hereby direct
AERA to consider the actual area measurement
submitted by appellant and on that basis, the Terminal
Building Allocation Ratio shall be finalised.”
788. The same principle was reiterated by this Tribunal in the case of
Goa International Airport Ltd. v. AERA , being AERA Appeal
No. 1 of 2024 , judgment dated 11.09.2025, under paragraphs
108 to 120 has likewise held that, where actual measurements
are available, a hypothetical or standardised terminal-building
ratio should not displace the actual airport-specific ratio.
789. From the aforesaid decision of this tribunal two proposition are
clearly established which are relevant for present adjudication.
First, allocation has to be asset-specific before it becomes
ratio-specific . Secondly, whenever reliable actual data is
available, true-up should proceed upon such data rather
than upon a proxy devised for the forecasting stage .
790. We must hammer home the point and AERA must understand the
elementary principle that a Terminal Area Ratio performs a
legitimate function where a common asset serves both
aeronautical and non-aeronautical areas of a terminal and here
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the area is a rational proxy for use. It does not follow that the
same ratio can automatically be applied to every common asset
throughout the airport irrespective of its location, function or
utilisation.
791. The example of an ATC-related asset illustrates the point. An
asset lying outside the passenger-terminal envelope and
exclusively serving an aeronautical function cannot rationally be
apportioned by reference to the square metres of retail and
aeronautical space inside a terminal. Conversely, an asset
exclusively serving car parking or another non-aeronautical
facility must be classified by its actual function rather than by a
general airport ratio.
792. In view of these facts, we, hereby quash and set aside the
decision of AERA in paragraph 7.3.42(e) and decision in
paragraph 5.2.92, and we hereby direct AERA that for the
assets, which can be classified between aeronautical and
non-aeronautical, it must be classified immediately. For
e.g. utilities must be classified as aeronautical assets and
car parking must be classified as non-aeronautical
assets, etc. For mixed-use assets or common assets,
AERA shall apply 91% instead of 85.73%. AERA shall use
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overall ratio derived from its asset register and not based
on the terminal area ratio .
(C) Classification of electrical and power house equipment,
chiller plant, and water harvesting assets, as common assets
rather than aeronautical assets.
793. The third limb concerns AERA’s classification of electrical and
powerhouse equipment, water-harvesting infrastructure and the
chiller plant at Terminal 1A as common assets instead of wholly
aeronautical assets. Whereas according to the Appellant these
are aeronautical assets, or alternatively the utility recoveries from
concessionaires ought to be allocated between aeronautical and
non-aeronautical in the same ratio as the asset allocation.
794. Looking to the facts of the present case, all electrical and
powerhouse equipment is for core airport usage. AERA treats the
utility cost recovery received from concessionaires from operating
expenses and considers the entire net cost as aeronautical,
meaning thereby to AERA treats all utility recovery as
aeronautical and accordingly all electrical and powerhouse
equipment has to be considered as aeronautical.
795. It must be noted that the electrical and powerhouse equipment
are not used for construction, as construction power
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management is a responsibility of a contractor. This aspect of the
matter has not been properly appreciated by AERA.
796. AERA has classified the chiller plant as a common asset upon its
prior classification, whereas at other airports similar heating,
ventilation and air conditioning assets in terminals are treated as
aeronautical.
797. The water harvesting assets, such as rainwater harvesting ponds
and pipelines, are part of the core utility infrastructure of the
airport and ought to be treated as aeronautical, with cost
recoveries adjusted from operating expenditure. AERA itself
considers their entire cost as aeronautical, since it adjusts any
cost recovery from these assets against the operating
expenditure of the airport, and AERA has not responded to this
submission in its reply.
798. AERA must maintain uniformity, either by treating all utility
related assets as aeronautical, or by separating the utility
recoveries between aeronautical and non aeronautical, as was
done in the Second Control Period. The present approach, where
the revenue is treated as wholly aeronautical but the assets as
mixed, is inconsistent.
Page 492 of 546
799. AERA has disputed the stand of BIAL by stating that the Appellant
confuses the operations phase with the development phase. In
operation, AERA states, that the concessionaires reimburse their
utility costs, those recoveries are treated as revenue, and the
Appellant bears utility cost only for core airport operations, which
is therefore aeronautical, whereas the utility infrastructure, when
developed, serves both aeronautical and non-aeronautical users
and is therefore common.
800. The difficulty with this reasoning is that the asset and the revenue
which it generates are treated upon two different footings. If the
infrastructure is common, the share of its cost attributable to non
aeronautical users is excluded from the aeronautical Regulatory
Asset Base, with the consequence that the aeronautical users
bear no return and no depreciation upon that share.
801. Yet the recoveries paid by the non aeronautical concessionaires
for the utilities which that very share of the infrastructure supplies
are applied wholly to reduce aeronautical operating expenditure,
for the benefit of the very same aeronautical users. The
aeronautical users thus receive the benefit of a revenue stream
generated by an asset whose cost they do not bear.
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802. We must state that a tariff computation which permits this result
cannot be said to be consistent, and consistency in the treatment
of an asset and the income which it produces is not a matter of
regulatory preference but a requirement of rational tariff
determination.
803. From the above discussion it is evidently clear that the principle
is elementary in nature as either the asset is aeronautical, in
which case its entire cost enters the Regulatory Asset Base and
its recoveries reduce aeronautical operating expenditure, or the
asset is common, in which case only that portion of its cost which
is attributable to aeronautical users enters the Regulatory Asset
Base and its recoveries must be apportioned between
aeronautical and non aeronautical in the same ratio.
804. The Authority has adopted neither course. It has treated the
asset as mixed and the revenue as wholly aeronautical,
thereby conferring upon the aeronautical users a benefit
to which the ratio it has itself adopted does not entitle
them .
805. The powerhouse and the electrical works feed the airport. The
harvesting works are part of the utility system of the airport. The
chiller cools the terminal which the Concession requires the
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operator to provide and passengers cannot be processed without
those systems. Concessionaires who draw power or water
reimburse a charge. That reimbursement is taken AERA wholly
against aeronautical operating cost. In our opinion the asset must
follow the cost.
806. An airport terminal cannot function as an airport terminal without
electricity, power distribution, cooling and the utility and
environmental infrastructure which enables the terminal and
associated airport systems to operate continuously. These are not
independent commercial facilities created for the purpose of
conducting the businesses of food and beverage operators,
retailers, lounges or other concessionaires. They constitute the
underlying infrastructure without which the aeronautical facility
itself cannot function in the manner contemplated by the
Concession Agreement.
807. We do not accept the contention that a shop, restaurant, lounge
or other concessionaire situated within the terminal receives
electricity, cooling or some incidental benefit from the airport’s
utility infrastructure does not alter the essential character of that
infrastructure. In our considered opinion the test cannot be one
of incidental physical benefit . If such a test were accepted,
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virtually every core terminal asset from common circulation
infrastructure to security-supporting systems could be treated as
partly non-aeronautical merely because a commercial
establishment located within the terminal indirectly benefits from
its existence.
808. So far as electrical and powerhouse equipment is concerned, the
Appellant submits that the equipment is used for core airport
operations, being the means through which power is supplied to
the terminal building and to the operational systems of the
airport. The Appellant has further stated that this equipment is
not used for construction, as the arrangement for construction
power is the responsibility of the contractor executing the works.
The Appellant also points out that AERA itself deducts the utility
cost recoveries received from concessionaires from operating
expenses and treats the entire net utility cost as aeronautical ref.
Table No. 141 of the impugned Tariff Order. Having treated the
operating cost of power supply as aeronautical, AERA cannot
treat the very equipment through which that power is supplied as
common.
809. AERA’s own regulatory treatment of recurring utility expenditure
is of considerable significance. It ought to be noted that utility
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recoveries received from concessionaires are adjusted against the
operating expenditure, and the resulting net utility expenditure is
treated as aeronautical. This treatment recognises that the
Airport Operator’s regulatory burden is the cost of maintaining
essential airport utilities after excluding amounts recovered from
commercial users.
810. Having adopted that treatment on the operating side, AERA
cannot, without a cogent and demonstrated distinction, proceed
on the capital side upon the contrary premise that the very
infrastructure which generates and distributes those utilities is
partly non-aeronautical merely because a concessionaire draws
electricity from it. The regulatory treatment of the asset and the
expenditure generated by that asset must possess a rational
degree of symmetry.
811. The same principle applies to water-harvesting ponds, pipelines
and associated infrastructure and such infrastructure is not
established as a commercial venture. It forms part of the utility
and environmental infrastructure necessary for the functioning
and sustainability of a major airport.
812. The AERA asset allocation study has treated water harvesting
ponds and rain water sumps as serving both aeronautical and
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non-aeronautical assets. We have considered this. We are of the
view that even if the water harvesting infrastructure serves both
categories of users, the recoveries from it are treated by the
AERA as aeronautical.
813. Consistency therefore requires that the asset also be treated as
aeronautical. Alternatively, if the asset is truly common, the
recoveries must be apportioned in the same ratio as the asset. In
the absence of material showing that any identified part of the
water-harvesting infrastructure was specifically created for an
independent non-aeronautical undertaking, we find no
justification for reducing the aeronautical RAB by treating the
core airport water-management infrastructure as common.
814. The chiller plant stands on the same footing. Central air-
conditioning in a modern passenger terminal is not comparable
to a commercial amenity installed at the option of an individual
concessionaire. It is a central building service necessary for
operation and use of the terminal infrastructure as such.
815. AERA’s reasoning proceeds substantially from the fact that non-
aeronautical establishments situated within the terminal also
receive conditioned air. That circumstance is insufficient to
determine the character of the capital asset as we have already
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held. The chiller plant does not exist because a restaurant or retail
outlet operates within the terminal; those establishments receive
the benefit of a central system which exists in order that the
passenger terminal may function as an integrated airport facility.
816. The distinction is particularly important because the terminal
cannot rationally be fragmented into innumerable utility systems
corresponding to the regulatory character of every square metre
which they happen to serve. A central chiller plant is necessarily
designed and operated as an integrated system. Its regulatory
classification must therefore follow its predominant
infrastructural purpose rather than the incidental identity of every
end-user receiving conditioned air.
817. Applying the aforesaid principles to the material before us, we
find that AERA has erred in treating the electrical and powerhouse
equipment, the water-harvesting infrastructure and the chiller
plant at Terminal 1A as common assets. These assets constitute
integral infrastructure necessary for operation of the Airport and
the passenger terminal and their predominant and direct
regulatory character is aeronautical.
818. In view of the aforesaid facts and reasons, we hereby
quash and set aside the decision of AERA in paragraph
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3.3.74 and paragraph 3.3.85(e), Annexure A1, and we
hereby hold that electrical and powerhouse equipment;
water harvesting ponds and chiller plant at Terminal-1A
are aeronautical assets. Issue No. XXVI is accordingly
answered in favour of the Appellant.
ISSUE XXVII: CLASSIFICATION OF COSTS INCURRED
TOWARDS CERTAIN COST CENTRES AS COMMON
INSTEAD OF AERONAUTICAL
819. As per paragraph 3.7.26 of the impugned tariff order for the Third
Control Period, Annexure A1, AERA has treated the costs incurred
towards (i) the Chief Operating Officer, (ii) the Corporate Affairs
team, (iii) the Terminal Operations team, (iv) Operations
Planning, Project Coordination, Customer Engagement and
Service Quality Management, (v) the Landside Equipment team,
and (vi) the Utilities team as common charges; whereas BIAL
contends that the expenditure is wholly attributable to
aeronautical operations. For ready reference paragraph 3.7.26
reads as under:
“Allocation of operating expenses for the Second
Control Period
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3.7.26 The Authority has noted BIAL’s comments on the
allocation of the cost centre-wise personnel, O&M, general
admin and marketing costs. The Authority has examined
it cost centre-wise and given its decision below:
• Corporate affairs: BIAL has submitted that its
corporate affairs team manages the affairs of BIAL only
and deals with all permissions required at GoI and GoK for
the airport. BIAL also submitted that the corporate affairs
of non-aero concessionaires are not managed by BIAL and
hence this is considered fully aeronautical. The Authority
noted that corporate affairs for an airport is responsible
for representing BIAL. BIAL, being a business owner of
aeronautical and non-aeronautical businesses operational
at the airport, the Authority has noted the conclusion of
the study to consider BIAL’s corporate affairs cost-centre
as common and decides to consider the same.
• Terminal operations: BIAL submitted that the
maintenance and upkeep of the terminal is the
responsibility of BIAL’s E&M team and operations of
terminal are supervised and managed by Terminal
Operations team. BIAL further submitted that for any
specific areas leased to concessionaires, the upkeep,
maintenance activities are managed by the respective
concessionaires and also, BIAL is not responsible for
managing any other operations of the non-aero
concessionaires. BIAL also submitted that this team
ensures that passenger and baggage processing &
information flows are facilitated in a timely manner and
coordinate with regulatory and other service providing
agencies to ensure best levels of services at all times and
hence, this cost is to be treated as aeronautical. The
Authority noted that terminal building being a common
asset, the team responsible for terminal operations has to
be considered as common and decides to not make any
change to the conclusion of the study.
Page 501 of 546
• Ops planning and project co-ordination and
Customer engagement and service quality
management: BIAL has submitted that the ops planning
and project co-ordination and customer engagement and
service quality management works on the quality
management initiatives and ops planning and project co-
ordination for only the operations carried out by BIAL and
not that of the concessionaires. Hence, BIAL submitted
that these are fully aeronautical and these activities are
part of the responsibilities of BIAL as per the requirements
of the Concession agreement. The Authority has noted
that the bifurcation of roles and responsibilities of the
concerned cost centres cannot be limited to BIAL and
other concessionaires. The Authority noted that the study
has concluded that these cost-centres are responsible for
the entire airport operations of BIAL which includes the
aeronautical activities and the non-aeronautical activities
of BIAL. Therefore, the Authority decides to consider ops
planning and project co-ordination and customer
engagement and service quality management costs as
common.
• Landside maintenance special equipment: BIAL
submitted that central air-conditioning is the necessary
facility to be provided by BIAL as per the terms of the
concession agreement and this is also an aeronautical
asset and hence to be treated as 100% aeronautical. BIAL
also submitted that this team is responsible for asset
management in Terminal – special systems like BHS, PBB,
VHT, HVAC Electricals, Civil, mechanicals, infra ICT &
services from trumpet to terminal and hence considered
fully as aeronautical. The Authority noted that as per the
asset allocation study the air-conditioning in the common
area is considered as common assets and the building –
AC plant is considered as common assets. Therefore, the
Authority decides to consider the landside maintenance
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special equipment as common and make no changes to
the conclusion of the study.
• Utility – Water Supply and Utility – Power
Systems: BIAL has submitted that utilities are basic
facilities to be provided to the users of the airport and
hence, these are 100% aeronautical. BIAL also submitted
that utility cost recoveries are netted off and 100%
considered as aeronautical by the Authority. BIAL
submitted that this team ensures that utility services are
seamlessly provided for airport functioning and also
develops strategic goals for energy, environment and
waste management and also, they are the company
custodian for all ISO standards, noise and air quality
management. The Authority notes that the utility team is
responsible for providing services to the airport which
includes aeronautical and non-aeronautical services and
therefore, decides to consider it a common expense and
make no change to the conclusion of the study.
• Chief operations officer: BIAL submitted that as the
name implies, these are designations only working on core
airport operations management etc. and hence, to be
considered as 100% Aeronautical. The Authority notes
that Chief Operations Officer is an integral part of the
airport management whose role cannot be limited to only
the aeronautical activities at the airport. Therefore, the
Authority decides to consider it as a common expense and
make no change to the conclusion of the study. ”
xxx
820. It is submitted by learned senior counsel Mr. Sajan Poovayya that
the costs incurred under all the aforesaid headings, the persons
are designated officers do not monitor or engage with
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concessionaires at all, and therefore they cannot be classified as
“common” for allocation for expenses.
821. Moreover, terminal operation team oversees work such as check-
in process, smooth passenger movement and such other services
directly benefiting the passengers. Therefore, any maintenance,
upkeep or operational issue of non-aeronautical, the
concessionaires are not serviced/managed by this team of BIAL.
BIAL does not manage non-aeronautical services within the
terminal.
822. Without providing cogent reason, AERA has treated costs
incurred towards terminal operations team “common” . The
aforesaid aspect of the matter has been also highlighted by
learned senior counsel in their response to the consultation paper
issued by AERA, and without taking into consideration the
aforesaid aspect of the matter and without giving any reason,
costs incurred towards terminal operations team treated as
“common” , which is not permissible in the eye of law.
823. It has been mentioned categorically in the objections raised by
the appellant after consultation paper has been published by
AERA that BIAL has not incurred any expenses towards
operations, maintenance of areas concessioned out in terminal
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building, including area concessioned out for food and beverages,
lounge, etc. Therefore, deriving appellant's expenses as common
will deprive appellant from recovery of expenses incurred.
824. Moreover, Chief Operating Officer is designated designation
working only on the core airport's management, etc. Appellant
has denied that COO is responsible for managing the operations
at the airport as a whole. Similarly, operations planning, project
coordination and the customer engagement does not involve
planning and coordination. BIAL team does not carry out any
operations planning and coordination for the concessionaires.
Similarly, service quality team is responsible for
evaluating and managing airport service quality (ASQ) of
the airport which is mandated by the concession
agreement. Therefore, this expenditure is fully
aeronautical.
825. These facts have also been highlighted in response to the
consultation paper. The objections raised by this appellant to this
consultation paper and objections raised by this appellant before
KPMG should have prepared the report. These objections have
never been considered in the impugned order nor in the
KPMG report, therefore, this expenditure is fully aeronautical.
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These facts have also been highlighted in response to the
consultation paper. The objections raised by this appellant to
consultation paper and objections raised by this appellant before
KPMG who has prepared the report, these objections have never
been considered in the impugned order nor in the KPMG report.
826. The main function of Utility team is to ensure the utility services
seamlessly provided for airport functioning and also to develop
strategic goals for energy, environment and waste management.
They are the company custodian for all ISO standards, noise and
air quality management.
827. It is submitted by learned senior counsel appearing for the
appellant that for the DIAL as well as for MIAL, AERA has
considered utility assets as aeronautical and, therefore, the same
treatment ought to be given to the present appellant. This aspect
of the matter has not been properly appreciated by AERA.
828. Landside equipment related cost has been treated as
“common” , whereas it has been emphatically pointed out by
learned senior counsel appearing for the appellant that the air
conditioning is the basic facility to be provided and, therefore, the
cost for the same has to be considered as aeronautical.
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829. The central air conditioning facility is a necessary facility to be
provided by this appellant as per terms of the concession
agreement. This is an aeronautical asset and hence, its cost must
be treated as 100% aeronautical cost. The landside maintenance
special equipment team is responsible for the asset management
inside the terminal for special systems like BHS, PBB, VHT, HVAC,
electrical, civil, mechanical, infra-ICT including air conditioning
from trumpet to terminal.
830. All these issues which are raised in the objections after
consultation paper is published, AERA has not considered this
aspect in the impugned order. Moreover, before KPMG also these
issues were raised, but it has also not considered the same.
831. Learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of the
appellant has placed reliance upon Annexure A40 and has
submitted that in tabular format the issues raised have been
pointed out and the same have not been considered
neither by KPMG nor by AERA while passing the
impugned order.
832. We have examined paragraph 3.7.26, cost centre by cost centre,
since the Appellant's grievance is that AERA did not engage with
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what each team actually does. Two features of the paragraph as
a whole must be noticed before we turn to the individual heads.
833. The first is that AERA has not applied any single test to the one
question before it, namely whether the cost of a team is
attributable to aeronautical services, to non aeronautical services,
or to both. For Corporate Affairs, AERA looked to the fact that the
Appellant owns both kinds of business.
834. For Terminal Operations, AERA looked to the fact that the team
works in a building which is itself a common asset.
835. For the Landside Maintenance Special Equipment team, AERA
looked to the classification of one of the assets the team
maintains.
836. For Operations Planning, Customer Engagement and Service
Quality, for the Utilities team and for the Chief Operations Officer,
AERA looked to the breadth of the airport to which the function
extends.
837. These are four different tests, of ownership, of location, of asset
and of scope, applied to one question. A cost may be common
under one of them and aeronautical under another. The
classification of a regulated cost cannot depend upon which of
several tests the regulator happens to select for a particular head.
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838. The consistent and correct test is the one the Appellant's
submissions invite, namely what the team actually does and for
whose services. Upon that test the answer is a question of fact,
to be decided upon the material placed before AERA, and it is
that exercise which AERA has not undertaken.
839. The second is that in five of the six heads AERA's decision ends
with the words that it makes no change to the conclusion of the
study, or that it has noted and adopts that conclusion. The
Appellant placed specific factual statements before AERA about
the work of each team, and AERA has not found any of them to
be untrue. An expert study is an aid to the decision, not a
substitute for it.
840. As the Hon'ble Supreme Court observed in Gastrade
International Vs. Commissioner of Customs, Kandla,
2025 INSC 411 , which we have already referred to under Issue
No. XV above, an expert opinion does not bind the authority that
relies upon it. The statutory function of determining tariff, and of
deciding the allocation of costs that goes into it, is AERA's, and
Section 13(4)(c) requires AERA's decision, and not the
consultant's, to be fully documented and explained. Where
objections to the study have been placed before AERA, adopting
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the study's conclusion without dealing with them is not a decision
upon them.
841. AERA cannot delegate its decision-making function to a
consultant. The report of a consultant is material on which the
Authority may act, but the Authority must apply its own mind to
that report. It must consider whether the methodology is sound,
whether the comparators are appropriate, and whether the
conclusions follow from the premises. A mechanical adoption of
a consultant's conclusion is not a decision of the Authority; it is a
decision of the consultant.
842. Section 13(4)(c) of the AERA Act requires every decision of AERA
to be fully documented and explained, and, as the Hon'ble
Supreme Court held in Siemens Engineering and Manufacturing
Company of India Limited versus Union of India, (1976) 2 SCC
981, at paragraph 6, the obligation to give reasons is a basic
principle of natural justice. Adopting the conclusion of a study is
not a reason, where the study itself did not engage with the
objections placed before it, and the order records no independent
consideration of them.
843. It ought to be noted that the determination of tariff under Section
13(1)(a) of the AERA Act, 2008 is preceded, under the Authority's
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own Guidelines (the CGF Guidelines, 2011), by the issuance of a
consultation paper and the invitation of stakeholder objections.
Where the operator places on record specific, cost-centre-wise
objections supported by the functions actually discharged by each
team the Authority is bound in law to apply its mind to each
objection and to disclose its reasons for acceptance or rejection.
844. The classification of a cost centre must depend upon the nature
of the functions performed by it, and not upon the location where
the functions are performed or the designation of the persons
who perform them. A cost centre which performs functions that
are integrally connected to aeronautical operations is an
aeronautical cost centre, even if some of those functions are
performed within a terminal building that also houses non-
aeronautical activities. With these principles in mind, we turn to
the six cost centres which the Authority has classified as common.
(i) TERMINAL OPERATIONS
845. In respect of the Terminal Operations team, AERA recorded the
Appellant's submission that the upkeep and maintenance of areas
leased to concessionaires are managed by the concessionaires
themselves, and that the team is concerned with passenger and
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baggage processing and information flows, and then decided that
the terminal building being a common asset, the team
responsible for terminal operations has to be considered as
common, and that it would make no change to the conclusion of
the study.
846. Whether the terminal building is a common asset is a question
about the building. Whether the cost of a particular team is
common depends upon what that team does, and for whom. A
team may work within a common building and yet serve only one
class of its users. AERA has not found that the Terminal
Operations team performs any function for the non aeronautical
concessionaires, and without such a finding the conclusion does
not follow.
847. AERA states that terminal operations are considered as
aeronautical for the purpose of operation and maintenance
expenses, with only certain cost items relating to food and
beverages and lounges, other than VIP lounges, being
reclassified from aeronautical to non aeronautical.
848. AERA has thus itself found it possible to identify, item by item,
the portion of terminal operations expenditure that relates to non
aeronautical activity, and to treat the remainder as aeronautical.
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No cogent reason has been given in the impugned order why the
same function, treated as aeronautical with identified exceptions
under one head of expenditure, is treated as wholly common
under another.
849. The functions performed by the terminal operations team are the
functions by which passengers are processed. They are the
functions by which the airport operates as an airport. They are
not functions by which retail shops are operated or food is served.
The fact that these functions are performed within a building that
also houses retail shops does not make them common functions.
(ii) Operations Planning, Project Co-ordination, Customer
Engagement and Service Quality Management
850. AERA has clubbed together Operations Planning, Project Co-
ordination, Customer Engagement and Service Quality
Management and has treated the entire collection of functions
as common on the ground that the concerned cost centres are
responsible for the “entire airport operations”.
851. Again, the Authority has merely recorded the conclusion of the
study without disclosing its reasoning. The Authority does not tell
us what the study found about the specific functions performed
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by these cost centres. It does not tell us what the study
understood by "entire airport operations." It does not tell us
whether the study distinguished between functions performed for
aeronautical activities and functions performed for non-
aeronautical activities.
852. BIAL had specifically asserted that its Operations Planning team
does not undertake operational planning for concessionaires and
that its Service Quality function is concerned with Airport Service
Quality obligations arising from the Concession Agreement.
853. AERA has answered the above with assertion that the team works
for the “entire airport” and in our considered view this does not
answer question raised by appellant. The airport itself is the
regulated facility. If “entire airport” were, without further enquiry,
synonymous with “common”, then virtually every central
operational function would become common merely because the
airport also contains commercial activities and permitting such
reasoning to stand would would erase the distinction between
directly aeronautical operating functions and genuinely shared
corporate support.
854. The Concession Agreement imposes obligations upon BIAL in
relation to service quality. The Airport Service Quality
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measurement, which the service quality team maintains, is a
measure of the airport's performance as an airport. It is not a
measure of the performance of retail shops or restaurants. The
functions performed by these cost centres are therefore
aeronautical functions. The Authority has not explained why they
should be treated as common.
855. The Airport Service Quality programme, which the Appellant
states and AERA does not dispute is mandated by the Concession
Agreement, measures the quality of the service rendered to
passengers, and Section 13(1)(a)(ii) of the AERA Act itself
requires AERA to take the service provided and its quality into
account in determining aeronautical tariff. AERA cannot treat the
quality of service as a factor in fixing the aeronautical tariff, and
at the same time treat the cost of securing that quality as only
partly aeronautical, without explaining the difference.
(iii) LANDSIDE MAINTENANCE SPECIAL EQUIPMENT TEAM
856. The reasoning concerning the Landside Maintenance Special
Equipment team is, in our view, especially vulnerable. AERA has
treated the entire cost centre as common essentially because the
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air-conditioning system and the building AC plant were classified
as common assets in the asset-allocation study.
857. The stated functions of the cost centre, however, extend well
beyond central air-conditioning. The material placed before AERA
identifies systems including Baggage Handling Systems,
Passenger Boarding Bridges, VHT, HVAC, electrical systems, civil
and mechanical infrastructure and ICT systems. Several of those
systems have an immediate and direct relationship with
aeronautical operations.
858. It is therefore impermissible to allow the classification of one
constituent asset the air-conditioning plant to determine the
regulatory character of the entire maintenance department. Even
assuming, for argument, that the air-conditioning plant were
common, it would only justify allocation of the expenditure
demonstrably attributable to maintenance of that asset. It would
not convert expenditure incurred in maintaining BHS, passenger
boarding bridges or other directly aeronautical systems into
common expenditure.
859. There is a further reason why the foundation of AERA’s reasoning
cannot now survive unmodified. Under Issue No. XXVI we have
separately held that the disputed core electrical and powerhouse
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equipment and the Terminal 1A chiller infrastructure are
aeronautical assets. To the extent paragraph 3.7.26 proceeds
upon their classification as common assets, that factual premise
no longer survives our determination under the preceding issue.
(iv) Utilities, Water Supply and Power Systems
860. The impugned order itself records the Appellant's submission that
the utility cost recoveries from concessionaires are netted off and
treated as wholly aeronautical by AERA, and AERA does not deny
it. The non aeronautical concessionaires pay for the utilities they
consume, and those recoveries reduce the aeronautical cost in
full, for the benefit of the users.
861. If the cost of the team that supplies those utilities is then treated
as common, the non aeronautical share of that team's cost is
removed from the aeronautical cost base, while the revenue
which non aeronautical users pay for the same service has
already been credited wholly to the aeronautical side. AERA must
treat the cost of supplying a service and the recovery for that
service on the same footing.
862. The appellant submitted that utility services are a fundamental
necessity for airport operations, and that the utility team ensures
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that utility services are seamlessly provided for airport functioning
and also develops strategic goals for energy, environment and
waste management, and is the company custodian for all ISO
standards, noise and air quality management.
863. These are functions that are integrally connected to the operation
of the airport. They are not functions that are performed for the
benefit of retail shops or restaurants. They are functions that are
performed for the benefit of the airport as an airport. The
Authority has not cogently explained why these functions should
be treated as common.
(v) Chief Operations Officer
864. AERA has treated the Chief Operating Officer as common because
the COO is “an integral part of the airport management whose
role cannot be limited to only the aeronautical activities at the
airport.”
865. In our considered opinion this reasoning is the same as the
reasoning in respect of the other cost centres. The expression
“cannot be limited” is a conclusion rather than a demonstrated
factual finding. No job description, reporting structure, allocation
of responsibility or identified non-aeronautical function is referred
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to in paragraph 3.7.26 as the basis for that conclusion and as
such AERA has arrived at a conclusion without disclosing its
premises. AERA has not provided us with cogent reason as what
is the job profile of Chief Operations Officer. AERA also does not
identify any non-aeronautical function performed by him.
866. The appellant submitted that the Chief Operations Officer is a
designation working only on core airport operations
management. AERA has not controverted this submission. AERA
has not identified any function performed by the Chief Operations
Officer for the benefit of non-aeronautical concessionaires.
867. We are of the opinion that the Chief Operations Officer of an
airport is the officer responsible for the operations of the airport.
His functions are the functions by which the airport operates as
an airport. They are not the functions by which retail shops are
operated or restaurants are managed. AERA has not explained
why his cost should be treated as common.
(vi) Corporate Affairs
868. AERA’S reasoning is that "corporate affairs for an airport is
responsible for representing BIAL. BIAL, being a business owner
of aeronautical and non-aeronautical businesses operational at
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the airport, the Authority has noted the conclusion of the study
to consider BIAL's corporate affairs cost-centre as common."In
our considered view this reasoning suffers from three infirmities.
Which are as follows:
869. First , AERA has merely recorded the conclusion of the study
without disclosing the reasoning of the study. The impugned
order does not tell us what the corporate affairs team does, what
functions it performs, or how those functions relate to non-
aeronautical activities. AERA has not identified a single non-
aeronautical function performed by the corporate affairs team.
The conclusion is therefore a conclusion without premise
870. Second, AERA’s reasoning proceeds upon an assumption that
BIAL is a business owner of both aeronautical and non-
aeronautical businesses. But BIAL is not a business owner in the
ordinary sense. BIAL is an airport operator. Its corporate affairs
team deals with permissions required from the Government of
India and the Government of Karnataka for the airport. These are
permissions that are required for the airport to function as an
airport. They are not permissions required for the operation of a
retail shop or a food court. Hence such exercise are aeronautical
in character.
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871. Third, AERA has not dealt with the appellant's specific
submission that the corporate affairs of non-aeronautical
concessionaires are not managed by BIAL. The appellant
submitted that its corporate affairs team manages the affairs of
BIAL only. AERA has not controverted this submission.
872. It has not identified any function performed by the corporate
affairs team for the benefit of non-aeronautical concessionaires.
In the absence of such identification, the classification of the cost
centre as “common” is arbitrary.
873. We, therefore, quash and set aside the decision of AERA
in paragraph 3.7.26 of the impugned order and direct the
AERA to consider the issues raised by the appellant
during objections raised in reply to the consultation
paper and to pass a fresh order on this issue in which
AERA shall deal with the issues which are already raised
by the appellant. Issue No. XXVII is accordingly
answered in favour of the Appellant.
Judgements delivered by this Tribunal ought to have
been implemented by AERA unless they are stayed or
modified.
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874. During the course of examination of the several issues arising in
the present appeal, another aspect of considerable institutional
importance has emerged from the record, which it would be a
failure of duty on our part to pass over in silence. We have
noticed that, while dealing with decisions rendered by this
Tribunal in earlier tariff proceedings, AERA appears to have
adopted materially different standards depending upon whether
the decision in question supported or operated against the
regulatory position taken by it.
875. Looking to the facts of the case, it ought to be kept in mind
that AERA, being a statutory authority entrusted with the economic
regulation of airports, is required, as per its own stated position, to
balance the interests of all the stakeholders. A direction to implement
the concession agreement gives effect to the intent of the legislature,
the policy of the GoI and the stature. The interest of the AO is also
one such interest, which cannot be ignored by a statutory authority
that is itself a creature of the legislative intent. Such interest flows
from the concession agreements which as admitted by the GoI itself,
carry the philosophy for economic regulation of aeronautical tariffs at
the respective airports and have been approved at the highest level
in the Government. Massive infrastructure projects such as airport
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development require regulatory consistency, more so when the
concession agreement itself incorporates the policy of the GoI. It is
noteworthy that the concession agreement of the Appellant is among
the first entered into by the GoI for a greenfield airport under the PPP
model. This pioneering initiative deserves due recognition, and the
concession agreement deserves to be respected and honored. Delay
in implementation, therefore, affects not only the legitimate
expectation of the AO but also the airport users. Each decision of
AERA involves a substantial amount, and any further delay would only
add to the carrying cost, which is ultimately become by the airport
users at some point in time.
876. The Hon’ble Supreme Court, in several judicial
pronouncements, has consistently held that a party in whose favour
an order has been passed should not be deprived of the fruits thereof
merely because an appeal has been preferred, especially when no
stay has been granted and the monetary benefits are capable of
restitution, in case the appeal proceedings ultimately attain finality in
favour of the party. The interest of the other stakeholders can also
adequately be protected, as AERA ultimately succeeds in the appeal
proceedings before the Hon’ble Supreme Court. The orders passed
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by this Tribunal, being the appellate forum constituted under the
statute, are binding upon AERA.
877. In view of the aforesaid facts, reasons and judicial
pronouncements, and in keeping with the rule of law, we are of the
considered opinion that AERA ought to implement the directions
given by this Tribunal, with such modifications as may be appropriate,
while duly balancing the interests of all the stakeholders, including
that of the AO. This would be consistent with the Statement of
Objects and Reasons of the AERA Act, 2008, which, inter alia,
recognizes the need to encourage investment in airport facilities and
would thereby offer safety and security to private investors through
regulatory consistency.
878. Upon perusal of the record before us, where a decision of this
Tribunal has upheld the position taken by AERA, AERA has
applied it promptly in the succeeding Control Period,
notwithstanding that the operator has appealed against it. Where
a decision of this Tribunal has gone against AERA, AERA has
declined to give effect to it, upon the ground that an appeal is
pending, that the decision has therefore not attained finality, and
that it need not be implemented until the Hon'ble Supreme Court
decides the appeal, although no order of stay has been passed.
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We propose to examine whether this course is consistent with
law.
879. In the tariff exercise for the Third Control Period of BIAL, AERA
expressly relied upon the judgment rendered by the single judge
of this Tribunal dated 16th December, 2020 in BIAL’s earlier
appeals while dealing with real-estate revenue, notwithstanding
the fact that the said judgment had already been carried in appeal
before the Hon’ble Supreme Court.
880. The first limb of this observation is established by the impugned
order itself. The Appellant's memorandum of appeal records, and
AERA does not dispute, that the judgment of this Tribunal dated
16.12.2020 in AERA Appeal No. 8 of 2018 was carried by the
Appellant to the Hon'ble Supreme Court in Civil Appeal Nos. 1798
and 1799 of 2021 before the impugned order came to be passed.
The impugned order, and the consultation paper preceding it,
nonetheless invoke that very judgment, in terms, as having
upheld or agreed with the stand of the Authority, in support of
issues concerning AERA's treatment of revenue from Cargo,
Ground Handling and Fuel services as aeronautical, of revenue
from real estate as non-aeronautical, of interest income as non-
aeronautical, of waivers and bad debts, of the adjustment to the
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opening Regulatory Asset Base upon the report of Engineers
India Limited, of utility recoveries, of rentals from aeronautical
service providers, of the penalty upon delayed capital projects,
and of quality of service. In none of these places does AERA
suggest that the pendency of the Appellant's appeal made the
judgment of 16.12.2020, any less operative, or any less fit to be
applied.
881. The same approach is carried into AERA's pleadings in this
appeal. Under the issue concerning Cargo, Ground Handling and
Fuel services, AERA relies upon paragraphs 26 to 29 of the
judgment dated 16.12.2020 as the foundation of its jurisdiction.
Under the issue concerning commercial land development, AERA
goes further, and pleads that because the question is pending
before the Hon'ble Supreme Court in Civil Appeal Nos. 1798 and
1799 of 2021, AERA is empowered to use the method of
computation it had used during the Second Control Period.
882. Under the issues concerning the Eastern Connectivity Tunnel and
the notional lease rentals from Bengaluru Airport Hotel Limited,
AERA pleads that the Appellant is barred from raising questions
which are the subject of those very appeals, invoking in the latter
case the principle embodied in Section 10 of the Code of Civil
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Procedure, 1908. The pendency of the Appellant's appeal against
a judgment favourable to AERA is thus put forward, not as a
reason for caution in applying that judgment, but as a reason for
applying it and for shutting out any challenge to it.
883. The second limb is also disclosed by AERA's reply. Where a
decision of this Tribunal has gone against AERA, the pendency of
AERA's own appeal is put forward as a reason for not applying it.
Under the issue concerning the inclusion of thirty per cent of non-
aeronautical revenue in the base for aeronautical tax, AERA urges
that the question is sub judice before the Hon'ble Supreme Court
in AERA's appeal against the judgment of this Tribunal dated 21st
July 2023 in AERA Appeal No. 1 of 2021, Delhi International
Airport Limited versus AERA, and on that footing declines to apply
it.
884. The same fact, i.e. the pendency of an appeal before the
Hon'ble Supreme Court, is thus treated by AERA as no
obstacle to applying a judgment that favours it, and as a
sufficient reason for not applying a judgment that does
not . To us, this is not an isolated instance as it appears from the
judgment of this Tribunal in the case of BIAL, considered below,
where this tribunal found it necessary to deprecate what we can
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only described as an emerging practice of deferring obedience on
the footing of a pending but unstayed appeal.
885. We are unable to accept that the legal effect of an appeal can
vary according to which party the judgment under appeal
happens to favour. Either the pendency of an appeal suspends
the operation of the judgment appealed against, or it does not.
The answer is supplied by settled law, and it is the same answer
whichever litigant asks the question.
886. It is necessary, in this connection, to keep apart two distinct
senses of the word finality. A judgment may be open to further
appeal, and in that sense not yet final, and yet be fully operative
and binding upon the parties and upon the authority whose order
it has corrected. Finality in the first sense is a matter of whether
all avenues of appeal have been exhausted. Operative force is a
matter of whether the competent appellate court has stayed,
varied or set aside the judgment. The first does not determine
the second.
887. This legal position is settled beyond cavil. A judgment of a court
or tribunal continues to be binding and effective between the
parties unless and until it is stayed or set aside by a superior
court. The mere filing of an appeal does not operate as an
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automatic stay and neither does the pendency of a Civil Appeal
before the Honourable Supreme Court suspend the operation of
the judgment under appeal. This principle has been reiterated in
a long line of authorities.
888. The Hon'ble Supreme Court laid down the governing principle
more than six decades ago in Bhopal Sugar Industries
Limited Vs. Income Tax Officer, Bhopal, AIR 1961 SC 182 ,
holding that a refusal by a subordinate authority to carry out the
directions of a superior appellate tribunal amounts in effect to a
denial of justice, and is destructive of the basic principles of the
administration of justice under a hierarchical system, since if
subordinate authorities were free to disregard appellate
directions there would be chaos in the administration of justice.
For ready reference the relevant paragraphs reads as under:
“8. We think that the learned Judicial Commissioner was
clearly in error in holding that no manifest injustice
resulted from the order of the respondent conveyed in
his letter dated March 24, 1955. By that order the
respondent virtually refused to carry out the
directions which a superior tribunal had given to
him in exercise of its appellate powers in respect
of an order of assessment made by him. Such
refusal is in effect a denial of justice, and is
furthermore destructive of one of the basic
principles in the administration of justice based
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as it is in this country on a hierarchy of courts. If
a subordinate tribunal refuses to carry out
directions given to it by a superior tribunal in the
exercise of its appellate powers, the result will be
chaos in the administration of justice and we have
indeed found it very difficult to appreciate the process
of reasoning by which the learned Judicial Commissioner
while roundly condemning the respondent for refusing
to carry out the directions of the superior tribunal, yet
held that no manifest injustice resulted from such
refusal.
9. It must be remembered that the order of the Tribunal
dated April 22, 1954, was not under challenge before
the Judicial Commissioner. That order had become final
and binding on the parties, and the respondent could
not question it in any way. As a matter of fact the
Commissioner of Income Tax had made an application
for a reference, which application was subsequently
withdrawn. The Judicial Commissioner was not
sitting in appeal over the Tribunal and we do not
think that in the circumstances of this case it was
open to him to say that the order of the Tribunal
was wrong and, therefore, there was no injustice
in disregarding that order. As we have said
earlier, such a view is destructive of one of the
basic principles of the administration of justice.
10. In fairness to him it must be stated that learned counsel
for the respondent did not attempt to support the
judgment of the Judicial Commissioner on the ground
that no manifest injustice resulted from the refusal of
the respondent to carry out the directions of a superior
tribunal. He conceded that even if the order of the
Tribunal was wrong, a subordinate and inferior
tribunal could not disregard it; he readily
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recognised the sanctity and importance of the
basic principle that a subordinate tribunal must
carry out the directions of a superior tribunal. He
argued, however, that the order of the Tribunal was
unintelligible and the respondent did his best to
understand it according to his light. This argument
advanced on behalf of the respondent appears to us to
be somewhat disingenuous. We find no difficulty in
understanding the order of the Tribunal; it directed the
respondent “to ascertain the average transport charges
per maund from the centres to the factory and add to it
the rate of Rs 1-4-6 per maund of sugarcane”. The
direction is clear and unambiguous. The respondent
instead of ascertaining the average transport charges
per maund from the centres to the factory, referred to
the transport charges from the farms to the factory and
on that footing disregarded the directions of the
Tribunal; for the respondent to say thereafter that the
order of the Tribunal was not intelligible betrays a
regrettable lack of candour. We must, therefore, reject
the argument of learned counsel for the respondent.
11. The learned Judicial Commissioner referred to three
decisions in support of the proposition that a direction
or order in the nature of a writ of mandamus cannot be
claimed as of right, nor need such a writ issue for every
omission or irregularity; Bimal Chand v. Chairman,
Jiagunj Azimgunj Municipality [AIR 1954 Cal 285] ;
Gram Panchayat, Vidul of Vidul v. Multi Purpose Co-
operative Society of Vidul [AIR 1954 Nag 82] and
Senairam Doongarmall v. CIT [AIR 1955 Assam 201] .
In the view which we have expressed, namely,
that by the impugned order the respondent failed
to carry out a legal duty imposed on him and such
failure was destructive of a basic principle of
justice, a writ of mandamus should issue ex
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debito justiciae to compel the respondent to
carry out the directions given to him by the
Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, Bombay, and it is
unnecessary to consider the decisions referred to
above except merely to state that in none of
them arose any question of condoning a refusal
by an inferior tribunal to carry out the directions
given to that tribunal by a superior tribunal in the
undoubted exercise of its appellate powers, on
the ground that the order of the superior tribunal
was wrong .
889. The Hon’ble Supreme Court settled the matter beyond doubt in
Union of India Vs. Kamlakshi Finance Corporation Ltd.,
1992 Supp (1) SCC 443 . The Court held that judicial discipline
requires subordinate authorities to follow decisions of higher
appellate authorities unreservedly and that the mere fact that
such decision is unacceptable to the Department and has been
appealed against is no ground for disregarding it unless its
operation has been suspended by a competent court. For ready
reference the relevant paragraph reads as under:
“6. Sri Reddy is perhaps right in saying that the officers
were not actuated by any mala fides in passing the
impugned orders. They perhaps genuinely felt that the
claim of the assessee was not tenable and that, if it was
accepted, the Revenue would suffer. But what Sri
Reddy overlooks is that we are not concerned
here with the correctness or otherwise of their
conclusion or of any factual mala fides but with
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the fact that the officers, in reaching their
conclusion, by-passed two appellate orders in
regard to the same issue which were placed
before them, one of the Collector (Appeals) and
the other of the Tribunal. The High Court has, in
our view, rightly criticised this conduct of the
Assistant Collectors and the harassment to the
assessee caused by the failure of these officers
to give effect to the orders of authorities higher
to them in the appellate hierarchy. It cannot be
too vehemently emphasised that it is of utmost
importance that, in disposing of the quasi-
judicial issues before them, revenue officers are
bound by the decisions of the appellate
authorities. The order of the Appellate Collector
is binding on the Assistant Collectors working
within his jurisdiction and the order of the
Tribunal is binding upon the Assistant Collectors
and the Appellate Collectors who function under
the jurisdiction of the Tribunal. The principles of
judicial discipline require that the orders of the
higher appellate authorities should be followed
unreservedly by the subordinate authorities. The
mere fact that the order of the appellate
authority is not “acceptable” to the department
— in itself an objectionable phrase — and is the
subject matter of an appeal can furnish no
ground for not following it unless its operation
has been suspended by a competent court. If this
healthy rule is not followed, the result will only
be undue harassment to assessees and chaos in
administration of tax laws .
890. The matter was again put beyond controversy in Collector of
Customs Vs. Krishna Sales (P) Ltd., 1994 Supp (3) SCC
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73 . There, notwithstanding pendency of an appeal against the
Tribunal’s order, the Supreme Court held that the authority could
not refuse to implement the order under appeal without obtaining
a stay or other appropriate direction. The Court stated in clear
terms that the mere filing of an appeal does not operate as a stay
or suspension of the order appealed against. For ready reference
the relevant paragraph reads as under:
“6. According to the said para 4, the goods will not be
released even where the party succeeds in cases where
the Customs authorities decide to go in appeal before
the Tribunal or the Supreme Court. They will consider
the issuance of such certificate only after the decision
of the Tribunal or the Supreme Court, as the case may
be. The learned counsel for the respondent
characterises the said direction as arbitrary and contrary
to law. We see the force in his submission. If the
authorities are of the opinion that the goods
ought not to be released pending the appeal, the
straightforward course for them is to obtain an
order of stay or other appropriate direction from
the Tribunal or the Supreme Court, as the case
may be. Without obtaining such an order they
cannot refuse to implement the order under
appeal. As is well-known, mere filing of an appeal
does not operate as a stay or suspension of the
order appealed against . Moreover, such detention is
likely to create several complications relating to the
demurrage charges besides the possible deterioration of
the machinery and goods. We hope and trust that the
Collector of Customs, Bombay shall appropriately revise
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the said public notice in the light of the observations
made herein. If he does not do so, there is a likelihood
of the Customs authorities being themselves made liable
for demurrage charges in appropriate cases. ”
891. The same principle is reflected in Order XLI Rule 5(1) of the Code
of Civil Procedure, 1908, which expressly provides that an appeal
shall not operate as a stay merely by reason of its having been
preferred. Although proceedings before this Tribunal are not
governed in every respect by the Code, the provision embodies a
fundamental principle of appellate jurisprudence, that an
appellant cannot, merely by instituting an appeal, confer upon
itself the interim relief which only the appellate court is
competent to grant.
892. In Shree Chamundi Mopeds Ltd. Vs. Church of South India
Trust Association, (1992) 3 SCC 1 , the Hon’ble Supreme
Court explained that even an express order staying operation of
a judgment does not obliterate the judgment from existence; it
merely renders it inoperative during the currency of the stay. A
fortiori, where no stay at all has been granted, there can be no
legal basis for treating the judgment as though it stood
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suspended. For ready reference the relevant paragraph reads as
under:
“10. In the instant case, the proceedings before the Board
under Sections 15 and 16 of the Act had been
terminated by order of the Board dated April 26, 1990
whereby the Board, upon consideration of the facts and
material before it, found that the appellant-company
had become economically and commercially non-viable
due to its huge accumulated losses and liabilities and
should be wound up. The appeal filed by the appellant-
company under Section 25 of the Act against said order
of the Board was dismissed by the Appellate Authority
by order dated January 7, 1991. As a result of these
orders, no proceedings under the Act were pending
either before the Board or before the Appellate
Authority on February 21, 1991 when the Delhi High
Court passed the interim order staying the operation of
the order of the Appellate Authority dated January 7,
1991. The said stay order of the High Court cannot have
the effect of reviving the proceedings which had been
disposed of by the Appellate Authority by its order dated
January 7, 1991. While considering the effect of an
interim order staying the operation of the order
under challenge, a distinction has to be made
between quashing of an order and stay of
operation of an order. Quashing of an order
results in the restoration of the position as it
stood on the date of the passing of the order
which has been quashed. The stay of operation of
an order does not, however, lead to such a result.
It only means that the order which has been
stayed would not be operative from the date of
the passing of the stay order and it does not
mean that the said order has been wiped out
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from existence. This means that if an order
passed by the Appellate Authority is quashed and
the matter is remanded, the result would be that
the appeal which had been disposed of by the
said order of the Appellate Authority would be
restored and it can be said to be pending before
the Appellate Authority after the quashing of the
order of the Appellate Authority. The same
cannot be said with regard to an order staying
the operation of the order of the Appellate
Authority because in spite of the said order, the
order of the Appellate Authority continues to
exist in law and so long as it exists, it cannot be
said that the appeal which has been disposed of
by the said order has not been disposed of and is
still pending… ”
893. The scheme of the AERA Act leads to the same conclusion.
Section 31 confers a right of appeal to the Hon'ble Supreme Court
against orders of this Tribunal. Parliament has nowhere provided
that the filing of such an appeal shall suspend the order appealed
against. On the contrary, Section 32 provides that every order
made by this Tribunal shall be executable by it as a decree of a
civil court, and that for this purpose the Tribunal shall have all
the powers of a civil court. Section 37 provides for a penalty for
wilful failure to comply with the orders of this Tribunal, and
Section 39 for punishment for non-compliance with orders of the
Authority or of this Tribunal.
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894. Parliament thus preserved the right of appeal under Section 31,
while making the orders of this Tribunal presently executable and
attaching consequences to their non-compliance. To hold that the
filing of an appeal under Section 31, without more, entitles AERA
to postpone compliance until the appeal is decided would be to
read into Section 31 an automatic stay which Parliament did not
enact, and to deprive Sections 32, 37 and 39 of much of their
content.
895. This Tribunal has itself recently reiterated the position in GMR
Goa International Airport Ltd. Vs. AERA, AERA Appeal No.
1 of 2024, judgment dated 11.09.2025 has held that
decisions of this Tribunal bind AERA unless stayed or set aside;
that non-adherence to binding precedent amounts to a breach of
judicial discipline; and that AERA cannot defer compliance merely
because an appeal is pending. For ready reference the relevant
paragraph reads as under:
“ 186. It is trite to state that it is elementary principle of law
that the determinations of this Tribunal binds AERA
unless and until stayed or set aside by the Hon'ble
Supreme Court. The mere pendency of an appeal does
not dilute the ratio decidendi. Where no interim stay
is in force, the Tribunal's pronouncement operates
proprio vigore and must be implemented inter partes
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in the very matter decided and, on parity, in cognate
cases presenting the same point.
187. That non-adherence to a binding precedent constitutes
a jurisdictional error and a breach of judicial discipline
in the statutory hierarchy. The emerging practice of
deferring obedience on the footing of a pending but
unstayed appeal is deprecated. If the Authority
considers a prior ratio inapplicable, it must identify the
material distinctions, record reasons, and, where
necessary, seek clarification; it may not simply ignore
the ruling.
188.The AERA tariff framework already contains a safety-
valve in the form of true-up. Should the Hon'ble
Supreme Court subsequently vary the governing law,
symmetrical adjustments can be effected at the next
determination without unsettling settled accounts. The
availability of true-up removes any rationale for
holding back compliance with binding Tribunal law in
the interim. .”
896. We respectfully reiterate that principle. AERA is undoubtedly
entitled to disagree with a judgment of this Tribunal and to avail
itself of the statutory remedy under Section 31. Indeed, the
Hon’ble Supreme Court in Airports Economic Regulatory
Authority of India Vs. Delhi International Airport Ltd.,
2024 INSC 791 , has recognised AERA’s entitlement to maintain
an appeal where it is aggrieved by a determination of this
Tribunal. That right of appeal is not in issue. What does not follow
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from the existence of that right is a right in AERA to suspend the
judgment for itself pending appellate scrutiny.
897. The distinction is elementary but important. The right to
challenge an order is not the right to disobey it. An
appellate remedy permits the aggrieved party to seek reversal,
modification and, where necessary, interim protection from the
superior court. Until such protection is granted, the order
continues to govern the parties and the authority whose decision
was subjected to appellate correction.
898. We are particularly concerned by the appearance, disclosed
across the tariff proceedings placed before us, of a selective
invocation of the concept of “finality”. AERA cannot treat the
pendency of an appeal as legally irrelevant when the judgment
of this Tribunal supports the position which AERA wishes to
adopt, but treat the same pendency as dispositive when the
judgment requires AERA to alter its methodology and
countenancing such an approach would amount to
permitting a statutory regulator to approbate and
reprobate upon the binding effect of the appellate
process itself .
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899. Judicial discipline cannot be made dependent upon the identity
of the successful party. The doctrine exists not for the benefit of
an airport operator, an airline, AERA or any other individual
litigant, but to preserve the integrity of the institutional hierarchy
created by Parliament. Where AERA declines to implement a
judgment of this Tribunal that has set aside AERA's own order,
the authority whose decision has been corrected on appeal is
deciding for itself, pending its own challenge, whether and when
that correction will take effect.
900. It thereby exercises, in its own favour, the very power to grant
interim relief which the law vests only in the Hon'ble Supreme
Court. That is an inversion of the appellate hierarchy Parliament
created by Sections 18 and 31 of the AERA Act. The appellate
mechanism would be of little practical value if the authority
whose order had been reversed could itself determine whether
the reversal would be obeyed.
901. We are of firm opinion that such a practice has consequences
extending beyond the immediate parties. Economic regulation
necessarily depends upon stability, predictability and legitimate
institutional confidence. Airport operators, airlines, lenders,
investors and passengers arrange their affairs on the basis of
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regulatory determinations and the law declared by the statutory
appellate forum. If an unstayed appellate judgment may be
implemented when favourable to the regulator and ignored when
adverse, the regulatory framework ceases to operate by
ascertainable legal rules and begins to depend upon the unilateral
preference of the regulator.
902. That consequence of such a probate and reprobate actions on
part of AERA is antithetical to the rule of law. A statutory regulator
exercises substantial public power, but remains subject to the
statutory appellate structure by which Parliament has chosen to
control that power. Expertise does not place the regulator above
appellate correction; if anything, the breadth of regulatory
discretion makes adherence to institutional discipline all the more
important.
903. This state of affairs is unacceptable in a regime governed by the
rule of law. It undermines the authority of this Tribunal. It
undermines the confidence of the public and of the regulated
entities in the judicial system. It creates a situation where the
regulator is effectively above the law.
904. We would also caution against treating “public interest” as an
answer to this requirement. AERA may legitimately consider the
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interests of passengers and other stakeholders within the
statutory framework. It cannot, however, on its own assessment
of public interest, place an unstayed appellate judgment in
abeyance. Courts and tribunals routinely balance public
consequences while considering applications for interim relief. If
AERA apprehends serious prejudice from immediate
implementation, the lawful course is to seek a stay or appropriate
protective order from the Hon’ble Supreme Court. The regulator
cannot assume unto itself the jurisdiction to grant the very stay
which it has sought or may seek from the appellate court.
905. The possibility of later reversal does not justify present non-
compliance. The tariff framework itself contains mechanisms of
true-up and consequential adjustment. Where a monetary
determination is subsequently modified by the Hon’ble Supreme
Court, the resulting difference can ordinarily be addressed in the
succeeding regulatory exercise. As held in GMR Goa, the
availability of such a corrective mechanism materially weakens
any suggestion that obedience to an unstayed judgment would
produce irreversible regulatory consequences.
906. We therefore record in clear terms that a judgment or order of
this Tribunal remains binding upon AERA and must be given
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effect to unless and until its operation has been stayed, modified
or set aside by the Hon’ble Supreme Court. Mere institution or
pendency of an appeal under Section 31 does not furnish a lawful
ground for withholding implementation.
907. If AERA considers that a previous decision is distinguishable in a
later tariff determination, it is entitled to demonstrate the
distinction by reference to the governing concession, statutory
provision, factual matrix or tariff methodology and to record
reasons accordingly. AERA cannot avoid applying the ratio
of a binding judgment by merely stating that an appeal
against it is pending .
908. Equally, if AERA chooses to rely upon a judgment of this Tribunal
while that judgment is itself under appeal, that conduct
necessarily recognises the elementary proposition that pendency
of an appeal does not by itself destroy the present legal force of
the judgment. The Authority cannot adopt the opposite
proposition when confronted with another judgment which
operates against it.
909. The AERA’s conduct in implementing favourable decisions
promptly while delaying or refusing to implement unfavourable
decisions are uncondonable. It creates uncertainty for the
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regulated entity. It undermines the confidence of the regulated
entity in the appellate mechanism. It leads to a situation
where the regulated entity is left with no remedy except
to seek the mercy of the regulator, which is itself a party
to the dispute. This is a conflict of interest of the gravest
kind .
910. We consequently deprecate any practice of selective
compliance with, or selective reliance upon, decisions of
this Tribunal according to whether the particular
determination favours the regulatory position of AERA .
Such a practice, if permitted to continue, would invert the
statutory appellate hierarchy, impair regulatory certainty and
diminish confidence in the appellate process established by
Parliament.
911. AERA shall, therefore, while giving effect to the present judgment
and while undertaking tariff determination and true-up exercises
in succeeding Control Periods, apply the law declared by this
Tribunal on issues already adjudicated, subject only to any
specific order of stay, modification or reversal passed by the
Hon’ble Supreme Court.
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912. In view of these facts, reasons and judicial
pronouncements, we hereby quash and set aside the
impugned order to the aforesaid extent and directions
given at the end of each issue shall be carried out by
AERA within a period of three months from date of receipt
of this Judgement. Thereby, this appeal is allowed to the
aforesaid extent.
913. Consequently, AERA Order No. 11/2021-22 dated
28.08.2021 (Annexure A-1 to the memo of this Appeal)
passed by Respondent No. 1 – AERA stands modified to
the extent of the issues allowed in the present Appeal. All
pending miscellaneous applications connected with this
Appeal are also disposed of.
_____________________
(JUSTICE D.N. PATEL)
CHAIRPERSON
/NS/
___________________
(DR. SANJEEV BANZAL)
MEMBER
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